Strategic Management
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Strategic Management explores the principles and processes involved in formulating, implementing, and evaluating cross-functional decisions that enable organizations to achieve their long-term objectives. The course covers topics such as environmental analysis, competitive advantage, corporate governance, strategy formulation, implementation tactics, and performance measurement. Students learn to assess internal capabilities and external opportunities or threats, apply strategic thinking, and integrate functional areas to drive organizational success in dynamic and competitive environments. Case studies and practical projects develop analytical and decision-making skills essential for leadership and management roles.
Recommended Textbook
Modern Management Concepts and Skills 12th Edition by Samuel C. Certo
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introducing Modern Management: Concepts and Skills
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Q1) ________ refer to all the organizational assets available for activation during the production process.
A) Supplies
B) Plans
C) Technologies
D) Strategies
E) Resources
Answer: E
Q2) Ben is a manager at Transit Logistics, a logistics company involved in transportation and storage. He is in charge of monitoring the schedules of the truck drivers who transport the goods. In this scenario, the capital resource of the organization is the
A) work-schedule
B) transported goods
C) Ben
D) drivers
E) trucks
Answer: E
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Chapter 2: Managing: History and Current Thinking
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Q1) Because of his writings on the elements and general principles of management, Henri Fayol is usually regarded as the pioneer of ________.
A) strategic management applications
B) organizational behavior
C) business finance model
D) operations management theory
E) administrative theory
Answer: E
Q2) Gantt believed in worker compensation that corresponded to production through the piece-rate system, as well as the ________ system when production exceeded the quota.
A) staggered
B) bonus
C) pension
D) interest
E) profit
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Corporate Social Responsibility, Ethics, and Sustainability
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following propositions of the Davis Model of Corporate Social Responsibility states that business cannot be expected to completely finance activities that may be socially advantageous but economically disadvantageous?
A) Proposition 5: Business institutions, as citizens, have the responsibility to become involved in certain social problems that are outside their normal areas of operation.
B) Proposition 1: Social responsibility arises from social power.
C) Proposition 3: The social costs and benefits of an activity, product, or service shall be thoroughly calculated and considered in deciding whether to proceed with it.
D) Proposition 4: The social costs related to each activity, product, or service shall be passed on to the consumer.
E) Proposition 2: Business shall operate as a two-way open system, with open receipt of inputs from society and open disclosure of its operations to the public.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Management and Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) As the only female copywriters in a team of twenty-three, Shania and Taylor are always a part of client meetings and public company occasions. This is an instance of
A) tokenism
B) stereotyping
C) prejudicing
D) ethnocentrism
E) polycentrism
Q2) According to Donaldson and Scannell, in which of the following stages do managers learn how to interact with diverse groups and cultures by deliberately thinking about how to behave?
A) conscious competition
B) controlled incompetence
C) conscious competence
D) unconscious competence
E) unconscious incompetence
Q3) How can diversity be promoted through equal employment and affirmative action?
Q4) Write a short note on ethnocentrism and other negative dynamics that can interfere with workforce productivity.
Q5) Briefly discuss the discrimination against women in organizations.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Managing in the Global Arena
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transnational organizations are also called ________.
A) global corporations
B) multinational corporations
C) international corporations
D) domestic corporations
E) pan-national corporations
Q2) The European Union is an example of an international market agreement.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Zac, an American citizen, has worked for a company in Berlin for the last five years. Which of the following scenarios mirrors the situation Zac is in?
A) Sandra is Polish and works for a U.K.-based company in Venice.
B) Winston is a U.K. national but has been sent to Canada by his company to handle the operations there for the next two years.
C) Vanessa is English and works in London for a company based in Denmark.
D) Ursula is a Finn but has been in Germany for the last four years, working for a company headquartered in Japan.
E) Nikolai works for an Irish company in Oslo and is a Norwegian by birth.
Q4) Why do managers make foreign investments? What are the risks involved in this?
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Chapter 6: Management and Entrepreneurship
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Q1) Opportunity evaluation is the first stage of the entrepreneurial process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the four factors that influence the ability of individuals to identify opportunities.
Q3) ________ are firms that raise money from investors and then use this money to make investments in new firms.
A) Angel investors
B) Venture capitalists
C) Banking institutions
D) Entrepreneurs
E) Insurance companies
Q4) ________ is the likelihood and magnitude of the opportunity's downside loss.
A) Illusion of control
B) Entrepreneurial risk
C) Entrepreneurial alertness
D) Exploitation
E) Entrepreneurial opportunity
Q5) What is corporate entrepreneurship?
Q6) Who is an entrepreneur?
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Chapter 7: Principles of Planning
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Q1) According to Drucker, management should set objectives that indicate the company's responsibilities to its customers and society but should not specify the extent to which the company intends to live up to these responsibilities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following refers to targets to be achieved within a timeframe of five to seven years?
A) short-term objectives
B) intermediate-term plans
C) long-term objectives
D) operational goals
E) medium-term objectives
Q3) What are the factors that are essential to the success of a management by objectives (MBO) program?
Q4) A potential disadvantage of planning is that it can take up too much managerial time.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How should organization planners be evaluated?
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Chapter 8: Making Decisions
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Q1) The ________ decision-making orientation emphasizes the realization of the organization's potential as well as that of the decision maker. Such decision makers try to use all of their talents when making decisions.
A) ideal
B) exploitative
C) receptive
D) actualized
E) tangible
Q2) Discuss the advantages of group decision-making.
Q3) Decision-makers who believe the source of all good is outside of themselves, and therefore rely heavily on suggestions from others, are classified as having an exploitative orientation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the decision-making process, it is important to accurately identify an existing problem prior to listing the possible alternatives for solving the problem.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the orientations of weak decision makers?
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Chapter 9: Strategic Planning: Strategies, Tactics, and Competitive Dynamics
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Q1) Which of the following is the ability to use information to determine whether a problem has arisen that is blocking implementation?
A) allocating skill
B) interacting skill
C) monitoring skill
D) organizing skill
E) tactical skill
Q2) ________ refers to the process by which firms undertake strategic and tactical actions and how competitors respond to these actions.
A) Strategic control
B) Environmental analysis
C) Competitive dynamics
D) Strategy implementation
E) SWOT analysis
Q3) According to the GE Multifactor Portfolio Matrix, businesses falling in cells that form a diagonal from lower left to upper right are the strongest and the ones the company should invest in and help to grow.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Plans and Planning Tools
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Q1) In which of the following sales forecasting methods do managers within the organization assemble to discuss their opinions on what will happen to sales in the future?
A) trend analysis
B) nominal group technique
C) the Delphi method
D) jury of executive opinion method
E) the product stages method
Q2) The first step in designing a PERT network is to identify the critical path.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following will lead to the failure of a plan?
A) Corporate planning is integrated into the total management system.
B) In starting formal planning, too much is attempted at once.
C) There is clarity of understanding of the different steps of the planning process.
D) Responsibility of the planning process is shared by all departments.
E) Management knows that the plans developed will require huge efforts in order to be successful.
Q4) Define the program evaluation and review technique (PERT).
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Chapter 11: Fundamentals of Organizing
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Q1) Which of the following is one of the three main components of the management system that Weber termed a bureaucracy?
A) minimum regulations and paperwork
B) impersonal relations among organization members
C) emphasis on the human variable
D) a flat organizational structure
E) a loosely defined organizational hierarchy
Q2) The matrix structure is contradictory to the principle of unity of command.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pixel Technologies, a manufacturer of electronic products and cell phones, has departmentalized the organization on the basis of ________ by dividing the business into two divisions-Electronics Retailers and Cell Phone Retailers.
A) geography
B) products
C) functional
D) customers
E) matrix
Q4) What are the forces influencing formal structure?
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Chapter 12: Responsibility, Authority, and Delegation
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Q1) The accountability concept implies that reward or punishment is dependent upon performance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Responsible managers take complete charge of their work groups.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Jack is the business head at Micron Computers. The firm has set its revenue target for the year at $5 million. Jack will have to ensure that this financial target is met by overseeing the performance of the firm's various departments and providing necessary direction and guidance. In this scenario, Jack has ________.
A) general responsibility
B) specific responsibility
C) operational responsibility
D) latent responsibility
E) tactical responsibility
Q4) Authority is the right to perform or command.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Human Resource Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a lecture, trainees participate primarily through listening and note taking.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ________ is the process of developing qualities in human resources that will enable them to be more productive and thus contribute more to organizational goal attainment.
A) Recruitment
B) Training
C) Selection
D) Performance appraisal
E) Induction
Q3) Equal opportunity legislation protects the right of a citizen to work and obtain a fair wage based primarily on ________.
A) race
B) ethnicity
C) gender
D) disability
E) performance
Q4) What are the various sources of human resources available to recruiters outside an organization?
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Chapter 14: Organizational Change: Stress, Conflict, and Virtuality
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Q1) Organizational effectiveness depends primarily on activities centering around three classes of factors. The factors are ________.
A) data orientation, people, and technology
B) people, structure, and visibility
C) people, technology, and structure
D) structure, procedures, and people
E) structure, technology, and money
Q2) Briefly discuss the factors to consider when changing an organization.
Q3) Changing an organization is the process of modifying an existing organization to increase organizational effectiveness. Which of the following statements is true about such modifications?
A) Such changes must use established lines of organizational communication.
B) The changes occur intermittently and are of a large magnitude.
C) Such modifications can involve any organizational segment.
D) The changes are made independent of the environment.
E) The modifications do not involve changes in organizational authority.
Q4) Explain the concept of grid organizational development (grid OD).
Q5) Briefly describe the four strategies used to manage conflicts.
Page 16
Q6) How do most people react to change? Why? What can managers do about this reaction?
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Page 17
Chapter 15: Influencing and Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is considered a fundamental managerial skill?
A) technical skills
B) communication abilities
C) charismatic leadership
D) ability to maintain status quo
E) ability to regulate procedures
Q2) WePharma, Inc., a biopharmaceutical company, develops targeted therapies for the treatment of cancer and inflammatory diseases. Mara Alarcon, the CEO of the company, insists that employees communicate only through formal channels. Despite these restrictions, she observes many informal networks within the organization. Which of the following is the most likely reason for establishment of these informal networks?
A) WePharma takes employee suggestions very seriously.
B) WePharma lacks the necessary rules and regulations to control employees.
C) WePharma has a vertical organizational structure.
D) WePharma does not freely share information with its employees.
E) WePharma promotes an open-door policy.
Q3) What are the major characteristics of organizational grapevine?
Q4) Formal organizational communication is more important that informal organizational communication. Why?
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Chapter 16: Leadership
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Q1) An inexperienced man has just been hired as a salesperson in a men's clothing store. According to the life cycle theory, a low-task/high-relationship style of leadership should be maintained to effectively manage this person.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As the manager of a department store, Joan focuses primarily on the work that each employee at the store is doing and provides rewards purely based on performance. This behavior is called ________.
A) subordinate-centered behavior
B) consideration behavior
C) structured behavior
D) job-centered behavior
E) employee-centered behavior
Q3) Compare and contrast the Hersey-Blanchard Model of leadership with Fiedler's model.
Q4) According to Fiedler's contingency theory of leadership, what are the primary factors that should be considered when moving leaders into situations appropriate for their leadership styles? Briefly describe the factors.
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Chapter 17: Motivation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals with a high need for affiliation generally make very effective managers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Briefly describe the basic needs of human beings, in accordance with Maslow's hierarchy of needs.
Q3) Behavior modification is a program that focuses on managing human activity by controlling the consequences of performing that activity, such as rewards and punishments.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When an individual leaves an organization to start up a company because the former did not provide room for the growth or development of his potential, Maslow's theory would predict that the individual is being motivated by ________.
A) self-actualization needs
B) esteem needs
C) social needs
D) security needs
E) physiological needs
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Chapter 18: Groups and Teams
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jane, a project manager at Global Business Solutions, has decided to have a team meeting on a daily basis for a week to help the team members from different departments get accustomed to each other and assist them in learning about the opportunities and challenges coming their way through a new project. Jane's team is in the ________ stage of development.
A) forming
B) storming
C) norming
D) adjourning
E) performing
Q2) List the stages of formal group development.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a command group?
A) a group of employees focused on providing excellent customer service
B) a group meeting to consider the feasibility of a new product
C) a department head with managers reporting to him
D) students coming together to form a study group for a specific class
E) a group of employees forming an exercise group
Q4) List the benefits of informal group membership.
Q5) Define the six task-related steps that help managers build effective work teams.
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Q6) Briefly describe the two kinds of formal groups.
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Chapter 19: Managing Organization Culture
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Q1) Organizational ________ is the process by which management can appropriately integrate new employees within an organization's culture.
A) restructuring
B) identification
C) resilience
D) socialization
E) configuration
Q2) The ________ dimension of organization culture is a facet of organization culture that focuses on catering to the needs of those individuals who buy goods and services produced.
A) customer
B) innovation
C) technological
D) spirituality
E) ethics
Q3) All organization members should always be thinking about their individual performance.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Write a short note on the importance of organization culture.
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Encouraging Creativity and Innovation
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Q1) What are the benefits that an organization can enjoy by successfully offering high-quality products and services to the marketplace?
Q2) Which of the following is characteristic of a person who is more likely to think creatively under low time pressure?
A) He or she experiences a highly fragmented workday, with many different activities.
B) He or she does not get the sense that the work he or she is doing is important.
C) He or she feels more pressed for time than when "on a mission" even though the work was for the same number of hours.
D) He or she tends to collaborate with one person rather than with a group.
E) He or she experiences lots of last-minute changes in plans and schedules.
Q3) Identifying job candidates who are creative and hiring them is one of the more easily implemented steps for increasing organizational creativity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the "innovation process"? Briefly describe the different steps involved in the innovation process.
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Chapter 21: Controlling, Information, and Technology
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Q1) Describe the six steps necessary to operate an IS properly.
Q2) Define the terms technology, information technology, and information systems.
Q3) Which of the following is the best example of raw data?
A) the return on investment on an advertising campaign
B) a projection of future product demand
C) the organizational budget for the next quarter
D) a forecast of market trends
E) the attendance register in a factory
Q4) Information ________ refers to the degree to which the information represents reality.
A) appropriateness
B) quality
C) timeliness
D) quantity
E) scope
Q5) Describe the information that is appropriate for making strategic planning decisions and for making operational control decisions.
Q6) Outline the steps involved in the controlling process.
Q7) What are the steps in evaluating information?
Q8) What are the challenges faced by executives in managing the IS workforce?
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Chapter 22: Production and Control
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Q1) Activities such as setting production levels and scheduling production are examples of continual operations management activities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following terms specifically refers to the ratio of outputs to inputs?
A) effectiveness
B) quality
C) productivity
D) revenue
E) competency
Q3) Pure-breakdown policy involves regular activities such as machine adjustments, lubrication, cleaning, parts replacement, and painting.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the potential pitfalls of budgets?
Q5) Explain the concept of a layout strategy and discuss the various types of layouts.
Q6) Briefly explain the concept of strategies, systems, and processes.
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