Stellar and Galactic Astronomy
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
This course explores the fundamental principles of stellar and galactic astronomy, focusing on the physical properties, life cycles, and classification of stars, as well as the structure, dynamics, and evolution of galaxies. Students will study observational techniques, stellar spectra, nucleosynthesis, and the processes driving star formation and stellar death. The course also examines the distribution and types of galaxies, evidence for dark matter, galactic interactions, and the large-scale structure of the universe, providing a comprehensive understanding of the cosmos beyond our solar system.
Recommended Textbook
Astronomy Today 8th Edition by Eric Chaisson
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28 Chapters
2941 Verified Questions
2941 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Charting the Heavens: The Foundations of Astronomy
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94 Verified Questions
94 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some type of solar eclipse will happen about:
A) every month at new moon.
B) every week at full moon.
C) every month at full moon.
D) about every six months at new moon.
E) every year at new moon.
Answer: D
Q2) Of all visible objects in the celestial sphere,which appears to move the least? Why?
Answer: Polaris,because it lies very close to the north celestial pole,making everything else seem to revolve around it as the Earth rotates on its axis daily.
Q3) Seasons on Earth are primarily caused by:
A) the distance from the Earth to the Sun.
B) the tilt of the Earth's rotational axis.
C) the tilt of the Earth's magnetic axis.
D) the precession of the Earth's rotational axis.
E) the dates of the solstices and equinoxes.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Copernican Revolution: The Birth of Modern Science
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does Newton's Universal Law of Gravitation explain Kepler's laws?
A) Universal gravitation implies that the orbits of the planets must be elliptical (Kepler's first law).
B) Universal gravitation implies that the planets will sweep out equal areas in equal times (Kepler's second law).
C) Universal gravitation implies that the planets further from the Sun will move more slowly than the planets closer to the Sun (Kepler's third law).
D) Universal gravitation implies that when a planet is closer to the Sun in its orbit, it will move faster than when it is farther from the Sun (Kepler's second law).
E) Both C and D are correct.
Answer: E
Q2) Mercury,with a higher eccentricity orbit,should change its orbital speed more than do Venus or Earth.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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4
Chapter 3: Radiation: Information from the Cosmos
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Earth's ionosphere partially blocks which form of electromagnetic radiation?
A) gamma rays
B) ultraviolet
C) visible light
D) infrared
E) radio
Answer: E
Q2) If a new wave arrives on shore every two seconds,then its frequency is 2 Hz.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Increasing the temperature of a blackbody by a factor of 3 will increase its energy by a factor of:
A) 3.
B) 6.
C) 9.
D) 12.
E) 81.
Answer: E
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Spectroscopy: The Inner Workings of Atoms
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Sample Questions
Q1) A binary star system is one with two stars orbiting each other.How can the Doppler effect be used to find binary stars whose orbital plane is along our line of sight? Their periods?
Q2) What is spectroscopy?
A) an analysis of the way in which atoms absorb and emit light
B) a study of the geometry of rainbows
C) an observational technique to measure the brightness of light at different colors
D) the use of CCDs to capture light more efficiently than with photographic film
E) a method to freeze atmospheric turbulence for better resolution
Q3) The emission line for a given atom shows spectral features at the ________ location as in its absorption spectrum.
Q4) The Balmer Beta absorption line is a result of a transition of an electron in a hydrogen atom from:
A) level 2 to level 3.
B) level 2 to level 4.
C) level 3 to level 2.
D) level 4 to level 2.
E) None of the above.
Q5) Explain how the Zeeman effect allows us to study stellar magnetic fields.
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Chapter 5: Telescopes: The Tools of Astronomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which reflector telescope would be the easiest to construct,and why?
Q2) What is the resolving power of the telescope?
A) the ability to make distant objects appear closer
B) the ability to collect a lot of light
C) the ability to detect very faint objects
D) the ability to distinguish adjacent objects in the sky
E) the ability to separate light into its component colors
Q3) Green light has a shorter wavelength than orange light.In a 5-inch telescope,green light will:
A) provide better angular resolution than orange light.
B) come to the same exact focus as orange light.
C) provide worse angular resolution than orange light.
D) allow dimmer stars to be observed.
E) reduce the effects of atmospheric turbulence.
Q4) Optical telescopes are usually used only at night,but radio telescopes can be used day or night.
A)True
B)False
Q5) You are a novice telescope builder.Should you attempt a 6" Newtonian or Cassegrain reflector first? Why?
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Chapter 6: The Solar System: Comparative Planetology and Formation Models
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151 Verified Questions
151 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The jovian planets:
A) all lie less than 5 AU from the Sun.
B) all have rings around their equators.
C) all spin slower than the Earth.
D) have satellite systems with less than 4 moons.
E) are all much more dense than any of the terrestrials planets.
Q2) In the currently accepted theory for the formation of the solar system,the planets and other minor bodies and the ________ formed at about the same time.
Q3) While all planet orbits are ellipses,the eight large planets have fairly ________ eccentricities.
Q4) One characteristic of the terrestrial planets is their extensive moon systems. A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the chemical and physical properties of the solar system that any theory of its origin must explain?
Q6) Our solar system contains only 65 moons (as of Summer 2007).
A)True
B)False
Q7) What do Pioneer 10 and 11 and Voyager 1 and 2 all have in common?
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Chapter 7: Earth: Our Home in Space
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Almost all the oxygen in Earth's atmosphere is unique among the planets in our solar system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Greenhouse Effect works by trapping:
A) incoming ultraviolet radiation from the Sun.
B) outgoing ultraviolet radiation from the Earth.
C) incoming infrared radiation from the Sun.
D) outgoing infrared radiation from the Earth.
E) the heat from the Sun in Earth's atmosphere.
Q3) Which of these gases are outgassed from our volcanic eruptions?
A) oxygen, methane, ammonia
B) carbon dioxide, water vapor, oxygen
C) ammonia, water vapor, oxygen
D) water vapor, methane, carbon dioxide
E) helium, carbon dioxide, methane
Q4) When strong solar winds are directed poleward,we see ________ at night.
Q5) Name two consequences of the Earth's magnetic field detected from space.
Q6) Evidence that the Earth was nearly molten at one time comes from the differentiation of materials by ________ from core to crust.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Moon and Mercury: Scorched and Battered Worlds
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112 Verified Questions
112 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cratering of the lunar highlands shows us:
A) they are younger than the maria.
B) they are older than the smoother maria.
C) they have been unchanged for the last 4.6 billion years.
D) they are like the Earth's continents, removed from the tectonic cycle of the mare.
E) they were made of more rigid lavas than the basalts that made the maria.
Q2) The lunar mare are found:
A) anywhere large meteor impacts created deep basins.
B) almost entirely on the far side, which was more likely to be hit.
C) almost entirely on Earth side, where the crust was thinner.
D) mainly in the south polar region, where the largest impact occurred.
E) not at all, since no liquid water really exists on the Moon.
Q3) The oldest known features of Mercury's surface formed:
A) about 4.6 billion years ago.
B) about 3.9-3.2 billion years ago.
C) just under 4 billion years ago.
D) less than a billion years ago.
Q4) Why does the Moon lack a true atmosphere?
Q5) How is it possible for Mercury and the Moon to have water ice at their poles?
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Chapter 9: Venus: Earth's Sister Planet
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98 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) If Mars' atmosphere is mostly carbon dioxide,why isn't it as hot as Venus?
Q2) The only spacecraft to successfully land on Venus were:
A) ESA's Giotto.
B) Russian Veneras.
C) NASA's Vikings.
D) NASA's Magellan.
E) NASA's Venus Rovers.
Q3) Venus' lack of magnetic field means that:
A) there is no lightning on Venus.
B) the surface of Venus has no protection from the Sun's radiation.
C) it doesn't have a liquid metallic core.
D) Venus' upper atmosphere is permanently ionized.
E) there are constant aurorae everywhere on Venus.
Q4) Venus can appear as a crescent through the telescope.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The lack of water on Venus is the result of ________ of the water molecules into its component atoms by solar ultraviolet radiation.
Q6) The atmosphere of Venus is about 95% ________.
Q7) Why is Venus' rotation unusual?
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Chapter 10: Mars: A Near Miss for Life?
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The magnetic field of Mars was first detected by the Mars Global Surveyor.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The largest volcano in the solar system,________,is found on Mars.
Q3) Rank these magnetic fields,from weakest to strongest.
A) Venus, Mars, Mercury, Earth
B) Mars, Mercury, Venus, Earth
C) Earth, Venus, Mars, Mercury
D) The Moon, Mercury, Mars, Venus
E) Mars, Venus, Earth, Mercury
Q4) Mars has an axial tilt more like the Earth's than any other planet.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The main constituent of the Martian atmosphere is:
A) hydrogen.
B) helium.
C) methane.
D) carbon dioxide.
E) nitrogen.
Q6) The ________ hemisphere of Mars appears older and more heavily cratered.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Jupiter: Giant of the Solar System
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101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How large is Jupiter's magnetosphere?
A) It is about as large as the Earth's.
B) It is so large it extends out to the orbit of Io.
C) It is a million times the volume of the Earth's, extending beyond the orbit of Saturn.
D) It extends inward to the orbit of Mars.
E) It envelopes even the Sun and rest of the solar system.
Q2) Together,which two gases make up 99% of Jupiter's atmosphere?
A) Ammonia and Methane
B) Water Vapor and Methane
C) Helium and Ammonia
D) Hydrogen and Ammonia
E) Hydrogen and Helium
Q3) The apparent "surface" of Jupiter is actually the tops of ________.
Q4) Io's volcanoes contribute material to a(n)________ around the planet Jupiter's equator.
Q5) Like Earth,Jupiter's internal energy is generated chiefly by radioactive decay.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Io's "pizza pie" colors come from eruptions of ________ and its compounds.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Saturn: Spectacular Rings and Mysterious
Moons
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104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contrast Saturn's moon Titan with Earth's Moon.
Q2) Saturn's two shepherd moons herd the particles in the F ring.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The wind speeds found in the bands and zones of Saturn,compared to those on Jupiter,are about:
A) 3 times faster.
B) 2 times faster.
C) the same.
D) 2 times slower.
E) 3 times slower.
Q4) What evidence suggests that Enceladus has ongoing geological activity?
A) Voyager 2 photographed liquid nitrogen geysers 10 kilometers tall.
B) Lack of impact craters on much of its surface, evidence of ice flows from possible volcanic activity, and geysers that supply material for the E-ring.
C) Voyager 1 showed sulfur eruptions all over its pizza-pie colored surface.
D) Enceladus is located within Saturn's Roche limit, and ready to blow up.
E) Enceladus undergoes severe tidal stresses from its resonance with Titan.
Q5) What element is notably deficient in Saturn's atmosphere,and why?
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Chapter 13: Uranus and Neptune: The Outer Worlds of the Solar System
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108 Verified Questions
108 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The visual appearance of Neptune is much bluer than Uranus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Although the atmospheres of Uranus and Neptune are very similar,the atmosphere of Neptune contains more:
A) Hydrogen.
B) Helium.
C) Methane.
D) Ammonia.
E) Nitrogen.
Q3) Discuss the role that methane plays in the appearances of Neptune and Uranus.
Q4) Describe how the motion of Uranus led to the discovery of Neptune.
Q5) The planet Uranus is:
A) easily visible with the naked eye.
B) barely visible with the naked eye.
C) only visible with a small telescope or binoculars.
D) only visible with a large, high quality telescope.
E) only visible with a space-based telescope.
Q6) Compared to the other rings,those of ________ are the most irregular,with clumps of material and ring arcs. Page 15
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Page 16
Chapter 14: Solar System Debris: Keys to Our Origin
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114 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What role did Percival Lowell play that led to the discovery and naming of Pluto?
Q2) Some meteorites found on Earth are believed to have originated on the Moon or Venus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Typically,no more than a couple dozen potentially hazardous asteroids approach the Earth as close as 0.05 AU each decade.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Asteroid 2004 FH passed within a tenth of the Earth-Moon distance in March 2004.When its period was found to be about nine months,it was classified as a(n):
A) short period comet.
B) aten asteroid.
C) apollo asteroid.
D) amor asteroid.
E) Kuiper Belt Object.
Q5) How does Pluto's behavior at perihelion support its planetary status?
Q6) How does the discovery of a comet typically differ from that of an asteroid?
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Chapter 15: Exoplanets: Planetary Systems Beyond Our Own
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Sample Questions
Q1) Extrasolar planets are placed in groups by their approximate masses.What are four of these classes?
Q2) How do most of the newly discovered solar systems and planets compare to our own?
Q3) When we are lucky enough to see an extra-solar planet transit its star,
A) it will cause the star to vanish for several hours.
B) we can find the planet's size, mass, and density by the drop in light.
C) we can determine what elements are in its atmosphere.
D) we can determine its shape.
E) we can be certain it is a terrestrial, not a jovian.
Q4) ________ in the early solar system might explain many of the observed irregularities.
Q5) Extrasolar planetary systems are similar to our solar system in all of the following ways,EXCEPT:
A) that planetary orbits are relatively coplanar.
B) for the presence of hot Jupiters in some systems.
C) that planets orbit in the same direction that their parent star rotates.
D) that the systems contain interplanetary debris, such as comets or asteroids.
E) None of these are dissimilar to our solar system.
Q6) Hot Jupiters have ________ period orbits.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: The Sun: Our Parent Star
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a period of high solar activity,the corona:
A) disappears.
B) is more irregular.
C) cools almost to the temperature of the photosphere.
D) becomes smooth and even.
E) shrinks to half its normal size.
Q2) What two energy transport mechanisms,in order from outside the core to the surface,are found in the Sun?
A) convection, conduction
B) radiative diffusion, convection
C) conduction, radiative diffusion
D) radiative diffusion, conduction
E) conduction, convection
Q3) The critical temperature to initiate the proton-proton cycle in the cores of stars is:
A) 3,000 K.
B) 5,800 K.
C) 2,300,000 K.
D) 10 million K.
E) 100 million K.
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Page 19
Chapter 17: The Stars: Giants,Dwarfs,and the Main
Sequence
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107 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) How might the most common occurring stars be described,based on our stellar neighborhood?
A) white dwarfs
B) K giants
C) G main sequence
D) A main sequence
E) M main sequence
Q2) Stars that have masses similar to the Sun's,and sizes similar to the Earth are:
A) main sequence stars.
B) white dwarfs.
C) red giants.
D) red dwarfs.
E) brown dwarfs.
Q3) Compared to the size of the Sun,in what range of sizes are nearly all stars found?
A) 0.5 to 2 solar radii
B) 0.1 to 1.0 solar radii
C) 0.5 to 50 solar radii
D) 1 to 100 solar radii
E) 0.01 to 100 solar radii
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Chapter 18: The Interstellar Medium: Gas and Dust among the Stars
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these is NOT a consequence of dust in the interstellar medium?
A) reddening of stars' light that passes through the dust
B) blue reflection nebulae around the Pleiades
C) red light from the emission nebulae
D) the dark nebulae that block 90% of the Milky Way from us visually
E) terrestrial planets like our own
Q2) Due to absorption of shorter wavelengths by interstellar dust clouds,distant stars appear:
A) bluer.
B) brighter.
C) redder.
D) larger.
E) to have a higher radial velocity.
Q3) Dark nebulae are opaque to all wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain how "forbidden" lines appear in spectra of emission nebulae.
Q5) Contrast observations of ionized and neutral hydrogen in space.
Q6) How is 21 cm radiation produced?
Q7) Why does a reflection nebula look blue? Page 21
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Page 22
Chapter 19: Star Formation: A Traumatic Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are some sources of the shock waves that initiate star formation?
Q2) Higher mass protostars enter the main sequence:
A) faster and at a higher luminosity and temperature.
B) faster and at a lower luminosity and temperature.
C) slower and at a higher luminosity and temperature.
D) slower and at a lower luminosity and temperature.
E) at the same rate, but at a higher luminosity and temperature.
Q3) From stage 4 to stage 7 of star formation,the object plotted on the H-R diagram moves so that:
A) its luminosity decreases, while its temperature increases.
B) its luminosity decreases, while its temperature stays the same.
C) its luminosity increases, while its temperature increases.
D) its luminosity increases, while its temperature stays the same.
E) its luminosity stays the same, and its temperature stays the same.
Q4) Collisions between galaxies tend to destroy,not create,stars.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The birth of stars is a battle between gravity and radiation pressure.
A)True
B)False
Page 23
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Chapter 20: Stellar Evolution: The Life and Death of a Star
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are at least three possible explanations for historical records indicating that Sirius was red,even though it is now clearly seen as blue-white?
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding planetary nebulae?
A) Some are spherical, but most have bipolar structure.
B) They are the result of the mass loss during the main sequence stage of the most massive stars.
C) They are the rings of material surrounding newly formed stars that will eventually form the planetary systems.
D) They are the ejected envelopes of highly evolved brown dwarf stars.
E) They are the coronas surrounding most blue stragglers.
Q3) The Roche lobe of a star in a binary star system:
A) resembles the ear of Edouard Roche, a French mathematician.
B) is, in terms of the star's gravity, its "zone of influence."
C) is the part of a rapidly rotating star that will eventually spin away to form planets.
D) is the accretion disk around the companion star.
E) leads to formation of rings, like around the jovian planets.
Q4) Why can we say a star spends its life trying to maintain equilibrium?
Q5) ________ clusters are much older and richer than open clusters.
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Chapter 21: Stellar Explosions: Novae,Supernovae,and the
Formation of the Elements
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Sample Questions
Q1) The heaviest nuclei of all are formed:
A) in the horizontal branch.
B) in dense white dwarfs.
C) during nova explosions.
D) in the ejection of matter in the planetary nebula.
E) in the core collapse that set the stage of type II supernovae.
Q2) The final core collapse of a massive star takes about 13 seconds.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Contrast the progenitors of a type I and a type II supernova.
Q4) Type I supernovae result from ________ stars which have accreted sufficient additional mass via mass transfer from a close binary companion.
Q5) Except for hydrogen and most of the helium,all the elements have been formed through stellar nucleosynthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What do X-ray observations tell us about conditions around a potential nova?
Q7) What is the importance of 1.4 solar masses in stellar evolution?
Q8) What are two differences observed between type I and type II supernovae? Page 25
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Chapter 22: Neutron Stars and Black Holes: Strange States of Matter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Special relativity says that c,the speed of light,is the maximum velocity for both matter and energy in our universe.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why do scientists describe the theory of gravity as "incomplete"?
A) It does not incorporate a description of matter on a very small scale.
B) It does not explain why light bends near a dense object.
C) It does not agree with the expansion of the universe.
D) The gravity waves it predicts have not been observed.
E) It does not explain the effects on time from a massive object.
Q3) Relate escape speed to event horizon for a black hole.
Q4) Describe the properties of space in the vicinity of a black hole.
Q5) If the Sun were replaced by a one solar mass black hole:
A) all terrestrial planets would fall in immediately.
B) we would still orbit it in a period of one year.
C) we would immediately escape into deep space, driven out by its radiation.
D) our clocks would all stop.
E) life here would be unchanged.
Page 27
Q6) If a neutron star attains a mass over ________ solar masses it becomes a black hole.
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Chapter 23: The Milky Way Galaxy: A Spiral in Space
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who was Henrietta Leavitt,and what did she do to help map the universe?
Q2) The Galactic Year is the time for our solar system to orbit the Galaxy; it is about:
A) 15 million years.
B) 225 million years.
C) 4.5 billion years.
D) 9.6 billion years.
E) 13.5 billion years.
Q3) What is one of the differences between Cepheids and RR Lyrae variables?
A) Cepheids are giants, but RR Lyrae stars are still on the main sequence.
B) All Cepheids have the same brightness, but RR Lyrae stars vary greatly in luminosity.
C) The period-luminosity relation holds only for RR Lyrae stars.
D) The pulsations of RR Lyrae stars are much less regular than those of Cepheids.
E) The RR Lyrae stars have much shorter periods than Cepheids.
Q4) It is harder to map the structure of the Milky Way as a whole in visible light than with any other form of electromagnetic radiation.
A)True
B)False
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29
Chapter 24: Galaxies: Building Blocks of the Universe
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ galaxies seem to represent a transition between quasars and similar active nuclei compared to more normal spirals.
Q2) Which of the following does the intensity of synchrotron radiation NOT depend on?
A) mass of the electron
B) temperature
C) speed of electrons
D) frequency of radiation
E) strength of the magnetic field
Q3) The elliptical galaxies are most like what part of our Milky Way? Explain.
Q4) What are the common properties shared by most active galaxies and quasars? How do these properties lead to an understanding of the central engine?
Q5) Quasar's spectral lines are:
A) emission lines with large redshifts.
B) a continuum from the synchrotron radiation.
C) fuzzy absorption lines from the merged light of the billions of stars.
D) too complex for any interpretation.
E) nonexistent, the gas so hot as to be totally ionized, so no lines are seen.
Q6) To which portion of the Milky Way are the Magellanic Clouds most similar? Why?
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Chapter 25: Galaxies and Dark Matter: The Large-Scale
Structure of the Cosmos
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Sample Questions
Q1) The quasars with the largest presently known redshifts are close to:
A) 0.96.
B) 3.
C) 6.
D) 10.
E) 65.
Q2) Spiral galaxies are much more common in the centers of rich clusters than in the universe as a whole.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A merger between two large galaxies of comparable size will most likely produce:
A) two small elliptical galaxies.
B) a large elliptical galaxy.
C) a small elliptical galaxy and a small spiral galaxy.
D) a large spiral galaxy.
E) a small elliptical galaxy and a large spiral galaxy.
Q4) Describe how the radio lobes get to the outside of their galaxy.Where do they come from? How is it that they still exist this far away from their origin? Estimate how much time it might take these lobes to travel to their current locations.
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Chapter 26: Cosmology: The Big Bang and the Fate of the Universe
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Q1) If the density of the universe is greater than the critical density,this means that:
A) the universe is expanding at a rate equal to the escape speed of the universe.
B) the universe is expanding at a rate less than the escape speed of the universe.
C) the universe is expanding at a rate greater than the escape speed of the universe.
D) the universe is expanding at a rate equal to the speed of light.
E) the universe is expanding at a rate greater than the speed of light.
Q2) The concept that on the grandest of scales,the universe is similar in appearance everywhere is:
A) special relativity.
B) general relativity.
C) homogeneity.
D) isotropy.
E) universality.
Q3) The Big Bang was an expansion of matter into empty space.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: The Early Universe: Toward the Beginning of Time
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Q1) Gravity becomes separate from the other forces at the:
A) decoupling Event, about a million years after the Big Bang.
B) end of the Planck Era, about 10 ³ seconds after the Big Bang.
C) end of the Inflationary Epoch, about 10 ³² seconds into creation.
D) beginning of particle production, about .0001 seconds into the universe.
E) end of electron production, about a minute after creation.
Q2) How could the distance measurements based on white dwarf supernovae be independently validated (or invalidated)?
Q3) The period from about one to 100 seconds after the Big Bang is called the:
A) pair-production era.
B) atomic epoch.
C) nuclear epoch.
D) quark epoch.
E) lepton epoch.
Q4) Before the decoupling,
A) the Universe was transparent to radiation.
B) the Universe was opaque to radiation.
C) protons and electrons combined to form atoms.
D) there was more helium than hydrogen.
E) deuterium produced electrons and positrons.
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Chapter
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Q1) Each factor in the Drake Equation has a well-known,established value.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why does detection of abundant free oxygen in an atmosphere suggest life is present? Does its absence prove life could not be present?
Q3) Which of these does Mars NOT have to help its case of past or present life?
A) occasional water flows, and past records of much larger ones
B) a protective ozone layer
C) carbon dioxide to provide some greenhouse warming
D) a favorable distance from the Sun
E) rover discoveries of sedimentary rocks and carbonates on the surface of Mars
Q4) Which classes of stars with large habitable zones probably don't last long enough for life to evolve to use them?
Q5) Earth behaves as an artificial pulsar,with the strongest pulses for alien observers when North America is either rising or setting.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Life on Earth remained single celled for ________ years,according to the microfossil record.
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