Strategic Management
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Strategic Management is a course designed to equip students with the knowledge and analytical skills necessary to formulate, implement, and evaluate business strategies. The course covers key concepts such as competitive analysis, internal and external environment assessment, corporate and business-level strategies, and strategic decision-making processes. Through case studies and real-world applications, students learn to identify opportunities and threats, leverage organizational strengths, and develop effective strategies to achieve long-term organizational objectives. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking, problem-solving, and ethical considerations in the strategic management process.
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Modern Management Concepts and Skills 12th Edition by Samuel C. Certo
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Chapter 1: Introducing Modern Management: Concepts and Skills
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Q1) In an organization, short-term planning, clarifying objectives of jobs in organizations, and monitoring operations and performance are task-related activities.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Management principles are considered to be universal because _________.
A) production processes and strategies remain the same across organizations
B) employees in all organizations have the same skill sets
C) all organizations have the same organizational hierarchy
D) organizational goals and methods do not change from organization to organization
E) the principles of planning, organizing, influencing, and controlling are the same across organizations
Answer: E
Q3) Human skills, unlike technical skills, involve the ability to see the organization as a whole.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Managing: History and Current Thinking
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Q1) In terms of management system, the cheese used in the making of a sandwich at a restaurant is a(n) ________.
A) finished good
B) organizational output
C) production process
D) organizational process
E) organizational input
Answer: E
Q2) One of the primary characteristics present in situations in which management science techniques are applied is ________.
A) that the management problems have only a few variables
B) that the situation deals with quantifiable factors such as sales
C) that the situation deals with the physiological, safety, social, esteem, and self-actualization needs of organization members
D) that the situation deals with assessing qualitative factors of the workplace or environment
E) that social implications are the guidelines for making a particular decision
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Corporate Social Responsibility, Ethics, and Sustainability
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Q1) The social obligation approach considers business as having both societal and economic goals as well as the obligation to anticipate potential social problems and work actively toward preventing their occurrence.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The primary function of the Consumer Product Safety Commission is the regulation of safety and health conditions in nongovernment workplaces.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) All companies should take social responsibility measurements in the quality-of-life area and the economic function area.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Management and Diversity
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Q1) A major league basketball team has more African-American players than white players. It is about to recruit five more players and the management has specifically asked the coach to ensure that three out of the five new players are white. This is causing irritation among the African-American players who want to be part of the team. This is an example of ________.
A) reverse discrimination
B) pluralism
C) tokenism
D) monism
E) dualism
Q2) Gender-role stereotypes are negative perceptions of women based on what society believes are appropriate behaviors for them.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Managers who have progressed to Donaldson's "conscious incompetence" stage learn how to interact with diverse groups and cultures by deliberately thinking about how to behave.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Managing in the Global Arena
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Q1) A Belgium-based multinational company hires the best managers for its operations, regardless of the location of those managers. This company is said to have a(n)
A) ethnocentric attitude
B) polycentric attitude
C) egocentric attitude
D) geocentric attitude
E) gynocentric attitude
Q2) An international market agreement is ________.
A) a joint venture between two companies who want to enter markets in the other country
B) an arrangement among a cluster of countries that facilitates a high level of trade among these countries
C) an international import deal between two countries
D) an agreement between an importer from one country and an exporter from another
E) an agreement between a multinational company and its franchisees in a number of countries
Q3) What are the six stages of multinationalization? What activities does a company perform at each stage?
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Chapter 6: Management and Entrepreneurship
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Q1) Arm & Hammer used sustained regeneration when it expanded the uses for baking soda by introducing it as a deodorizing ingredient in such products as toothpaste, laundry detergent, etc.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bryan has started a nonprofit organization that places the visually impaired in suitable jobs. What type of entrepreneurship is Bryan displaying?
A) corporate social entrepreneurship
B) intrapreneurship
C) commercial entrepreneurship
D) corporate entrepreneurship
E) social entrepreneurship
Q3) When Nintendo develops and markets the Wii gaming system, it is an opportunity that has arisen from a ________.
A) new product or service
B) new geographical market
C) new method of production
D) new raw material
E) new method of organizing
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Chapter 7: Principles of Planning
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Q1) Of the four primary management functions, organizing usually precedes planning.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to Drucker, management should set objectives that indicate the company's responsibilities to its customers and society but should not specify the extent to which the company intends to live up to these responsibilities.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The CEO of an organization inaugurated the company's state-of-the-art research and development facility. According to Mintzberg, the CEO performed the role of a(n) ________ in this situation.
A) monitor
B) liaison
C) organizational figurehead
D) resource allocator
E) disturbance handler
Q4) Short-term objectives are targets to be achieved within five to seven years.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Making Decisions
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Q1) A disadvantage of the nominal group technique is that ________.
A) it wastes the group's time on wildly impractical ideas
B) it works best only in teams with geographically dispersed members
C) it does not allow members to know why individuals voted the way they did
D) members cannot support or reject an idea without fear of recrimination
E) it does not allow members to question one another
Q2) The Delphi group decision-making technique is a process that involves circulating questionnaires on a specific problem among group members, sharing those results, and continuing to recirculate and refine responses until a consensus is reached.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The confirmation bias is the tendency to believe certain outcomes because others believe the same.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A decision is a choice made between two or more available alternatives.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the disadvantages of group decision-making?
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Chapter 9: Strategic Planning: Strategies, Tactics, and Competitive Dynamics
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Q1) The commitment principle is a management guideline that advises managers to totally commit themselves to strategic planning.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The general environment of an organization's external environment contains international, labor, customer, competitor, and supplier components.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An SBU with a small market share of a high-growth market is a ________.
A) star
B) dog
C) cash cow
D) question mark
E) low-cost leader
Q4) What is competitive dynamics? Briefly describe the factors that influence a firm's action or reaction?
Q5) Demographics are the statistical characteristics of a population.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Plans and Planning Tools
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Q1) Which of the following is the first step in the human resource planning process?
A) developing human resource programs
B) assessing organizational objectives and plans
C) determining human resource requirements
D) preparing a human resource inventory
E) determining net human resource requirements
Q2) Which of the following sales forecasting methods provides the forecaster with a trend-line that best explains the historical relationship between sales and time?
A) the regression method
B) the product stages method
C) the jury of executive opinion
D) the Delphi method
E) the moving average method
Q3) What is a standing plan and a single-use plan? Briefly discuss the various types of standing and single-use plans.
Q4) Repetitiveness, time, scope, and length are the four dimensions of plans.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define the program evaluation and review technique (PERT).
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Chapter 11: Fundamentals of Organizing
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Q1) Which of the following is an advantage of departmentalizing by matrix?
A) It clarifies the power structure within the firm.
B) It helps employees prioritize responsibilities.
C) It allows organizations to focus on several projects simultaneously.
D) It facilitates coordination across projects.
E) It allows firms to achieve unity of command.
Q2) ________ is defined as the orderly arrangement of group effort to provide unity of action in the pursuit of a common purpose.
A) Justification
B) Combination
C) Amalgamation
D) Coordination
E) Rationalization
Q3) A company's informal structure is represented primarily by the organizational chart.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is meant by the horizontal dimensioning of an organization? Also explain the terms departments, departmentalizing, and list the various modes of departmentalizing and organization.
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Chapter 12: Responsibility, Authority, and Delegation
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Q1) An individual's job activities within an organization are usually summarized in a formal statement called a ________.
A) job evaluation
B) job description
C) job design
D) job specification
E) job analysis
Q2) The source of authority lies within the individual.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following key dimensions of responsible management behavior is concerned with managers accepting criticism for mistakes and buffering their groups from excessive criticism?
A) behavior with upper management
B) personal attitudes and values
C) attitude toward and conduct with subordinates
D) behavior with people outside the organization
E) behavior with other groups
Q4) Explain the concepts of line, staff, and functional authority.
Q5) Describe the functional similarity method of dividing job activities.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Human Resource Management
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of lectures as a training method?
A) Lectures involve even exchange of information between instructors and trainees by way of discussions and debates.
B) Lectures are disadvantaged by their inability to expose trainees to a substantial amount of information within a given time period.
C) The nature of the lecture situation makes it of minimal value in promoting attitudinal or behavioral change.
D) Instructors can handle the wide diversity of ability, attitude, and interest that may prevail among the trainees by way of lectures.
E) A lecture format provides opportunities for practice, reinforcement, knowledge of results, and overlearning.
Q2) Performance appraisals should emphasize how well the individual is doing the job, not the evaluator's impression of the individual's work habits.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Write a short note on the process of recruitment and its importance.
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Chapter 14: Organizational Change: Stress, Conflict, and Virtuality
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Q1) Which of the following is characterized by the most extensive degree of virtualization?
A) virtual meeting
B) virtual training
C) virtual team
D) virtual corporation
E) virtual group
Q2) Cost reduction is the most commonly cited reason for designing and implementing virtual offices.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Clarifying and defining jobs in an organization is an example of a people change.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Unlike most other ways of managing conflicts, resolving is used when managers perceive that they are in a win-loss conflict with employees.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Influencing and Communication
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Q1) The capacity of people to recognize their own feelings and the feelings of others is called motivational intelligence.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is considered the first step toward effective communication?
A) clarifying the idea or problem to be communicated
B) examining the true purpose of communication
C) consulting with others in planning communication
D) identifying actions that support the message being communicated
E) understanding the total physical and human setting
Q3) One strategy for encouraging formal organizational communication is to ensure that all organization members have free access to formal communication channels.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Enlist the ten commandments of effective listening.
Q5) What is emotional intelligence? Why is it important in organizations?
Q6) Explain the difference between communication macrobarriers and communication microbarriers. Give an example of each.
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Chapter 16: Leadership
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Q1) Leadership based on the attitude that the leader is self-employed is called
A) transformational leadership
B) path-goal leadership
C) superleadership
D) entrepreneurial leadership
E) servant leadership
Q2) A manager who permits the group to make decisions within prescribed limits appears at the center of Tannenbaum and Schmidt leadership continuum and is considered moderately democratic.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following leadership facets is highlighted in the Tannenbaum and Schmidt Leadership Continuum?
A) employee motivation
B) communication
C) workforce controlling
D) decision making
E) employee training
Q4) Explain the major findings of the OSU studies.
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Chapter 17: Motivation
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Q1) Which of the following behaviors is an attempt to relieve tension and frustration on the part of an employee who lacks motivation due to unsatisfied needs?
A) greater efficiency
B) increased aggression
C) increased productivity
D) competitive behavior
E) reduced absenteeism
Q2) Define motivation and the two basic types of motivation theories.
Q3) According to the Vroom theory, motivation strength is determined by money.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is a process theory of motivation?
A) Porter-Lawler theory
B) Alderfer's ERG theory
C) Maslow's hierarchy of needs
D) McClelland's acquired needs theory
E) Argyris's maturity-immaturity continuum
Q5) Theory X is a set of essentially positive assumptions about human nature.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Groups and Teams
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Q1) Once the interest or concern that caused an interest group to form has been eliminated, the group tends to disband.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One of the benefits of utilizing committees is that ________.
A) the decision-making process is much quicker than individual decision-making
B) there is no limit on the size of the committee
C) a committee does need a leader or a secretary
D) committees improve the quality of decision-making
E) decision-makers don't have to represent the group they come from
Q3) The ________ stage of groupthink occurs when a group does not collect the needed information to make an effective decision.
A) decision-making defects
B) antecedents
C) poor decision outcomes
D) symptoms of groupthink
E) concurrence seeking
Q4) The ideal number of committee members for most tasks seems to be from 15 to 20.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Managing Organization Culture
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Q1) The ________ dimension of organization culture is an element of organization culture that focuses on making sure that a product, in the opinion of the customer, does what it is supposed to do.
A) ethics
B) technological
C) quality
D) diversity
E) innovation
Q2) An organization with a highly competitive "a results or else" mentality can be said to follow a(n) ________.
A) market culture
B) adhocracy culture
C) clan culture
D) bureaucracy culture
E) ethical culture
Q3) Briefly explain the role of organizational rewards as a cultural artifact.
Q4) Subcultures can affect management efforts both positively and negatively.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Provide a brief description of organization culture.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Encouraging Creativity and Innovation
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a topic product ideas encompass in the invention stage of the innovation process?
A) redesigning work stations to make workers more productive
B) pricing, packaging, and distribution
C) changing organizational leadership
D) refining competitive strategy
E) improving human resource management
Q2) What are the benefits that an organization can enjoy by successfully offering high-quality products and services to the marketplace?
Q3) Managers should surround non-creative employees with creative employees so that creativity can rub off on the non-creative employees.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identifying job candidates who are creative and hiring them is one of the more easily implemented steps for increasing organizational creativity.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How are innovation and creativity connected?
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Chapter 21: Controlling, Information, and Technology
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Q1) Which of the following information would be most appropriate for the first-line management of a large corporation?
A) summary reports of operations
B) environmental data and trends
C) decisions on strategic plans
D) detailed reports of problems
E) forecasts
Q2) Operational control decisions relate to determining organizational objectives and designating the corresponding action necessary to reach them.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Data refers to the set of conclusions derived from the analysis of facts and figures that relate to the operation of an organization.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the importance of power to the control process. Describe the difference between positional power and personal power.
Q5) Define the terms technology, information technology, and information systems.
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Chapter 22: Production and Control
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Q1) Which of the following is the best strategy that a company can use to improve organizational productivity?
A) Increase employee salaries and provide additional incentives to the employees.
B) Attempt to increase the bargaining power of the suppliers.
C) Automate the lengthy processes that exist in the value chain.
D) Allocate more budget to the operational activities of the firm.
E) Reduce the number of units produced per day to give more attention to product quality.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of the control tools used in organizations?
A) It helps to pinpoint organizational strengths and weaknesses.
B) It is generally used during the product design stage.
C) Control tools are not used for day-to-day operations.
D) Employee control is not possible with the use of these tools.
E) These tools are used by workers more than managers.
Q3) Explain the concept of a layout strategy and discuss the various types of layouts.
Q4) What are the potential pitfalls of budgets?
Q5) Briefly describe JIT inventory control.
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