Sterile Processing and Infection Control Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of sterile processing techniques and infection control practices essential to healthcare environments. Students will learn principles of asepsis, sterilization methods, decontamination, equipment handling, and the proper use and maintenance of surgical instruments. Emphasizing the prevention of healthcare-associated infections, the course covers standards and guidelines set by regulatory agencies, the use of personal protective equipment, and protocols for handling biohazardous materials. Upon completion, students will understand how to ensure patient and staff safety through effective sterilization processes and robust infection control strategies.
Recommended Textbook
Surgical Technology for the Surgical Technologist A Positive Care Approach 5th Edition by Surgical
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24 Chapters
1684 Verified Questions
1684 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Orientation to Surgical Technology
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many phases of surgical case management are there?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer: B
Q2) Set of responsibilities or expected results associated with a job; descriptions are broad in scope
A)Resume
B)Surgical assistant
C)Job description
D)Organizational structure
E)Career ladder
F)Role
G)Allied Health
H)Feedback
I)Intraoperative case management
J)Problem-solving skills
Answer: F
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Legal Concepts, Risk Management, and Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Specimen loss, mislabeling, and improper preparation are examples of which of the following?
A) battery
B) defamation
C) intentional tort
D) negligence
Answer: D
Q2) According to the Joint Commission's definition regarding consent to surgical intervention, which party has "autonomy"?
A) anesthesia provider
B) circulating RN
C) the patient
D) the surgeon
Answer: C
Q3) A surgical technology student who photographs a patient and posts the image on the Internet could be sued for invasion of privacy and HIPAA violation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 4
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Chapter 3: The Surgical Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of general category of death would most likely generate high emotional trauma for family members and a need to follow protocols for preservation of evidence in the perioperative period?
A) accidental
B) chronic
C) prolonged
D) terminal
Answer: A
Q2) The patient statement " I know I will be in a better place" is part of:
A) a coping mechanism
B) the hierarchy of needs
C) a physiological stressor
D) the acceptance stage of grief
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the "Five Stages of Grief"?
A) acceptance
B) bargaining
C) denial
D) repression
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Special Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately 80% of which special patient population presents to surgery with one or more comorbid conditions?
A) geriatric
B) pregnant
C) pediatric
D) sensory impaired
Q2) Bariatric patients undergoing surgery and in the immediate postoperative period should have sequential compression devices applied to the lower extremities to prevent:
A) congestive heart failure
B) deep vein thrombosis
C) hypovolemic shock
D) respiratory arrest
Q3) Which of the following activities would present no risk of contracting HIV from an infected individual?
A) conversation in close proximity
B) pregnancy and childbirth
C) sharing used hypodermic needles
D) unprotected sexual relations
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Chapter 5: Physical Environment and Safety Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of natural immunoglobulins are responsible for the type I serious allergic reactions to rubber-containing items?
A) IgA
B) IgE
C) IgG
D) IgM
Q2) Which of the following is NOT part of a three-prong plug?
A) active (hot) wire/prong
B) ground pin/prong
C) bipolar wire/prongs
D) inactive (neutral) wire/prong
Q3) Which of the following would be least damaging to and most effective on a fire involving a laser generator or electrosurgical unit?
A) Class C halon extinguisher sprayed on unit
B) cotton blankets used to smother fire
C) sterile saline poured to douse fire
D) unplugging power cord to stop flow of electricity
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Chapter 6: Biomedical Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) Source of direct current with opposite positive and negative terminals
A)Internet
B)Modern
C)Electrons
D)Alternating
E)Font
F)Insulator
G)Resistance
H)Software
I)Power
J)Ground
K)Port
L)Matter
M)Battery
N)Hardware
O)Scanner
Q2) The acronym laser stands for light application by special electromagnetic radiation.
A)True
B)False
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Preventing Perioperative Disease and Transmission
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fungal infection caused by bread mold; sometimes seen in immune-suppressed organ transplant patients
A)Prions
B)Helminths
C)Spores
D)Prokaryotes
E)Helicobacter pylori
F)Zygomycosis
G)Viruses
H)Clostridium perfringens
I)Flagella
J)Staphylococcus aureus
Q2) Which of the following chemicals is a high-level disinfectant when items are immersed for 20 to 30 minutes and a sterilant if items remain immersed for 10 hours?
A) glutaraldehyde
B) isopropyl alcohol
C) quaternary ammonium compounds
D) sodium hypochlorite
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Chapter 8: Emergency Situations and All-Hazards Preparation
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which type of disaster would hot, warm, and cold zone triage protocols be used?
A) airline crash
B) interstate highway pileup
C) nuclear plant meltdown
D) storm surge flooding
Q2) Which of the following substance is least likely to cause an anaphylactic reaction:
A) certain antibiotics
B) insulin
C) contrast media
D) benadryl
Q3) The lead federal agency ?that coordinates treatment to victims and food and shelter during a nationally declared emergency is called:
A) CDC
B) NDMS
C) FEMA
D) EPA
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Chapter 9: Surgical Pharmacology and Anesthesia
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80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To convert weight in pounds to kilograms for a near estimate in an emergency, divide the pounds in half and then subtract the first digit of the answer from the answer itself to get the conversion total.For example, 160/2 = 80, 80 - 8 = 72.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A bovine-derived enzyme used as a chemical method of hemostasis is:
A) heparin
B) collagen
C) thrombin
D) epinephrine
Q3) Which category of drug is used to outline hollow or tubular anatomical structures for radiographic visualization?
A) contrast media
B) dyes
C) stains
D) vasodilator
Q4) Drugs used for prophylaxis relieve pain or other symptoms of a disease process.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Instrumentation, Equipment, and Supplies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of endoscope would be appropriate for examination of the renal pelvis via a natural body orifice?
A) flexible ureteroscope
B) flexible colonoscope
C) rigid hysteroscope
D) rigid sigmoidoscope
Q2) During laparoscopic procedures where carbon dioxide gas is used for insufflation, the intra-abdominal pressure in the average healthy adult patient is kept at:
A) 8 -10 mm Hg
B) 10-12 mm Hg
C) 12-15 mm Hg
D) 15-20 mm Hg
Q3) What is the term for the cut-in lines in the jaws or hemostatic clamps and tissue forceps?
A) secretions
B) serrations
C) striations
D) suppressions
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Chapter 11: Hemostasis, Wound Healing, and Wound
Closure
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88 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following sutures has comparatively inconsistent tensile strength and rapid absorption rate in vivo with moderate tissue reaction?
A) plain surgical gut
B) poliglecaprone
C) polyglyconate
D) polydioxanone
Q2) Elective surgery patients may be asked to discontinue use of which medication to prevent drug-therapy-induced platelet dysfunctions?
A) antibiotics
B) anticonvulsants
C) antacids
D) aspirin
Q3) Which historic figure in medicine is credited with creating principles of proper tissue handling and suturing?
A) DeBakey
B) Cushing
C) Halsted
D) Kocher
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Chapter 12: Surgical Case Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the temporary position for a female patient for placement of urinary catheter prior to abdominal hysterectomy?
A) frog-legged
B) jackknife
C) low lithotomy
D) semi-Fowler's
Q2) The legs of a patient being placed in the lithotomy position should be raised and lowered slowly and simultaneously by two unsterile personnel.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To secure the Mayo stand from moving during draping, what should be done?
A) Push the Mayo stand against the wall.
B) Step on one leg of the Mayo stand.
C) Have the circulator hold the Mayo stand post.
D) Grasp the back side of the tray with one hand.
Q4) The ability to anticipate the needs of the surgeon is one of the most important skills for a surgical technologist to develop.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Objective, observable evidence or manifestations of a pathological condition
A)Fluoroscopy
B)Rad
C)Pulse oximeter
D)Signs
E)Digital subtraction
F)Palpation
G)Retrograde
H)Urinalysis
I)CAT scan
J)Contrast
Q2) Which of the following is (are) stained in a Gram stain test?
A) cervix
B) calculi
C) bacteria
D) tissue margins
Q3) Basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils are types of white blood cells.
A)True
B)False
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Page 15
Chapter 14: General Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where are the parathyroid glands located in relation to the thyroid?
A) anterior midline
B) posterior midline
C) dorsal, superior and inferior
D) ventral, superior and inferior
Q2) What is the name for the type of hernia in which both direct and indirect defects are present?
A) diaphragmatic
B) epigastric
C) incisional
D) pantaloon
Q3) What is the name of the fibrous and serous capsule that covers the liver?
A) Bowman's
B) Glisson's
C) Tenon's
D) articular
Q4) The upper-hand and Thompson retractors are complex self-retaining retractors frequently used in major abdominal procedures.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Obstetric and Gynecologic Surgery
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80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bulb syringes are used in obstetrical delivery procedures to:
A) collect cord blood gas specimens
B) collect pelvic washings for cytology
C) suction amniotic fluid from the field
D) suction the mouth and nares of the neonate
Q2) A woman in her first pregnancy or who has delivered only once
A)LEEP
B)Fornix
C)Resectoscope
D)Primipara
E)Leiomyoma
F)Eclampsia
G)Cannulation
H)Meconium
I)Pouch of Douglas
J)Dyspareunia
Q3) Clamp, clamp, cut, tie (CCCT) is a way to anticipate routine dissection steps during hysterectomy procedures.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Ophthalmic Surgery
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65 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which procedure surgically treats glaucoma?
A) enucleation
B) iridectomy
C) keratoplasty
D) scleral buckle
Q2) Which type of needle is frequently used in ophthalmologic procedures?
A) 1/2 circle blunt
B) 5/8 circle taper
C) straight Keith
D) spatula
Q3) What passes through the canal of Schlemm?
A) aqueous humor
B) vitreous humor
C) lacrimal fluid
D) optic nerve
Q4) Perfluoropropane and sulfur hexafluoride are used to:
A) anesthetize the eye
B) constrict the pupil
C) keep pressure on the retina
D) prevent post-op infections
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for creating a surgical opening into the tympanic membrane?
A) antrostomy
B) myringotomy
C) septoplasty
D) turbinectomy
Q2) What tissue type are the palatine tonsils?
A) fascial
B) lymphoid
C) mucosal
D) serosal
Q3) What is the MOST common cause of nasal polyps?
A) allergic rhinitis
B) arid environment
C) cocaine use
D) smoking
Q4) A procedure sometimes performed in the ICU, ER, or PACU is a(n):
A) cochlear implant
B) bilateral myringotomy tubes (BMT)
C) submucosal resection (SMR)
D) tracheotomy
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Chapter 18: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which procedure is performed for removal of impacted wisdom teeth?
A) enucleation
B) extraction
C) mandibulectomy
D) odontectomy
Q2) Which of the following may be used as permanent support on top of the orbital floor following fixation of fracture?
A) arch bar
B) silastic sheeting
C) titanium plate
D) polymethyl methacrylate
Q3) The mandible articulates with which part of the temporal bone to form the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)?
A) alveolar process
B) glenoid fossa
C) orbital floor
D) symphysis
Q4) Odontectomy procedures are given a wound classification of Class II.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many degree classifications of skin burns are there?
A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
Q2) Device used to measure distance between two opposite sides
A)Eschar
B)Heterograft
C)Turban
D)Hypovolemia
E)Stratum
F)Aesthetic
G)Montgomery straps
H)Caliper
I)Denuded
J)Oscillating
Q3) Incisions made for endoscopic brow lifts and rhytidectomy are often placed within the hairline for camouflage.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Genitourinary Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what position is the patient placed for proximal pyelolithotomy?
A) lateral
B) lithotomy
C) prone
D) Trendelenburg
Q2) The anatomical structures excised during radical cystectomy are different between male and female patients.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Omnipaque, Renografin, and Isovue are used in cystoscopy as:
A) antibiotics
B) contrast media
C) distention fluids
D) topical analgesics
Q4) What is the name of a continent urinary reservoir that may be performed following cystectomy?
A) hydrocele
B) ileal conduit
C) Koch pouch
D) orchiopexy
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of cast is applied often to children and immobilizes unilateral or bilateral hips and femurs?
A) spica
B) cylinder
C) long leg
D) short leg
Q2) Which of the following describes the appearance of a stellate bone fracture?
A) asterisk ( * )
B) back slash ( / )
C) spiral ( S )
D) transverse ( )
Q3) Double gloving should be done as a routine in orthopedic cases due to exposure to various sharp instruments and potentially jagged bones.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Care must be taken during skin prepping for gangrenous lower extremities prior to amputation to prevent inadvertent dislodging of toes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Cardiothoracic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medtronic OCTOPUS and Guidant Ultima OPCAB are what type of devices for coronary artery bypass done off-pump?
A) retractors
B) stabilizers
C) cannulae
D) grafts
Q2) The apex of the lung is located:
A) inferiorly and laterally
B) medially where the bronchus enters
C) medially just above the diaphragm
D) superiorly and just above the clavicle
Q3) Which of the following is the main underlying pathogenic cause of coronary atherosclerosis and clinical manifestations?
A) age
B) diet
C) ischemia
D) hypertension
Q4) The ventricles of the heart have thicker myocardium than the atria.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Peripheral Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the condition that involves plaque or clots escaping from the femoral or iliac veins?
A) deep vein thrombosis
B) carotid stenosis
C) atherosclerosis
D) claudication
Q2) Which diagnostic study is considered the gold standard for evaluation of vascular disease?
A) angiography
B) CT scan
C) radiography
D) PET scan
Q3) Which of the following is the BEST choice for distal bypass graft in the lower extremity?
A) Dacron
B) Gore-Tex
C) PTFE
D) saphenous vein
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Chapter 24: Neurosurgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which part of the vertebra projects most posteriorly and is often palpable through the skin in the convex areas of the spine?
A) body
B) lamina
C) spinous process
D) transverse process
Q2) The skull flap can be reattached to the cranium by small titanium plates and screws or with stainless steel wire.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which anatomical structure is the tough band that encases the intervertebral disc material?
A) annulus fibrosis
B) circle of Willis
C) intervertebral foramina
D) nucleus pulposus
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