Sports Science
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Sports Science explores the scientific principles underlying physical activity, athletic performance, and human movement. This course covers key topics such as anatomy, physiology, biomechanics, nutrition, psychology, and the application of scientific methods to optimize training, prevent injuries, and enhance overall well-being. Students will gain an understanding of how the body responds and adapts to exercise, the role of technology in sports, and the latest research trends shaping the future of athletic performance and sports health.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Anatomy and Physiology 14th Edition by Gerard
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Page 2
J. Tortora
Chapter 1: An Introduction to the Human Body
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Q1) Which of the following anatomical terms refers to the thumb?
A)pollex
B)tarsal
C)hallux
D)volar
E)carpal
Answer: A
Q2) List the eleven organ systems of the human body.
Answer: The eleven organ systems of the human body include the integumentary,skeletal,muscular,nervous,digestive,urinary,respiratory,immune and lymphatic,cardiovascular,endocrine,and reproductive systems.
Q3) An embryonic stem cell undergoes _____ to become a neuron.
A)catabolism
B)growth
C)reproduction
D)anabolism
E)differentiation
Answer: E
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Q1) A chemical reaction involves interactions between the _____ of two different atoms.
A)neutrons
B)protons
C)isotopes
D)valence electrons
E)ions
Answer: D
Q2) What is the difference between atomic mass,mass number and atomic number?
Answer: Atomic number is the number of protons found in the nucleus of an atom.Atomic mass is the weighted average mass of all naturally occurring isotopes of the atom.Mass number is the sum of protons and neutrons found in an atom.
Q3) This type of lipid is used by the body for insulation.
A)phospholipids
B)triglycerides
C)bile salts
D)sex hormones
E)carotenes
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Q1) The following is a particular sequence of base triplet on a DNA molecule: ATG.What is the corresponding codon for the mRNA?
A)TAC
B)GUA
C)GTA
D)CTA
E)UAC
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following membrane-enclosed organelles can engulf a worn-out organelle,digest its chemical components,and recycle those digested components?
A)peroxisomes
B)mitochondria
C)proteasome
D)ribosomes
E)lysosomes
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Q1) Which type of membrane lines a body cavity that does not open directly to the exterior and the organs contained in that body cavity?
A)Cutaneous membrane
B)Serous membrane
C)Mucous membrane
D)Basement membrane
E)Synovial membrane
Q2) Which of the following is a location where adipose tissue is commonly found?
A)Subcutaneous layer deep to the skin
B)Lining the chambers of the heart
C)Surrounding the brain
D)Inside the ear canal
E)In the cartilage found in joints
Q3) Which of the following types of fibers are commonly found in the extracellular matrix of connective tissue?
A)Elastic
B)Reticular
C)Collagen
D)All of these answer choices are correct.
E)None of these answer choices are correct.
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System Unit Ii: Principles of
Support and Movement
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Q1) From which of the primary germ layers of the embryo does the epidermis of the skin develop?
A)Endoderm
B)Ectoderm
C)Mesoderm
D)All of these choices are correct.
E)Both endoderm and ectoderm.
Q2) Which of the following is a mixture of triglycerides,cholesterol,proteins and inorganic salts?
A)Sweat
B)Lanugo
C)Vellus
D)Sebum
E)Mucus
Q3) Which epidermal cell has a role in immunity and disease resistance?
A)Intraepidermal macrophages (Langerhans cells)
B)Keratinocytes
C)Melanocytes
D)Tactile epithelial cells (Merkel cells)
E)Podocytes
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Chapter 6: The Skeletal System: Bone Tissue
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Q1) Briefly describe the processes by which bone increases in length and diameter.
Q2) Which of the following statements about bone remodeling is FALSE?
A)It occurs throughout your lifetime.
B)It involves bone resorption.
C)It involves bone deposition.
D)It occurs at different rates at different locations.
E)It occurs at a faster rate in compact bone than spongy bone.
Q3) Which type of fracture is considered a partial fracture and is only seen in children?
A)open
B)comminuted
C)impacted
D)greenstick
E)stress
Q4) What is another name for the shaft of a long bone?
A)diaphysis
B)epiphysis
C)metaphysis
D)periosteum
E)marrow
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Chapter 7: The Skeletal System: the Axial Skeleton
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Q1) Which of the following bones is NOT part of the axial skeleton?
A)Hyoid
B)Ribs
C)Vertebrae
D)Carpals
E)Sternum
Q2) Bones in the following area protect the brain.
A)Cranium
B)Vertebral column
C)Sacrum
D)Face
E)Ribcage
Q3) Which bones form the zygomatic arch?
A)temporal and zygomatic
B)sphenoid and maxilla
C)temporal and mandible
D)temporal and frontal
E)temporal and parietal
Q4) Briefly describe the five categories of bones found in the human body based on the shape of the bones.
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System: the Appendicular Skeleton
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Q1) Which process on the femur serves as an attachment point for tendons of several thigh muscles?
A)Gluteal tuberosity
B)Linea aspera
C)Medial epicondyle
D)Both gluteal tuberosity and linea aspera
E)Both linea aspera and medial epicondyle
Q2) During embryonic and fetal develop,most skeletal tissues arise from A)the neurocranium.
B)the notochord.
C)mesenchymal cells.
D)endoderm.
E)none of these choices are correct.
Q3) The neurocranium gives rise to bones of the A)upper limbs
B)lower limbs
C)face
D)ribcage
E)skull
Q4) Name the bones that are included in each upper limb.
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Q1) In which type of synovial joint does a rounded or pointed surface on one bone articulate with a ring formed partly by another bone and partly by a ligament?
A)Pivot joint
B)Planar joint
C)Hinge joint
D)Ball-and-socket joint
E)Saddle joint
Q2) What type of special movement occurs in your clavicles at your acromioclavicular and sternoclavicular joints when you cross your arms in front of your body?
A)Protraction
B)Retraction
C)Inversion
D)Eversion
E)Supination
Q3) What unique characteristics would a person who is "double-jointed" possess?
Q4) Briefly describe what is happening when a person "cracks their knuckles".
Q5) List the three structural categories of joints and briefly describe the criteria used for structural classification of joints.
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Q1) Which of the following types of muscle tissue contract when excited by their own autorhythmic muscle fibers?
A)cardiac muscle
B)slow twitch oxidative skeletal muscle
C)multi-unit smooth muscle
D)fast twitch glycolytic skeletal muscle
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q2) This is the outermost layer of connective tissue surrounding a skeletal muscle.
A)tendon
B)ligament
C)endomysium
D)epimysium
E)perimysium
Q3) In a neuromuscular junction,the effect of acetylcholine (ACh)binding to receptors on the motor end plate lasts only briefly due to
A)rapid uptake of the ACh into the myofiber.
B)endocytosis of the ACh receptor into the myofiber.
C)rapid destruction of ACh in the synaptic cleft by acetylcholinesterase.
D)rapid destruction of ACh in the synaptic cleft by monoamine oxidase.
E)diffusion of the ACh out of the synaptic cleft.
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System Unit Iii: Control Systems of the Human Body
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Q1) Most muscles cross at least one A)tendon
B)joint
C)bone
D)ligament
E)body plane
Q2) The muscle that serves as the "prime mover" during a movement is called the A)antagonist.
B)agonist.
C)synergist.
D)asynergist.
E)fixator.
Q3) Contraction of this muscle presses the cheeks against the teeth and lips as would be observed in whistling,blowing or sucking.
A)buccinator
B)zygomaticus
C)frontalis
D)epicranius
E)occipitalis
Q4) Briefly describe four main benefits of stretching before exercising.
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Q1) A polarized cell
A)has a charge imbalance across its membrane.
B)includes most cells of the body.
C)exhibits a membrane potential.
D)includes most cells of the body and exhibits a membrane potential.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q2) Which type of depression results in an individual with a manic-depressive illness.
A)major depression.
B)dysthymia.
C)bipolar disorder.
D)seasonal affective disorder.
E)all of these disorders.
Q3) Schwann's cells begin to form myelin sheaths around axons in the peripheral nervous system
A)when neurons are injured.
B)during fetal development.
C)after birth.
D)only in response to electrical stimulation by neuroglial cells.
E)during the early onset of Alzheimer's disease.
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Q1) Describe the cross-sectional anatomy of the spinal cord.
Q2) Which branch of a spinal nerve serves the deep muscles and skin of the posterior surface of the trunk?
A)Meningeal branch
B)Rami communicantes
C)Brachial plexus
D)Posterior ramus
E)Anterior ramus
Q3) A somatic spinal reflex that involves one effector muscle being stimulated while the opposing muscle is inhibited is called _____ innervation.
A)reversal
B)relaxed
C)representative
D)reciprocal
E)relegated
Q4) Identify and describe the function of each of the components of a spinal reflex arc.
Q5) Describe the basic anatomy of a spinal nerve plexus.
Q6) Describe the gross external anatomy of the spinal cord.
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) A deep indentation found along the medial plane that separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres is called the
A)septum pellucidum.
B)transverse fissure.
C)tentorium cerebelli.
D)corpus callosum.
E)longitudinal fissure.
Q2) Which fingerlike projections found in the dural venous sinuses reabsorb cerebrospinal fluid?
A)Choroid plexuses
B)Microvilli
C)Arachnoid villi
D)Dural villi
E)Lemnisci
Q3) Which of the following is a branch of the trigeminal (V)nerve?
A)Opthalmic nerve
B)Maxillary nerve
C)Mandibular nerve
D)All of these are branches of the trigeminal (V)nerve
E)None of these are branches of the trigeminal (V)nerve
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following terms is used to designate an effector that is innervated by both the parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions of the ANS?
A)Preganglionic stimulation
B)Biganglion excitation
C)Multi-autonomic output
D)Bipolar innervation
E)Dual innervation
Q2) Autonomic motor neurons regulate visceral activities by
1)increasing activities in effector tissue.
2)decreasing activities in effector tissue.
3)changing the direction of impulse conduction across synapses.
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)3 only
D)Both 1 and 2
E)None of these choices
Q3) Describe the possible ways in which the axon of a sympathetic preganglionic neuron connects with postganglionic neurons after it reaches the sympathetic trunk ganglia.
Q4) Explain how blood flow to tissues changes during the fight-or-flight response.
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Chapter 16: Sensory, Motor and Integrative Systems
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Q1) The process of sensation begins in a _____,which can be either a primary sensory neuron or a separate cell.
A)sensory receptor cell.
B)signal transducer cell.
C)secondary sensory neuron.
D)effector cell.
E)association neuron.
Q2) Which of the following does NOT occur during sleep?
A)Sympathetic division of ANS is stimulated.
B)Decreased heart rate.
C)Decreased blood pressure.
D)Skeletal muscle tone decreases.
E)Dream during REM sleep.
Q3) What category of receptor cell is used to sense light?
A)photoreceptor
B)mechanoreceptor
C)thermoreceptor
D)chemoreceptor
E)osmoreceptor
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Q1) List and briefly describe the three processes that are used by the eye to form a clear image of object on the retina.
Q2) From which of the following layers of the developing embryo do the eyes develop?
A)endoderm
B)mesoderm
C)ectoderm
D)more than one layer contributes
E)none of these choices
Q3) Which of the following structures contains otoliths (ear stones)?
A)macula of the saccule
B)cupula of the crista
C)tectorial membrane of the organ of Corti
D)basilar membrane of the cochlear duct
E)tympanic membrane
Q4) The first step in the visual transduction process that occurs in the retina is
A)activation of amacrine cells.
B)absorption of scattered light by the pigmented epithelium.
C)interruption of the dark current.
D)absorption of light by photopigments.
E)generation of action potentials in the optic nerve.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System Unit Iv: Maintenance of the Human Body
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Q1) Which of the following hormones promotes increases in the basal metabolic rate (BMR)?
A)Insulin
B)Adrenocorticotropic hormone
C)Glucagon
D)Thyroid hormone
E)Calcitonin
Q2) Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol?
A)Leutinizing hormone
B)Prolactin
C)Insulin-like growth factors
D)Melanocyte-stimulating hormone
E)Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Q3) Endocrine tissues that secrete steroid hormones are derived from A)mesoderm.
B)endoderm.
C)ectoderm.
D)a combination of two or more layers.
E)none of the layers that are listed.
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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: the Blood
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Q1) Which of the following blood cells phagocytizes antigen-antibody complexes and are effective against parasitic worms?
A)Eosinophil
B)Monocyte
C)Lymphocyte
D)Basophil
E)Neutrophil
Q2) Which of the following formed elements in blood are removed by fixed macrophages in the spleen and liver after only 5 to 9 days in the circulation?
A)erythrocytes
B)thrombocytes
C)monocytes
D)basophils
E)eosinophils
Q3) List and briefly describe the three mechanisms used to reduce blood loss from a damaged blood vessel.
Q4) List and briefly describe the major functions of blood.
Q5) Why does damaged endothelium present an increased risk of blood clotting?
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Chapter 20: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart
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Q1) Which part of the brain contains the cardiovascular center that regulates heart rate?
A)Midbrain
B)Cerebrum
C)Medulla oblongata
D)Cerebellum
E)Thalamus
Q2) What is the function of the foramen ovale during fetal life?
A)Allowing blood to flow directly from the right atrium into the left atrium.
B)Allowing blood to flow directly from the right ventricle into the left ventricle.
C)Serves as a valve in the vena cava to regulate venous blood flow.
D)Prevents back flow of blood from aorta into the left ventricle.
E)Prevents back flow of blood from pulmonary trunk into the right ventricle.
Q3) Define arrhythmia and discuss different categories of arrhythmias.
Q4) Why is the myocardium of the left ventricle thicker than the myocardium of the right ventricle?
Q5) Explain how the heart pumps blood into two separate closed circuits that are arranged in series.
Q6) Briefly describe why cardiac tissue cannot repair itself after damage?
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Chapter 21: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels and Hemodynamics
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Q1) Which of the following would NOT occur in response to hypovolemic shock?
A)Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone (RAA)system.
B)Secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
C)Activation of the sympathetic division of the ANS.
D)Release of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP).
E)Release of local vasodilators.
Q2) Which of the following would NOT result in an increase in systemic vascular resistance?
A)Decreased diameter of systemic arterioles
B)Increased blood viscosity
C)Decreased length of the systemic circulatory route
D)Increased vasoconstriction of systemic arterioles
E)Increased red blood cell count
Q3) Which of the following blood vessels carries blood away from the heart to other organs?
A)arteries
B)capillaries
C)venules
D)arterioles
E)veins
Page 23
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System, Nonspecific Resistance to Disease, and Immunity
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Q1) Which of these provides a non-specific cellular disease resistance mechanism?
A)Macrophages
B)T lymphocytes
C)B lymphocytes
D)Memory B cells
E)Stratified squamous epithelium
Q2) Which cells increase the permeability of blood vessels by releasing histamine?
A)neutrophils
B)eosinophils
C)lymphocytes
D)mast cells
E)macrophages
Q3) Which chemical(s)do NOT induce vasodilation and permeability (increased fluid flow)to an infection site?
A)Histamines
B)Kinins
C)Perforin
D)Leukotrienes
E)Complement
Q4) Describe the barriers used in innate defense.
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Q1) Where is the rhythmicity center for respiration?
A)in the medulla
B)in the pons
C)in the cerebrum
D)in the hypothalamus
E)in the cerebellum
Q2) Which of the following indicates the direction of diffusion of gases at the alveoli of the lungs?
A)Oxygen into blood,Carbon dioxide into blood
B)Oxygen out of blood,Carbon dioxide into blood
C)Oxygen into blood,Carbon dioxide out of blood
D)Oxygen out of blood,Carbon dioxide out of blood
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a factor that the rate of pulmonary and systemic gas exchange depends on?
A)Partial pressure difference of the gases
B)Surface area for gas exchange
C)Diffusion distance
D)Molecular weight and solubility of the gases
E)Force of contraction of diaphragm
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Q1) Which of following processes is the primary function of the mouth?
A)Ingestion
B)Secretion
C)Mixing and propulsion
D)Absorption
E)None of these choices
Q2) Which portion of the peritoneum attaches the liver to the anterior abdominal wall and diaphragm?
A)Greater omentum
B)Falciform ligament
C)Lesser omentum
D)Mesentery
E)Mesocolon
Q3) Which of the following processes is the primary function of the villi of the small intestine?
A)Ingestion
B)Secretion
C)Mixing and propulsion
D)Absorption
E)None of these choices
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Chapter 25: Metabolism
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Q1) Oxidation is
A)The removal of protons
B)The removal of electrons
C)The addition of protons
D)The addition of electrons
E)None of these choices
Q2) Antioxidant vitamins
A)Are found in plasma membranes
B)Are vitamin derivatives
C)Can inactivate oxygen free radicals
D)Are all excreted in feces
E)Are all stored in adipose cells
Q3) Food induced thermogenesis
A)Accounts for 30% of total energy expended
B)Is known as insensible loss
C)Is inhibited by the hypothalamus
D)Is the opposite of ketosis
E)None of these choices
Q4) Why are 10 of the amino acids in the human body designated as essential amino acids?
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Q1) Candida albicans and E.coli are which type of abnormal constituent of urine:
A)ketone bodies
B)erythrocytes
C)casts
D)microbes
E)urobilinogen
Q2) An analysis of the physical,chemical,and microscopic properties of urine is called
A)urinalysis
B)filtration study
C)concentration study
D)diuretic
E)osmolarity
Q3) This is a nephron process that results in a substance in blood entering the already formed filtrate.
A)reabsorption
B)filtration
C)secretion
D)excretion
E)none of these choices
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Chapter 27: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Homeostasis
Unit V: Continuity
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Q1) Which of the following is the most common cause of metabolic alkalosis?
A)Hemorrhage
B)Vomiting
C)Pneumothroax
D)Diabetes
E)Cancer
Q2) Normal blood Na<sup>+</sup> levels are 136-148 mEq/L.An elderly patient has a blood Na<sup>+</sup> of 105 mEq/L.Describe the patient's condition and the signs and symptoms that usually accompany that condition.Be sure to include the functions of Na<sup>+</sup> in the body in your answer.
Q3) In extracellular fluid the most abundant cation is
A)Na<sup>+</sup>
B)Cl<sup>-</sup>
C)K<sup>+</sup>
D)HPO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>
E)HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
Q4) Why is a small amount of table salt included in intravenous or oral rehydration therapy?
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Q5) Describe the fluid and electrolyte disorders to which the elderly are particularly susceptible.
Chapter 28: The Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Which of the following structures are located inferior to the prostate on either side of the membranous urethra within the deep muscles of the perineum?
A)bulbourethral gland
B)Seminal vesicles
C)Ejaculatory ducts
D)Urethral ducts
E)Prostate
Q2) The straight tubules in the testis lead into the A)Efferent ducts
B)Afferent ducts
C)Rete testis
D)Ductus epididymis
E)Epididymis
Q3) Which cells secrete testosterone?
A)Sertoli cells
B)Spermatogenic cells
C)Leydig cells
D)Oogonia
E)Chief cells
Q4) Describe the positive feedback loop involved in ovulation.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
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Q1) Which condition listed is a sex chromosome aneuploidy,usually due to trisomy XXY?
A)Emesis gravidarum
B)Deformation
C)Turner's syndrome
D)Breech presentation
E)Klinefelter's syndrome
Q2) A Barr body
A)Is an inactivated X chromosome
B)Cannot be stained
C)Are transcribed and translated
D)Is seen in males
E)Is only found in humans
Q3) In a heterozygous individual for a certain trait,the dominant allele gives syndactylism.What is the masked,recessive trait in this individual?
A)Normal vision
B)Brachydactyly
C)Normal digits
D)Polydactyly
E)Straight thumb
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