Sterile Processing and Infection Control Study Guide
Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of sterile processing and infection control within healthcare settings. Students will learn the fundamental principles and practices essential for preventing the spread of pathogens, with a focus on the decontamination, sterilization, and proper handling of surgical instruments and medical equipment. Topics include microbiology basics, sterilization methods, disinfection protocols, quality assurance, and regulatory standards set by agencies such as OSHA and CDC. Through lectures and hands-on practice, participants will gain the skills necessary to ensure a safe healthcare environment by maintaining aseptic conditions and reducing the risk of healthcare-associated infections.
Recommended Textbook
Berry and Kohns Operating Room Technique 13th Edition by Nancymarie Phillips
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45 Chapters
1229 Verified Questions
1229 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Perioperative Education
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Communication is an essential part of working as a team.What is another key element of communication?
A)Attitude
B)Body language
C)Education
D)Constant talking
Answer: B
Q2) The team approach involves
A)a coordinated effort by all caregivers.
B)working to obtain specific personal goals.
C)incompetence.
D)direct caregivers with access to patient data.
Answer: A
Q3) Preceptor
A)Works with orientees and learners according to a prescribed task-oriented lesson plan
B)Has more experience with personnel and the OR's climate; provides insight into the department's social atmosphere
C)Staff member who is emulated and respected for his or her clinical competence
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Foundations of Perioperative Patient Care Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Accountability means being responsible for only one's self.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which event is included on Medicare's "No Pay List" and will not be reimbursed?
A)Myocardial infarction
B)Wrong site surgery
C)Documented Alzheimer's
D)Incision and drainage of a chronic hip abscess
Answer: B
Q3) When does the intraoperative phase begin?
A)Placement of the patient on the OR bed
B)When the patient enters the OR
C)When waiting in the holding area
D)When taken to the recovery area or PACU
Answer: A
Q4) A patient advocate is the person who accompanies the patient to the facility.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Legal, regulatory, and Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a coping method that may help OR team members when a patient dies?
A)Identify with the loss
B)Identify those responsible for the patient death
C)Reduce the dependence on teamwork to maintain patient safety in a crisis
D)Take ownership for the patient death and review actions with risk management team
Answer: A
Q2) When writing an incident report,it is acceptable to include interpretations and opinions.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q3) Assault is an unlawful physical threat to harm another person.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q4) The person who initiates a lawsuit is a defendant.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
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Chapter 4: The Perioperative Patient Care Team and Professional
Credentialing
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a member of the sterile perioperative team?
A)Scrub person
B)Anesthesia provider
C)Circulating nurse
D)Radiograph technician
Q2) Directing the activities of all learners is the role of the A)surgeon.
B)first assistant.
C)anesthesiologist.
D)circulating nurse.
Q3) Which is a member of the nonsterile perioperative team?
A)Surgeon
B)Circulating nurse
C)Scrub person
D)First assistant
Q4) The circulating nurse's role as the patient's ____________________ and ____________________ is critical and extends throughout the entire perioperative environment.
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Chapter 5: The Surgical First Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) The control of _______________ and ______________ loss is referred to as hemostasis.
Q2) Why is intraoperative suturing performed?
A)To remove a tissue mass
B)To dissolve a tumor or benign mass
C)Evidence that the procedure was performed as scheduled
D)To stabilize an organ
Q3) The surgical first assistant's knowledge and skill level involves an understanding of
A)surgical anatomy and physiology.
B)biochemical engineering.
C)psychomotor kinesiology.
D)advanced airway placement.
Q4) It is important to __________ and think in advance about each step to help the procedure run smoothly.
A)guess every move
B)anticipate
C)retract every time
D)react
Q5) Hemostasis is provided by ________,___________,or thermal means.
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Chapter 6: Administration of Perioperative Patient Care Services
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Sample Questions
Q1) All perioperative team members must be certified in CPR.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Practices that continue despite lack of scientific evidence are referred to as A)protocols.
B)bad excuses.
C)sacred cows.
D)national standards.
Q3) Basic policies are updates and statements of task-oriented and skill-oriented actions to be taken in the implementation of policies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is one aspect of downward violence in the workplace?
A)Physical abuse towards one's peers
B)Verbal abuse directed towards a lower-ranked employee
C)Verbal abuse towards one's administrative staff
D)Emotional abuse aimed at patient's families
Q5) An advanced practice nurse uses specialized ________________ and _____________ to make decisions relative to direct and indirect patient care in the perioperative environment.
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Chapter 7: The Patient: the Reason for Your Existence
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Sample Questions
Q1) A surgical patient with AIDS may present with which of the following?
A)Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP)
B)Hormonal receptor infection
C)Negative nitrogen imbalance
D)Anticholinergic impairment
Q2) When allowing family members to view a deceased patient before the body is transported to the morgue,the perioperative nurse should
A)remain with the body and lend support.
B)use clichés when speaking with the family.
C)allow other patients to view the body as a reminder that life is short.
D)place blame on the surgeon who allowed this to happen.
Q3) In order for a victim of sexual trauma to regain a sense of control and security,the caregiver must
A)not wear gloves and use quick, brisk moves.
B)create loud noises and speak in loud tones in order to distract the patient.
C)approach the victim with patience and understanding.
D)constantly touch the patient to assure her or him that the hospital is a safe environment.
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Chapter 8: Perioperative Pediatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the palliative procedure performed on an infant with transposition of the great vessels.
A)Mustard procedure
B)Jantene procedure
C)Rashkind procedure
D)Senning procedure
Q2) What type of shunt is placed when attempting to drain fluid from the ventricles to the right atrium of the heart?
A)Ventriculoperitoneal shunt
B)Ventriculoamniotic shunt
C)Ventriculoatrial shunt
D)Ventriculocoronary shunt
Q3) Which is one of the seven physical anomalies referred to in the VACTERL association or syndrome?
A)Lateral gastric fistula
B)Aortic deficiency
C)Cardiac anomaly
D)Retinal detachment
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Chapter 9: Perioperative Geriatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult patient should be allowed to wear a hearing-assist device into the operating room.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The perioperative nurse should asses the activity level of the patient.What should be considered?
A)Improved memory
B)Improved hearing ability
C)Age
D)Activities of daily living (ADLs)
Q3) Self-care deficit is a common nursing diagnosis when assessing the preoperative geriatric surgical patient.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A comorbidity is the existence of two or more diseases in one individual.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Geriatric patients are at risk when positioning or moving them.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Physical Facilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is acceptable to prop OR doors open during or in between surgical procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During construction of the OR,negative pressure must be maintained in halls,with exhaust filtered to the outside of the building.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What type of filter is used in the OR setting that eliminates almost all dust particles?
A)HEPA
B)NIOSH
C)EPA
D)ACH
Q4) Which is an equipment item commonly found in each OR?
A)PYXIS medication machine
B)Mayo stand
C)Crash cart
D)Scrub sink
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12
Chapter 11: Ambulatory Surgery Centers and Alternative
Surgical Locations
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24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ambulatory surgery is done only under regional or local anesthesia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ambulatory setting adheres to the same sterile/aseptic techniques as do hospital settings.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When would a patient receive a follow-up phone call from a nurse at an ASC?
A)4 hours after the procedure
B)Within 48 hours of the procedure
C)The following week
D)At the patient's postoperative visit with the surgeon
Q4) Medicare does not approve the use of ambulatory surgery centers and refers all its patients to inpatient hospital ORs for procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ASCs may take emergency patients and usually employ more than 50 employees.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Care of the Perioperative Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name a type of transmissible disease that results in prions being found in neurologic tissue that can exist on surfaces in the OR.
A)Whooping cough
B)Tuberculosis
C)Influenza
D)Creutzfeldt-Jakob
Q2) If sterile supplies for a case were opened at 1:00 PM with the room under surveillance,and the case did not begin until 3:30 PM,the sterile items would be contaminated because of the 2-hour delay of the case.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Patients with known respiratory-borne diseases are treated the same as all other patients.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Every patient is considered a potential contaminant.
A)True
B)False
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Potential Sources of Injury to the Caregiver and the Patient
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group of people is more prone to a latex allergy?
A)Children with spina bifida
B)Food service workers
C)People with allergy to shellfish
D)People allergic to poison ivy or dust
Q2) What item may not be used within the MRI environment?
A)Titanium hemostats
B)Plastic drape clips
C)Metal implants
D)Plastic coated scissors
Q3) Which agency sets standards for the disposal of infectious and hazardous waste in the OR setting?
A)Association of periOperative Registered Nurses (AORN)
B)The Joint Commission (TJC)
C)U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
D)Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
Q4) OSHA is authorized to enforce its standards and inspect health care facilities for compliance with standards.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Surgical Microbiology and Antimicrobial Therapy
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are two examples of diseases caused by exotoxins?
A)Tuberculosis, acute respiratory infection
B)Influenza, anthrax
C)Diphtheria, leprosy
D)Otitis media, E.coli
Q2) Which is a recommendation for caring for a surgical patient with TB?
A)Use reusable anesthesia equipment as often as possible.
B)Operate on these patients as soon as possible to decrease the spread of the secretions.
C)Use respiratory isolation precautions for those patients with a positive TB sputum culture.
D)Keep these patients in an isolation room with positive pressure ventilation.
Q3) What treatment is recommended by the CDC as a onetime treatment for newborn babies?
A)Chicken pox vaccine
B)Instillation of 0.5% erythromycin into the eyes.
C)B-12 shot
D)Circumcision
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Chapter 15: Principles of Aseptic and Sterile Techniques
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is one important action health care workers can take to decrease the spread of infection with patients in isolation?
A)Refuse to perform survival procedures on isolation patients until the precaution has been lifted.
B)Perform procedures on immunosuppressed patients on weekends and during late shifts.
C)Explain to patients in isolation that they have contaminated body fluids that cannot be tolerated by the health care workers caring for them.
D)Perform handwashing before and after close patient contact and in between patients.
Q2) If the scrub person must re-glove during a procedure,it is acceptable to pull the cuff down over the hand while putting on new gloves.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When scrubbed in,it is never acceptable to fold one's hands under one's arms and tuck them in the axillary region.
A)True
B)False
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17
Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of surgical hand and arm cleansing?
A)To sterilize the skin before gloving
B)To remove every microorganism present on the skin
C)To warm hands and arms before entering a cold OR environment
D)To decrease the number of resident microorganisms on the skin to a minimum
Q2) Which is an item that must be worn by any person entering the sterile field?
A)Sterile gown
B)Eyeglasses
C)Exam gloves
D)Head cover
Q3) Which antimicrobial agent is ototoxic and may cause permanent damage if used in the presence of the cornea?
A)Chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG)
B)Iodophors
C)Triclosan
D)Ethyl alcohol
Q4) It is acceptable to take home one's scrubs to launder them after working in the OR.
A)True
B)False
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Decontamination and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an advantage of using disposable products in the OR?
A)Disposable products are used once with an assurance of safety and effectiveness.
B)Disposable products decrease the amount of biodegradable waste produced by the OR.
C)Cross-contamination is inevitable.
D)A defect in one may mean the entire lot is defective.
Q2) Pasteurization is a commonly used method to sterilize critical and surgical instrumentation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Boiling water is an effective physical disinfectant used to kill spores.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Disinfection is the same as sterilization.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Sterilization
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of a Bowie-Dick test?
A)To determine the temperature of the sterilizer
B)To check for any residual microorganisms left in the sterilizer
C)To check for air entrapment in the prevacuum sterilizer
D)To determine whether the prevacuum sterilizer is cooling at the correct temperature
Q2) What is the purpose of a load control number?
A)To determine which OR is being used for particular procedures
B)To determine the time the item or instrument tray is being used
C)To facilitate identification and retrieval of supplies if a sterilization failure occurs
D)To track which patient is being operated on within a facility
Q3) External indicator tape should be placed within an item's package to determine sterility.
A)True B)False
Q4) Sterilization renders an item free of most microorganisms except for some spores. A)True B)False
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Chapter 19: Surgical Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a type of dissector that might be used in an orthopedic surgical procedure?
A)Bone cutter
B)Snare
C)Curette
D)Adson forceps
Q2) Which is a responsibility of the circulating nurse before the start of a procedure?
A)Drape the Mayo stand and back table
B)Inspect sterile instruments for imperfections and condition
C)Count instruments
D)Assemble the scalpel blade in the proper handle
Q3) At the end of the surgical procedure,in what solution should the instruments be soaked?
A)Hydrogen peroxide
B)Sterile distilled water
C)Saline solution
D)Tap water
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Chapter 20: Specialized Surgical Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which microscope lens provides the greatest magnification?
A)100 mm
B)200 mm
C)250 mm
D)400 mm
Q2) Electrosurgery should not be used in the mouth,around the head,or in the pleural cavity when high concentrations of _______ are present.
A)air
B)water
C)oxygen
D)blood
Q3) What is the safest location for the placement of a dispersive electrode pad for a patient who has a total knee replacement on the left knee?
A)Left calf
B)Left thigh
C)Right thigh
D)Right knee
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Chapter 21: Preoperative Preparation of the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which topic would be reviewed in a preoperative phone call to a patient?
A)What type of vacation or illness coverage the patient will use when missing work
B)What type of financial coverage the patient will use to pay for the procedure
C)The patient's personal feeling towards the surgeon
D)NPO instructions that the patient must adhere to before surgery
Q2) Why should an anesthesia provider see a patient for a preoperative assessment?
A)To select an appropriate anesthetic for the procedure
B)To allow the provider to charge for an official consultation before the case
C)To decide whether the provider wants to work on the patient during the procedure
D)To determine whether the provider likes the patient before working with him or her
Q3) A patient may be instructed not to eat any solid food or drink liquids after midnight.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The family of the surgical patient should be included in preoperative teaching.
A)True
B)False
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Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a potential complication of a long-term catheter?
A)Spread of cancer cells
B)Loss of bladder control
C)Thrombosis
D)Loss of vascular elasticity
Q2) Endoscopy is only used to visualize body cavities and structures so that a diagnosis can be obtained.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sensory evoked potential (SEP)is useful in diagnosing which type of abnormality?
A)Hepatic tumor
B)Kidney stones
C)Acoustic neuroma
D)Air embolus
Q4) What group of people should receive a mammogram?
A)Women more than 50 years old
B)Women between the ages of 20 and 35
C)Men with a familial history of maternal breast cancer
D)Mammograms are not recommended for any age group
24
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Chapter 23: Surgical Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is acceptable to recap and save saline left in a bottle for the next case.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are the seven rights of medication administration?
A)Right dose, Right timing and Right route
B)Right patient and Right drug
C)Right documentation and Right Reason
D)All of the above
Q3) Which drug name describes the molecular components of the compound?
A)Official name
B)Chemical name
C)Brand name
D)Trade name
Q4) Herbal supplements are not regulated by the FDA and may cause serious problems if medical and anesthesia providers do not know a patient is taking these products.
A)True
B)False
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25
Chapter 24: Anesthesia: Techniques and Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of inhalation system allows for some exhaled gas to pass into surrounding air but some returns to the inspiratory part of the circuit for rebreathing?
A)Closed system
B)Semi-open system
C)Open system
D)Semi-closed system
Q2) Which local anesthetic is potent and probably the most commonly used?
A)Lidocaine
B)Cocaine
C)Marcaine
D)Percaine
Q3) Any patient who has a full stomach is a hazard to a safe induction of anesthesia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Benzodiazepines are a form of sedative.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Coordinated Roles of the Scrub Person and the Circulating Nurse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Instrument counts are recommended for all surgical procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The paper band on a pack of x-ray detectable laparotomy tapes or sponges should not be broken after they are counted.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which area is counted first during the first closing count?
A)Field
B)Garbage
C)Table
D)Floor
Q4) Counted sharps must not be taken from the OR during the surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When opening blades onto a sterile field,where is the best place to lay them?
A)On a sterile metal basin
B)Near other sutures to keep all sharps together
C)On top of gloves or a gown so that the scrub person will notice them
D)On the working end of the sterile field
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Chapter 26: Positioning,prepping,and Draping the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) When moving an x-ray tube over a sterile field,the field must be covered with a sterile sheet,which is discarded by the circulator after use because it has become contaminated.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The circulator should be nearby when the scrub person is draping in order to direct the procedure and watch for breaks in sterile technique.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the supine position,the patient's occiput and cervical area are at risk for nerve and pressure injuries during a procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is a reason to catheterize a patient during a surgical procedure?
A)To decrease postoperative pain
B)To permit accurate output measurement
C)To prevent urine leakage on the OR table
D)To expedite a patient's recovery period
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28
Chapter 27: Physiologic Maintenance and Monitoring of the
Perioperative Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about CVP is true?
A)A manometer is used and positioned level to the patient's right atrium.
B)Normal readings are 8 to 12 mm Hg.
C)CVP readings can be taken using a radial artery catheter.
D)Taking a breath can create positive pressure and alter the CVP.
Q2) Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
A)15 to 25 mm Hg
B)6 to 12 mm Hg
C)15 to 25 mm Hg systolic, 8 to 15 diastolic
D)3 to 6 mm Hg
Q3) Which device provides a two-dimensional color image of the beating heart?
A)Stethoscope
B)ECG
C)Echocardiogram
D)Sphygmomanometer
Q4) Which is an example of an invasive monitoring device?
A)Intracardiac catheter
B)Blood pressure cuff
C)Pulse oximeter probe
D)Axillary thermometer
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Chapter 28: Surgical Incisions implants and Wound Closure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the correct technique to cut suture inside the body?
A)Cut the suture as close as possible to the knot.
B)Leave a long tail on the suture.
C)Cut the suture holding the scissors horizontal.
D)Cut the suture using a knife blade.
Q2) What type of device is used to span an incision?
A)Bumper
B)Bolster
C)Bridge
D)Buttons or beads
Q3) What type of bone can be taken from a patient's own tibia?
A)Allogenous cortical bone
B)Autologous cancellous bone
C)Autologous cortical
D)Allogenous cancellous
Q4) What type of stitch is more likely to be used on stomach,colon,or bladder?
A)Absorbable
B)Nonabsorbable
C)Disposable
D)Reabsorbable
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Chapter 29: Wound Healing and Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most important condition to promote wound healing?
A)Stop smoking
B)Young age
C)Nutritional status
D)Oxygenation of tissue
Q2) Radiopaque sponges are not to be used as part of the dressing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What influences the ease in which a skin incision is made?
A)Type of knife handle
B)The type of surgery
C)Toughness of skin or scar tissue
D)Excess tension on the skin or wound
Q4) Which is an example of a chronic wound?
A)A wound with no local infection
B)Separation of wound edges
C)Minimal postoperative swelling
D)Ulcer or pressure sore
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Chapter 30: Postoperative Patient Care
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Q1) Which is an item that the circulating nurse's handoff report needs to contain?
A)Family location
B)Insurance information
C)Total surgical time
D)Type of dressing and drains
Q2) Which professional organization established the standards of practice for the postoperative care of patients?
A)ASPAN
B)AORN
C)ABPANC
D)CAPA
Q3) Invasive procedures are not performed in the PACU setting.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is one purpose of the postoperative follow-up phone call?
A)To assess patient outcomes upon discharge
B)To avoid a pending lawsuit by the patient or family members
C)To improve patient satisfaction scores on future surveys
D)To satisfy insurance company demands for follow-up
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Chapter 31: Potential Perioperative Complications
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Q1) A neurogenic shock involves the loss of tone in the peripheral blood vessels.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is a way to cool a patient's body during a malignant hyperthermia (MH)crisis?
A)Pour frozen distilled water into surgical wound.
B)Decrease temperature of OR suite.
C)Administer iced normal saline intravenously.
D)Lavage the bladder with cooled fluids.
Q3) What is the cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
A)Volume overload
B)Blood volume depletion
C)Hypercapnia
D)Derangement of clotting factors
Q4) While a patient is under general anesthesia,it is a good practice to keep the patient's eyes open to prevent a corneal tear or abrasion.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Endoscopy and Robotic-Assisted Surgery
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Q1) Fiberoptic lighting is nonglaring and cool inside the patient.This makes it safe to lay the light source on the drapes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One disadvantage of robotic-assisted surgery is the expensive equipment and startup cost needed to perform the procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fluid can be used as an expansion media for creating working space while using a scope.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which endoscopy procedure is usually not performed sterile?
A)Colonoscopy
B)Cystoscopy
C)Hysteroscopy
D)Laparoscopy
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Chapter 33: General Surgery
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Q1) For what reason may a subcutaneous mastectomy be performed?
A)Shorter, less painful procedure
B)Removal of the overlying skin and nipple
C)Removal of a noninvasive tumor present under the breast
D)For patients with chronic mastitis
Q2) Any person who wants to lose weight quickly is considered a candidate for bariatric surgery.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What term is used when the surgeon manually palpates the entire length of the bowel starting at the duodenum and ending at the sigmoid flexure?
A)Stabilization
B)Gastrojejunostomy
C)Running the bowel
D)Exploration
Q4) Which is a function of the liver?
A)Forms blood elements
B)Secretes insulin
C)Synthesizes cholesterol
D)Stores white blood cells
35
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Chapter 34: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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Q1) Hysterectomy can be performed totally through the vagina,abdomen,or by laparoscopic assisted methods.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A cyst located on an ovary is usually removed to prevent further damage or transformation into a symptomatic condition.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The perineum forms the base of the pelvic floor and helps support the posterior vaginal wall.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What diagnostic test involves staining cervical squamous epithelium with iodine-based Lugol's solution?
A)Pap smear
B)Endocervical test
C)Schiller's test
D)LEEP
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Chapter 35: Urologic Surgery
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Q1) Which of the following is a purpose of the kidney?
A)Produces vitamin K
B)Produces the hormone aldosterone
C)Removes metabolic wastes from the blood
D)Produces white blood cells
Q2) Which is a procedure that can treat male impotence?
A)Penectomy
B)Dorsal vein ligation
C)Circumcision
D)Adrenalectomy
Q3) What type of angle of vision is 0 degrees and is helpful in viewing the urethra?
A)Right angle
B)Direct forward
C)Lateral
D)Foroblique
Q4) Which is one of the components of the resectoscope?
A)Inner cannula
B)Outer cannula
C)Holder
D)Sheath
Page 37
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Chapter 36: Orthopedic Surgery
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Q1) Swelling between layers of fascia; causes damage or death to tissue
A)Osteomyelitis
B)Nonunion
C)Arthrotomy
D)Open fracture
E)Osteogenesis
F)Cast
G)Cortex
H)Arthrodesis
I)Dislocation
J)Compartment syndrome
Q2) What assessment for neurovascular impairment should take place after orthopedic surgery?
A)Pulse
B)Pain
C)Bleeding
D)Six Ps
Q3) The epiphysis is the end of a long bone and area of growth in children.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Neurosurgery of the Brain and Peripheral Nerves
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Q1) What type of headrest is used to stabilize the patient's head during cranial procedures?
A)May stand
B)Mayfield
C)Horseshoe
D)Wilson
Q2) Which is a potential risk of placing a patient in a semi-Fowler's position?
A)Hearing loss
B)Air embolism
C)Urinary retention
D)Hypercapnia
Q3) Which is a reason for performing a thalamotomy?
A)To increase vision
B)To control hyperthermia
C)To relieve seizure activity
D)To repair a neural defect
Q4) Mannitol is given to increase intracranial pressure (ICP)in patients with intracranial hemorrhage.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Spinal Surgery
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Q1) For a patient undergoing a lumbar laminectomy,anesthesia induction would be performed in which position?
A)Supine
B)Lateral
C)Prone on a Wilson frame
D)Prone on a Jackson table
Q2) The spinal cord is composed of white matter on the outside and gray matter on the inside.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What type of lumbar spine procedure dissects the planes behind the peritoneal cavity?
A)Anterior retroperitoneal lumbar approach
B)Posterior lumbar approach
C)Anterior transperitoneal lumbar approach
D)Posterior cervical approach
Q4) A hemangioblastoma is a vascular tumor more commonly found in the cervical or thoracic area.
A)True
B)False
Page 40
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Chapter 39: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Q1) What cleansing product do ophthalmologists recommend to patients with inflamed eyelids?
A)Dish soap
B)Alcohol
C)Antibiotic ointment
D)Diluted baby shampoo
Q2) Which term best describes a full-thickness corneal transplant?
A)LASIK
B)Lamellar graft
C)Epikeratophakia
D)Penetrating keratoplasty
Q3) The two segments of the eyeball include superior and inferior segments.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The arterial blood supply to the eye comes from a branch of the internal carotid artery.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Q1) Which cream helps make dressing removal less painful for the burn patient when applied directly to the area burned?
A)Sulfonamide acetate
B)Silver centrate
C)Silver sulfadiazine
D)Sulfa methotrexate
Q2) What kind of solution is used during liposuction?
A)Normal saline
B)Tumescence
C)Glycine
D)Crystalloid solution
Q3) Which is a benefit of using a split-thickness mesh graft of skin?
A)Can be cut to fit exactly to the recipient site
B)Prevents serum from escaping the openings in the recipient site
C)Can be placed over the recipient site with slight tension
D)Heals by first intention
Q4) The goal of a plastic surgeon is to attempt to restore aesthetic appearance and function.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 41: Otorhinolaryngologic and Head and Neck Surgery
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Q1) Which is a potential complication of a thyroidectomy?
A)Decreased visual acuity
B)Increased calcium levels
C)Decreased muscle rigidity
D)Glottis edema
Q2) What procedure is performed to correct obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)?
A)Tracheotomy
B)Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty
C)Laryngectomy
D)Adenoidectomy
Q3) Communication is a major problem for patients with hearing loss.What is an effective means of showing concern?
A)Sign language
B)Smile
C)Touch
D)Ignore them
Q4) A ball or cyst known as cholesteatoma can cause permanent hearing loss,balance disturbances,and infection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 42: Thoracic Surgery
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Q1) Vessel and nerve impingement at first rib
A)Hemothorax
B)Pectus carinatum
C)Mediastinal shift
D)Thoracic outlet syndrome
E)Hiatal hernia
F)Pectus excavatum
G)Empyema
H)Pneumothorax
Q2) Compression of lung due to intrapleural pressure changes
A)Hemothorax
B)Pectus carinatum
C)Mediastinal shift
D)Thoracic outlet syndrome
E)Hiatal hernia
F)Pectus excavatum
G)Empyema
H)Pneumothorax
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Chapter 43: Cardiac Surgery
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Q1) Which type of valve procedure uses an annuloplasty ring to improve the valve function?
A)Valve replacement
B)Cryoablation
C)Valvuloplasty procedure
D)Dor procedure
Q2) Cold treatment to treat dysrhythmias
A)Endarterectomy
B)Laser angioplasty
C)Intraaortic balloon pump
D)Intracoronary stent
E)Extracorporeal oxygenation
F)Cryoablation
G)Ventricular aneurysmectomy
H)Tachycardia
I)Transmyocardial revascularization
J)Cardiac transplantation
Q3) The most common complication after cardiac surgery is stroke.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Vascular Surgery
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Q1) Which is an advantage of using an autologous saphenous vein graft?
A)Less expensive than an allograft
B)Does not have to be anastomosed to the receiving vessel
C)Is lined with epithelial cells to inhibit clotting
D)Decreases in diameter as it courses distally
Q2) Removal of traveling blood clot
A)Embolectomy
B)Atherectomy
C)Balloon dilation
D)Intraluminal stent
E)Laser angioplasty
F)Thrombolytic therapy
G)Thrombectomy
Q3) Which of the following uses streptokinase to dissolve a thrombus in an occluded vessel?
A)Endarterectomy
B)Thrombolytic therapy
C)Embolectomy
D)Fluoroscopy
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Chapter 45: Organ Procurement and Transplantation
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Q1) Which is one of the three types of bone marrow transplants?
A)Synologous
B)Allogeneic
C)Xenologous
D)Isogenic
Q2) Which two organs can be removed from nonheartbeating donors?
A)Skin and bone
B)Kidney and pancreas
C)Heart and liver
D)Lung and liver
Q3) Which of the following criteria must a patient be evaluated for and meet before being cleared to donate a heart for transplantation?
A)No previous evidence of viral infections
B)No evidence of hypertension
C)No medications or illicit drug use history
D)Similar body size
Q4) People with HIV (human immunodeficiency virus)cannot receive a transplanted organ or tissue.
A)True
B)False
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