Strategic Management Midterm Exam - 1048 Verified Questions

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Strategic Management

Midterm Exam

Course Introduction

Strategic Management explores the processes by which organizations formulate, implement, and evaluate cross-functional decisions to achieve long-term objectives and maintain a competitive advantage. Students will examine core concepts such as vision and mission development, environmental analysis, strategy formulation, and the practicalities of strategic implementation and control. The course integrates case studies and real-world analysis to develop critical thinking and problem-solving skills necessary for effective strategic decision making in dynamic business environments.

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Managing Organizational Behavior What Great Managers Know and Do 2nd Edition by Timothy

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14 Chapters

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Chapter 1: Organizational Behavior and Your Personal

Effectiveness

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Sample Questions

Q1) Easy goals lead to higher effort than challenging goals.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) When interpreting and applying self-assessment measures,remember that:

A)having a certain personality trait is more important than what you do with it.

B)working a job outside your preferences requires a much higher level of conscious energy.

C)most published self-assessment measures provide approximately the same information.

D)consistency in self-assessment results indicates a less-defined characteristic.

E)using multisource feedback creates confusion.

Answer: B

Q3) On average,great management skills get you noticed in organizations and great technical skills get you promoted.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 2: Managing Stress and Time

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Sample Questions

Q1) In general,having an external locus of control is more beneficial than having an internal locus of control with regard to job performance and stress.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) Often referred to as Pareto's Law,the 80/20 rule holds that only 20 percent of the work produces 80 percent of the value.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) Focused automated behavior is one of the antidotes for choking.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q4) All stress is bad.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Solving Problems

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Sample Questions

Q1) The affinity (similarity)diagram is a tool for honing inquiry skills.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) The first step in any good problem-solving process is to assess the various possible solutions.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) Abraham constructed a weighted rank alternatives table to decide where to go to graduate school.His most important criteria were cost,location,and publication opportunities.His four school choices all were ranked highest on the three criteria.Abraham does not know how to choose.He has reached a condition of:

A)equifinality.

B)overconfidence.

C)anchoring and adjustment.

D)devil's advocacy.

E)satisficing.

Answer: A

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Making Ethical Decisions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following steps to making an ethical decision follows the fact-gathering step?

A)Consider your integrity

B)Check your instincts

C)Define the ethical issues

D)Think creatively about actions

E)Identify the affected parties,consequences,and obligations

Q2) Ethical ______________ involves a thoughtful consideration of ethics in each stage of the problem-solving process.

A)attitude

B)competency

C)attribution

D)commitment

E)consciousness

Q3) Utilitarianism is a much more motivational or inspirational approach than universalism,which can seem "cold" or impersonal.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Describe the three important dimensions of ethical behavior.

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Chapter 5: Communication

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Sample Questions

Q1) Evidence can reinforce the long-term effectiveness of persuasion.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following is perhaps the most defining feature of communication?

A)Designing a communication strategy.

B)Diagnosing the specific causes of a communication breakdown.

C)Sharing information with other people.

D)Formal presentations and speeches.

E)How to give a good speech.

Q3) An effective speaker formulates a strategy for the specific audience before he/she makes a presentation.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which of the following are types of active listening strategies?

A)Empathizing,analyzing,synthesizing

B)Logos,pathos,ethos

C)Evaluating,focusing,advising

D)Interacting,interpreting,summarizing

E)Emotion,rational,deciduous

Q5) Briefly describe the "5 Ss" of delivering effective presentations.

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Motivating Others

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Sample Questions

Q1) Behavior extinction occurs when an aversive consequence is added.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Susanne,a secretary,has come in late to work every day for the past month.Ed,her boss,has covered the phones,made his own coffee,and been trapped with unexpected early morning visitors.Susanne gets more late every week.He said nothing until last week's sarcastic comment,"Alarm clock broken again?" Susanne had laughed and patted him on the cheek as she sauntered in.Ed went to HR and learned the "red hot stove" discipline technique.Next time Susanne walks in late,he plans to fire her.Do you approve of Ed's plan?

A)Yes.It is consistent with the rules of the company.

B)No.If he has done nothing so far,this is not expected.

C)No.Firing is not a powerful action.

D)Yes.Extinction works well in this type of situation.

E)Yes.This negative reinforcement should solve the problem.

Q3) Goal-setting research indicates that a goal of "do your best" is no better than having no goal at all.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Describe a few of the common motivational myths.

Page 8

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Chapter 7: Managing Employee Performance

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why do managers use multiple sources of data for performance evaluation?

A)To save time.

B)To satisfy legal requirements.

C)To save money.

D)To cross-train employees.

E)To confirm or disconfirm their observations.

Q2) ____________ commitment represents an emotional attachment to the organization.

A)Contextual

B)Normative

C)Behavioral

D)Affective

E)Continuance

Q3) Should peers evaluate each other as part of a performance management system?

A)No.They do not really know what the other is thinking.

B)No.They may "play" the system,depending on how much they like or dislike co-workers.

C)Yes.They have the best strategic sense of the organization's goals and plans.

D)Yes.It creates a morale boost if a competent but unpopular co-worker faces disciplinary action.

E)No.That is never part of a realistic job function.

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Chapter 8: Using Power and Influence

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Sample Questions

Q1) Research findings show that _____ are the most common target of influence attempts.

A)superiors

B)subordinates

C)peers

D)customers

E)rivals

Q2) Jacob,while hiring a college placement counselor for his son,asked himself,"Is this authority truly an expert?" How did this question provide a defense against the social influence weapon of appeals to authority?

A)It directed Jacob's attention to the symbols of authority.

B)It helped his son challenge Jacob's authority.

C)It defended Jacob's authority in this matter.

D)It drew Jacob's attention to the reality of the authority status.

E)It gave Jacob time to think about alternatives.

Q3) What is the psychological reactance theory?

Q4) As a newly promoted manager,you have been asked to introduce new hires to their co-workers in your group.How will you do this in a professional manner?

Q5) Describe any four of the nine most common influence tactics.

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Chapter 9: Leading Others

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Sample Questions

Q1) How can a leader know if he has successfully communicated high-performance expectations?

A)Subordinates are happy with comfortable goals.

B)The organization recognizes and acknowledges a series of the leader's quick wins.

C)The leader sets high performance expectations for his workers and communicates those expectations clearly and often.

D)As a result of the leader's actions,people around him set high performance expectations.

E)Peers are jealous,and seem ill at ease around him.

Q2) A lack of inspired leadership has probably contributed to:

A)sustained competitive advantage.

B)failed careers.

C)lower employee turnover.

D)moderate production rates.

E)hierarchical disintegration.

Q3) Building a strong LMX relationship is central to managerial effectiveness.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Describe the two primary behaviors that effective leadership involves.

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Chapter 10: Team Effectiveness

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Sample Questions

Q1) High-performing teams usually have between 12 and 15 members.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following is a discipline of high-performing teams?

A)Individual goal attainment

B)Large size

C)Specialized and noncomplementary skill sets

D)Productive team norms

E)Individual production objectives

Q3) Martha is a conscientious,highly capable,and risk-averse primary school teacher.She has been asked to be a part of a team of experienced school teachers.The purpose of this team is to make recommendations for improving teaching methods and syllabi for their school district.What kind of changes might her behavior undergo in the team setting?

Q4) "Sucker aversion" is a direct result of social conformity.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Subdivision is a technique used to stimulate convergent thinking.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 11: Resolving Conflict Through Negotiation and Mediation

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to research conducted,choice of conflict management style is based most often on:

A)the importance of the issue concerned.

B)the importance of relationship.

C)time constraints.

D)the dominant conflict management style of the person.

E)fact certainty.

Q2) Which of the following is a disadvantage of employing the collaborative conflict management style?

A)It does not take relationships into account.

B)It does not save time.

C)There is no commitment to reach a solution under which everyone benefits.

D)Perspectives from different groups cannot be merged.

E)People do not feel committed to the agreed upon solution.

Q3) Managers who ignore or fail to manage conflict are likely to incur the disadvantages of conflict without enjoying any of the advantages.Argue against this statement.

Q4) When is it appropriate to use the compromising style of managing conflict?

Q5) Explain how helping the parties negotiate is part of the mediation process.

Q6) List the characteristics of a win-win negotiation.

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Chapter 12: Recruiting, Selecting, and Retaining Talent

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Sample Questions

Q1) With regard to the relationship between satisfaction and job aspects for different performance levels,_____ are least satisfied compared to other categories of performers with respect to learning new skills.

A)high-performing quitters

B)low-performing quitters

C)high-performing stayers

D)low-performing stayers

E)average performers

Q2) _____ is the degree to which a selection method avoids adverse impact.

A)Fairness

B)Feasibility

C)Face validity

D)Validity

E)Reliability

Q3) High performers tend to quit when equal pay raises are given regardless of each employee's performance.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Good recruiters "sell" their organizations to good candidates.Contradict the statement.

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Chapter 13: Culture and Diversity

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Sample Questions

Q1) A functional form of organization is used when the environment is stable,and the organization is small to medium-sized.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Hammer 'n Nails LLC places high value on control and stability with a focus outside the organization.Explain the organizational culture that exists in the company.

Q3) An adhocracy culture is the opposite of a hierarchical culture.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Sheldon has been offered employment by two equally superior and competitive companies.What procedure of assessment will help Sheldon overcome his dilemma of choosing between the companies?

Q5) Countries that allow inequalities to exist or believe they are natural are high in power distance.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Elucidate any four characteristics of an inclusive culture.

Q7) What steps of action should a manager take to make a diverse team productive?

Page 15

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Chapter 14: Making Change

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Sample Questions

Q1) List the five fatal flaws identified by Robert Schaffer that lead to change relationship failures.

Q2) Fear is the best motivator of change.

A)True

B)False

Q3) To get a more thorough and actionable diagnosis,a good change agent:

A)finds out who benefits from the current situation.

B)writes down everything that is known.

C)focuses on improving rather than changing.

D)avoids uncomfortable discussions.

E)redirects discussion away from current success stories.

Q4) According to John Kotter,the first step in a successful change intervention is raising a feeling of urgency.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What is Kotter's assertion about creating a sense of urgency?

Q6) Kotter's description of empowerment is similar to Lewin's argument about unfreezing.

A)True

B)False

Page 16

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