Stellar Astronomy
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Stellar Astronomy explores the properties, life cycles, and evolution of stars. The course examines how stars are formed from interstellar clouds, how they are categorized by their physical characteristics such as luminosity, temperature, and spectral type, and the different evolutionary paths stars may follow depending on their initial mass. Topics include star clusters, binary and variable stars, the processes responsible for stellar nucleosynthesis, and the endpoints of stellar evolution such as white dwarfs, neutron stars, and black holes. Observational techniques and modern discoveries in the field are integrated throughout, providing a comprehensive understanding of the role stars play in the broader context of the universe.
Recommended Textbook
HorizonsExploring the Universe 14th Edition by Michael A. Seeds
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Chapter 1: Here and Now
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Milky Way and the Milky Way Galaxy are the same thing.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The metric system is a decimal system.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) "I live 20 minutes from Center City." How is this statement similar to giving astronomical distances in light-years
Answer: Twenty minutes is a measurement of time. In this case, the person speaking is referring to the time it takes to travel from City Center to home. If someone says an object is a distance of a certain number of light years, this is incorrect. Light-years is a measurement of distance. It is a common misperception that a light-year is a unit of time, because it has the word "year".
Q4) The name of the average distance from Earth to the Sun is one
Answer: astronomical unit
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Chapter 2: A Users Guide to the Sky
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the north celestial pole appears on your horizon, what is your latitude
A)90° N
B)90° S
C)0°
D)45° N
E)The latitude of the observer cannot be determined from the information given.
Answer: C
Q2) The apparent visual magnitude difference between two stars is 10 and thus the approximate intensity ratio is 10,000.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Refer to Table 2-1. Which star in the table would not be visible to the unaided eye of an observer on Earth
A) Cet
B) Cma
C)Nim
D) Per
E) Dra
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Cycles of the Sun and Moon
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ecliptic is
A)the centerline of the zodiac.
B)the projection of Earth's orbit on the sky.
C)the apparent path of the Sun around the sky.
D)the centerline of the zodiac, the projection of Earth's orbit on the sky, and the apparent path of the Sun around the sky.
E)None of the other choices are correct.
Answer: D
Q2) The __________ is the region of total shadow.
Answer: umbra
Q3) The highest atmospheric layer in the Sun is the _______
A)photosphere
B)corona
C)chromosphere
D)prominence
Answer: B
Q4) A(n) ____________________ Moon rises in the eastern sky approximately as Sun sets.
Answer: full
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Chapter 4: The Origin of Modern Astronomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following books of tabulated predicted planet positions was not based on uniform circular motion
A)the Rudolphine Tables by Kepler
B)the Prutenic Tables based on Copernicus' model
C)the Alphonsine Tables based on Ptolemy's observations and calculations
Q2) The period of Jupiter's orbit around the Sun is approximately 12 years. What is the approximate distance from the Sun to Jupiter
A)144 AU
B)1728 AU
C)42 AU
D)5.2 AU
E)2.3 AU
Q3) In Ptolemy's view of the universe, a planet moves on an epicycle whose center moves around the Earth on the deferent circle.
A)Correct
B)FALSE; Ptolemy put the Sun at the center.
C)FALSE; The planet stays on the deferent circle.
D)FALSE; Earth is at the center of the epicycle.
E)FALSE; Both c and d are correct.
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Chapter 5: Light and Telescopes
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Sample Questions
Q1) List the advantages the Hubble Space Telescope has over ground-based telescopes.
Q2) Which blurs our Earth-based view of celestial objects
A)the Sun
B)the Moon
C)Earth's atmosphere
Q3) What causes chromatic aberration Why does it not occur in reflecting telescopes
Q4) All radio telescopes are refracting telescopes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A(n) ____________________ is used to measure the brightness and color of stars.
Q6) What is the magnification of a telescope and eyepiece if the telescope objective has a focal length of 200 cm and the eyepiece has a focal length of 2.0 cm
A)400 times
B)4000 times
C)100 times
D)1000 times
E)40 times
Q7) A wave on a lake is found to have a wavelength of 2 m and a frequency of 0.3 Hz. What is the speed of this wave
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Chapter 6: Atoms and Spectra
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hotter an object, the bluer it appears.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Since an electron is so less massive than a proton, what is the approximate mass and charge of a neutral hydrogen atom
A)the mass of an electron, negative
B)the mass of a proton, neutral
C)the mass of a neutron, positive
D)the mass of a proton and neutron, positive
Q3) Blue stars emit most of their energy at shorter wavelengths than red stars.
A)True
B)False
Q4) To know the element name on the periodic table, you need to know the number of neutrons in the nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ____________________ of a star can be determined from its color.
Q6) Describe two ways in which an atom can be excited.
Q7) What would the spectrum of hydrogen look like if we could see into the ultraviolet
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Sun
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Sample Questions
Q1) The solar constant is a measure of
A)the amount of solar energy reaching Earth.
B)the length of the sunspot cycle.
C)the period of rotation of the Sun's equator.
D)the average number of sunspots seen during the Maunder minimum.
E)the Sun's mass.
Q2) The chromosphere of the Sun has a higher temperature than the photosphere.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Granulation is caused by which energy transport
A)convection
B)radiation
C)conduction
D)none of the others
Q4) The ____________ force is involved in the radioactive decay of certain kinds of nuclear particles.
Q5) The corona is heated by magnetic carpets. A)True
B)False
Q6) What evidence do we have that the chromosphere is hotter than the photosphere
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Family of Stars
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Sample Questions
Q1) An eclipsing binary will
A)be more luminous than a visual binary.
B)also be observed as a spectroscopic binary.
C)give off most of its light in the infrared.
D)show a constant Doppler shift in its spectral lines.
E)show two stars with variable proper motion.
Q2) Some giants and/or supergiants are less dense than air.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to the text, humans have a _____ size compared to stellar and microscopic objects.
A)extra small
B)small
C)medium
D)large
Q4) In an eclipsing binary, the orbits are face-on so you can see both stars orbiting each other at all times.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How do the spectra of giants, supergiants, and main-sequence stars differ
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Chapter 9: The Formation and Structure of Stars
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hottest star in the Orion Nebula ____________hydrogen gas and makes it
A)ionizes; glow
B)neutralizse; glow
C)ionizes; swallow the star
Q2) T Tauri stars are in hydrostatic equilibrium.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ____________________ appear reddish in color due to the light emitted by the Balmer series of the hydrogen atom.
Q4) Most stars generate their energy by the thermonuclear fusion of ____________________ to form ____________________.
Q5) The above image is an example of a/an _________ nebula.
A)dark
B)emission
C)Bok globule
D)reflection
Q6) A(n) ____________________ is a cool, dense cloud of dust and gas that is undergoing gravitational contraction.
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Chapter 10: The Deaths of Stars
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Q1) In the orbital plane of a binary star system matter can be transferred from one star to the other through the ___________, located directly between the two stars is the point where the Roche lobes meet.
A)turnoff points
B)horizontal branch
C)Lagrangian points
D)synchrotron points
E)radiation belts
Q2) When an aging massive star generates an iron core, the iron cannot fuse and thus the star cannot support its weight outside the core. The star is no longer in hydrostatic equilibrium and collapses, forming a supernova.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Type Ia and Type Ib supernovae both involve binary star systems.
A)True
B)False
Q4) No known white dwarf has a mass greater than the Chandrasekhar limit.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Neutron Stars and Black Holes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mass of a neutron star is
A)several time that of the Sun.
B)about the same as that of the Sun.
C)about the same as Earth.
D)smaller than any of these.
Q2) If the inner accretion disk around a black hole has a temperature of \(10^6\) K, at what wavelength will it radiate the most energy (Hint: From Wien's law, T =3,000,000 where is in nm and T is in K.)
A)\(10^6\) nm
B)3 nm
C)\(3 × 10^6\) nm
D)1 nm
E)\(3 × 10^{11}\) nm
Q3) The slowing of clocks in strongly curved space time is known as
A)gravitational radiation.
B)time dilation.
C)gravitational curvature.
D)gravitational redshift.
E)hyperspace drag.
Q4) How are neutron stars and white dwarfs similar
Page 13
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Chapter 12: The Milky Way Galaxy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Getting a cold is like building the chemical elements in nucleosynthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The traditional "top-down" hypothesis states that the galaxy formed
A)from a large spherical cloud of gas that was rotating very slowly.
B)from a large cloud of material that broke off a larger galaxy.
C)from material that had been ejected in the violent explosion of a dying galaxy.
D)as a result of mergers between several smaller groups of gas, dust, and stars.
E)as two massive galaxies collided.
Q3) You observe a variable star and find its period to be about 6 days and its MV to be -3.4. Which object best describes the system or type of system you are observing using the above graph
A)RR Lyrae
B)Type II Cepheids
C)Type I Cepheids
D)Delta Cephei
Q4) The _________________ hypothesis includes mergers with smaller galaxies and infalling gas to the standard formation of the Milky Way galaxy.
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Chapter 13: Galaxies: Normal and Active
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Q1) If H equals 50 km/s/Mpc, then a galaxy with a radial velocity of 50,000 km/s will have a distance of about 1 Mpc.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why can't galaxy evolution go from elliptical to spiral to irregular
Q3) Why should we expect quasars to be small How small should we expect them to be
Q4) Galactic cannibalism refers to A)binary galaxies.
B)the merging of galaxies.
C)galaxies drawing in gas from the intergalactic medium.
D)the destruction of a galaxy's globular clusters by the galaxy's nucleus.
E)None of the other choices are correct.
Q5) It is believed that ring galaxies form
A)when two galaxies collide at high speeds.
B)when two spiral galaxies collide, but not directly head on.
C)from a large cloud of gas and dust with very little angular momentum.
D)from a large cloud of gas and dust with a very high angular momentum.
E)when more than two galaxies collide at the same time.
Q6) Where jets run into surrounding gas in the intergalactic medium, ____________ are formed before feeding the lobes.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Modern Cosmology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cosmological principle states that the Universe is I.expanding.
II.accelerating.
III.homogeneous
IV.isotropic.
A)I and II
B)III and IV
C)I and III
D)II and IV
E)I, II, III, and IV
Q2) The night sky is dark because the Universe is not infinitely old.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What do the size and distribution of small scale temperature variations suggest about the geometry of the Universe
Q4) Observations of Type Ia supernova indicate that the universe is static.
A)True
B)False
Q5) If in every direction we point to a star, then the conundrum that the sky is dark is known as ___________.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Origin of the Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most important effect in clearing the solar nebula of gas and dust was
A)impacts by planetesimals.
B)the solar wind.
C)the Sun's magnetic field.
D)the asteroid belt.
E)radiation pressure.
Q2) How is radioactive dating used to determine the age of an object
A)Both the amounts of radioactive and decay material are measured. Using these with the radioactive material's half-life, the age can be estimated.
B)The amount of radioactive material is measured. Using this with the radioactive material's half-life, the age can be estimated.
C)The amount of decay material is measured. Using this with the radioactive material's half-life, the age can be estimated.
D)The amount of heat generated by radioactive dating is measured to determine age.
Q3) Violent impacts of infalling particles release energy called ____________.
Q4) How does the solar nebula theory account for the presence of comets
Q5) List and describe four differences between Jovians and Terrestrials.
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Chapter 16: Earth and Moon: Bases for Comparative Planetology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Human output of carbon dioxide is small compared to natural output by volcanoes, for example.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why is carbon dioxide important in maintaining a greenhouse effect
Q3) By combining three oxygen atoms, a/an ________________ layer formed in Earth's atmosphere, which absorbs UV photons.
Q4) Earth's core is mostly ___________ as indicated by the absence of S waves.
A)solid
B)liquid
C)gas
D)solid and gas
E)solid, liquid, and gas
Q5) What property do greenhouse gases have that allow them to warm a planet
Q6) The presence of breccias among the lunar rock samples shows that A)volcanism did not occur on the Moon.
B)molten lava once flowed over the lunar surface.
C)the crust must have been made of anorthosite.
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D)water once existed on the Moon in the form of small lakes and streams.
E)the lunar surface was fragmented by meteorite impacts.
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Chapter 17: Mercury, Venus, and Mars
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Q1) Mercury is thought to have shrunk when it for forming.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Lobate scarps are only found on Mercury
A)True
B)False
Q3) Venus is the planet closest to Earth in mass.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Besides Earth, which of the terrestrial planets and/or their satellites show(s) evidence for the possible existence of liquid water flowing on its surface in the past
Q5) Why did the atmosphere of Venus develop differently from that of Earth
Q6) Astronomers on Earth are able to measure the rotation of Venus by using optical telescopes to watch surface markings as rotation carries them across the disk of Venus.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The two moons of Mars are known as ____________________ and ____________________.
Page 20
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Chapter 18: The Outer Solar System
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Q1) The ____________ was a large cyclonic storm in the atmosphere of Neptune observed by Voyager 2.
Q2) What observations suggest that Triton has had an active crust
Q3) What do astronomers think is the cause of the active volcanism occurring on Jupiter's moon Io
Q4) Describe the belt-zone circulation on Jupiter.
Q5) Which moon of the Jovian planets has a thick, hazy atmosphere
A)Io
B)Triton
C)Europa
D)Titan
Q6) Eris, Sedna, Quaoar, and Orcus are KBOs and therefore don't meet the definition of a planet.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Discuss why astronomers no longer consider Pluto a planet.
Q8) Discuss the ring particles orbiting Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune.
Q9) The rings of ____________ were discovered when they occulted a star.
Q10) Pluto is no longer classified as a planet; instead it is classified as a(n)
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Chapter 19: Meteorites, Asteroids, and Comets
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Q1) What evidence do we have that the orbits of the asteroids are modified by the gravitational influences of the planets
Q2) The density of Comet Halley was found to be about 0.2 g/cm3. This implies that
Comet Halley
A)is composed of about 50% rock and 50% frozen water and methane.
B)is loosely packed ices with a small amount of rocky material.
C)formed in the inner solar system and was ejected by Jupiter to the Kuiper belt.
D)is really an S-type asteroid.
E)was once a moon of Neptune and was ripped away by a large impact.
Q3) A(n) ____________ is produced when Earth passes through the debris left by a comet when it passed through the inner solar system.
Q4) One currently accepted theory suggests that the bodies in the Oort cloud formed
A)near the present orbits of the terrestrial planets and were then ejected by them. B)near the present orbits of the Jovian planets and were then ejected by them.
C)right there in the Oort cloud very far from the Sun.
Q5) Asteroids that cross Earth's orbit and could hit Earth are known as _____________.
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Chapter 20: Astrobiology: Life on Other Worlds
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Q1) SETI searches for aliens.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Using the above timeline, when did the Cambrian explosion occur
A)500 million years ago
B)600 million years ago
C)540 million years ago
D)670 million years ago
Q3) The wavelengths that are most likely for communication with other civilizations are those in the water hole.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Earth has not been visited by aliens, according to your textbook.
A)True
B)False
Q5) All life on Earth is based on carbon chemistry.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain which noise is found and which noise is eliminated in the water hole.
Q7) The Miller experiment succeeded in creating ____________.
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