Sports Science Exam
Solutions
Course Introduction
Sports Science is an interdisciplinary field that explores the scientific principles underpinning physical activity, exercise, and athletic performance. The course covers topics such as exercise physiology, biomechanics, sports nutrition, psychology, and injury prevention, providing students with a comprehensive understanding of how the human body responds and adapts to physical activity. Through theoretical knowledge and practical applications, students learn how to assess athletic performance, design effective training programs, and promote health and well-being in various populations. This course lays the groundwork for careers in coaching, athletic training, sports management, and fitness instruction, while also encouraging scientific inquiry and critical thinking skills.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology 9th Edition by Patton
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Organization of the Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lungs are located in the:
A) thoracic cavity.
B) mediastinum.
C) abdominal cavity.
D) cranial cavity.
Answer: A
Q2) The abdominal region in which the appendix is found is the:
A) hypogastric.
B) right iliac.
C) right lumbar.
D) right hypochondriac.
Answer: A
Q3) The number of abdominal regions is:
A) three.
B) five.
C) seven.
D) nine.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A one-celled organism whose DNA is organized into a nucleus that can parasitize human tissue
A)Prion
B)Tumor
C)Fungi
D)Gene mutation
E)Bacteria
F)Virus
G)Protozoa
Answer: G
Q2) The body's thermostat is located in the:
A) heart.
B) cerebellum.
C) pituitary.
D) hypothalamus.
Answer: D
Q3) Give an example of a system, either living or nonliving, that is designed to maintain a relatively constant condition by using a negative-feedback mechanism. Explain briefly how the system works to accomplish this.
Answer: Answers will vary.
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Chapter 3: Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name and briefly describe the types of chemical bonds discussed in this chapter.
Answer: The types of chemical bonds discussed in this chapter are ionic bonds, covalent bonds, and metallic bonds.
Ionic bonds occur when one atom transfers electrons to another, resulting in the formation of positively and negatively charged ions that are attracted to each other.
Covalent bonds occur when atoms share electrons, creating a strong bond between the atoms.
Metallic bonds occur in metals, where the outer electrons of the atoms are free to move throughout the material, creating a "sea" of electrons that hold the metal atoms together.
Q2) In a formula for a chemical reaction, the substances on the right of the arrow are referred to as products.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Biomolecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) Types of lipids that are called tissue hormones
A)RNA
B)DNA
C)Carbohydrate
D)Fat
E)Steroid
F)Protein
G)Prostaglandins
H)ATP
Q2) Adenine and thymine are referred to as purine bases, which are important constituents of a DNA molecule.
A)True
B)False
Q3) DNA molecules are the largest molecules in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Both phospholipids and steroids are found in cell membranes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Name and describe the structural levels of protein.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The functions of the nucleus are regulated by RNA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cell fiber that can be found in muscle cells
A)Microtubules
B)Intermediate filaments
C)Microfilaments
D)Centrosomes
E)Cilia
F)Flagella
G)Microvilli
H)Desmosomes
I)Tight junctions
J)Gap junctions
K)Primary cilium
L)Centrioles
Q3) The size of a cell's nucleolus is indirectly related to the amount of protein the cell produces.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Cell Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Materials can be moved from a low concentration to a high concentration through:
A) facilitated diffusion.
B) filtration.
C) osmosis.
D) active transport.
Q2) Digestive enzymes belong to a group of enzymes called hydrases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All enzyme names end with the suffix "-ase."
A)True
B)False
Q4) In aerobic respiration, the function of oxygen is to combine with:
A) pyruvic acid in glycolysis.
B) NADH in the citric acid cycle.
C) electrons and hydrogen at the end of the electron transport system.
D) lactic acid in glycolysis.
Q5) The sodium-potassium pump in the cell membrane moves potassium into the cell and sodium out of the cell.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Cell Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the original DNA code was ACG, the tRNA that would transfer the correct amino acid would have which sequence of nucleotides?
A) UCG
B) ACG
C) UGC
D) Not enough information is given to answer the question.
Q2) Process that occurs when the double strands of a DNA segment separate and RNA nucleotides pair with DNA nucleotides
A)mRNA
B)tRNA
C)Transcription
D)Translation
E)RNAi
Q3) Normal meiosis results in daughter cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the process of mitosis. Explain what occurs in each step.
Q5) Describe the process of translation. What is RNAi?
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Chapter 8: Introduction to Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name and briefly describe the four principal types of tissue in the body.
Q2) The membrane lining the wall of the abdominal cavity is the:
A) visceral pleura.
B) parietal pleura.
C) visceral peritoneum.
D) parietal peritoneum.
Q3) Fibers in the extracellular matrix can include collagen and elastin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When epithelial tissue is badly injured, a thick scar, or keloid, may develop.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A type of abnormal gene that seems to cause cancer is called an oncogene.
A)True
B)False
Q6) An example of a cutaneous membrane is the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Briefly describe cutaneous membranes and mucous membranes, and give the location of each in the body.
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Chapter 9: Tissue Types
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most widespread and abundant tissue in the body is:
A) epithelial.
B) connective.
C) muscle.
D) nervous.
Q2) The type of cell found in connective tissue that releases histamine is a(n):
A) fibroblast.
B) macrophage.
C) mast cell.
D) areolar cell.
Q3) Stratified columnar epithelium is the most common type of epithelium and is found in many areas throughout the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why is blood considered to be the most unusual type of connective tissue?
Q5) Stratified transitional epithelium, such as is found in the urinary bladder, allows for distention.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Differentiate among the three types of cartilage: hyaline, fibrous, and elastic.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the healing of a wound, fibroblasts in the dermis quickly reproduce and begin forming a dense mass of new connective tissue fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Skin thermal receptors provide important information to the heat-regulating centers in the brain, resulting in autonomic regulation of body temperature.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is not part of a hair?
A) Shaft
B) Root
C) Lanugo
D) Medulla
Q4) Lanugo is usually found on a fetus or newborn.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The skin surface area can be as large as 20 square feet in the average adult.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Skeletal Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Weight-bearing exercises will tend to increase the likelihood of osteoporosis in the elderly.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Interstitial growth of cartilage most often occurs during adulthood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The patella or kneecap is the only sesamoid bone ever found in the human body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One function of bone is to provide a place to make blood cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Most of the matrix in bone is composed of inorganic rather than organic material.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The body contains more spongy bone than it does compact bone.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which bone makes up the forehead and the anterior part of the calvaria?
A) Occipital
B) Frontal
C) Parietal
D) Temporal
Q2) The cribriform plate is part of the sphenoid bone.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The upper extremities and the lower extremities are subdivisions of the axial skeleton.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The adult skeleton consists of about 206 separate bones.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The occipital bone forms how many joints with other bones?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lesser trochanter is a marking of the tibia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Radial tuberosity
A)Femur
B)Fibula
C)Humerus
D)Coxal
E)Radius
F)Scapula
G)Tibia
H)Ulna
Q3) The only bone of the wrist that is evident from the outside is the lunate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A person with a fractured patella would expect discomfort in the:
A) elbow.
B) knee.
C) head.
D) ankle.
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Chapter 14: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a structural classification of a joint would be a fibrous joint.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The gliding movement is the simplest of all movements.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Synchondrosis joints between the ribs and sternum allow for expansion of the chest cavity during breathing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The joints between the radius and carpal bones are examples of gliding joints.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A sprain causes damage to:
A) ligaments.
B) tendons.
C) cartilage.
D) all of the above.
Q6) What purpose do ligaments serve?
Q7) Differentiate among uniaxial, biaxial, and multiaxial joints.
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Chapter 15: Axial Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tendons are continuous with the layer of connective tissue called the epimysium.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Flex(es) the head (prayer muscle)
A)Buccinator
B)Corrugator supercilii
C)Epicranius
D)Orbicularis oculi
E)Pterygoid
F)Sternocleidomastoid
Q3) The brachioradialis muscle is an example of a _____ muscle.
A) convergent
B) parallel
C) fusiform
D) pennate
Q4) Fixator muscles would most likely be found at the origin points of muscles rather than at the insertion points of muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the way in which you could deduce the action of a muscle.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Appendicular Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) The muscle that raises or lowers the shoulders or shrugs them is the:
A) deltoid.
B) latissimus dorsi.
C) trapezius.
D) pectoralis minor.
Q2) Which of the following is not a muscle that moves the foot?
A) Sartorius
B) Peroneus longus
C) Tibialis anterior
D) Soleus
Q3) The respiratory, digestive, circulatory, excretory, and endocrine systems all contribute to the ability of muscles to maintain posture.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following body systems assists the muscles in maintaining posture?
A) Digestive
B) Endocrine
C) Excretory
D) All of the above
Q5) What is tenosynovitis, and how is it caused?
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Chapter 17: Muscle Contraction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The neurotransmitter(s) secreted at the motor end plates of skeletal muscles is(are):
A) dopamine.
B) norepinephrine.
C) acetylcholine.
D) any of the above.
Q2) The chief function of the T-tubules is to:
A) provide nutrients to the muscle fiber.
B) allow for the fiber to contract.
C) allow for electrical signals to move deeper into the cell.
D) allow for the generation of new muscle fibers.
Q3) Muscles usually contract to about _____ of their length.
A) 30%
B) 40%
C) 80%
D) 90%
Q4) The longer the initial length of a muscle, the stronger the contraction of that muscle can be.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Nervous System Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cell body and perikaryon are interchangeable terms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bundles of intermediate filaments in the neuron
A)Cell body
B)Axon
C)Nodes of Ranvier
D)Dendrite
E)Myelin
F)Neurofibrils
Q3) One distinction between ipsilateral and contralateral reflexes is that contralateral reflexes have interneurons and ipsilateral reflexes do not.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most injuries to the brain and spinal cord cause permanent damage.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What type of neuron is always a sensory receptor?
Q6) Name two types of tissue that are effectors.
Q7) Describe the somatic and autonomic nervous systems.
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Chapter 19: Nerve Signaling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain both temporal and spatial summation.
Q2) Explain what characteristics of the neuron affect the speed at which action potentials are conducted. What is the range of speed at which an impulse can be conducted?
Q3) When an impulse reaches a synapse:
A) two nerve fibers come in direct contact.
B) impulses will pass in either direction.
C) an electrical spark will jump the gap.
D) chemical transmitters are released.
Q4) During the nerve impulse, the internal charge of the neuron becomes briefly positive.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An inhibitory postsynaptic potential is produced through the hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Action potentials usually occur in the axon of the cell.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The spinal cord ends at vertebra L1 in a narrowed area called the:
A) cauda equina.
B) filum terminale.
C) conus medullaris.
D) funiculi terminale.
Q2) The deepest border of the subdural space is the arachnoid membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The two "colorful" structures in the brain, the red nucleus and the substantia nigra, are located in the midbrain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most axons release neurotransmitters; however, some axons in the hypothalamus release hormones.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Once a synapse is established in the brain, it remains for life.
A)True
B)False
Q6) How are the cerebral nuclei involved in Parkinson disease?
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Peripheral Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) There is almost no overlap in the dermatomes of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following cranial nerves are involved in proprioception except the: A) vagus.
B) hypoglossal.
C) accessory.
D) abducens.
Q3) The trochlear nerve stimulates movement of the eye.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The spinal ganglion is located only on the ventral nerve root.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The Babinski reflex is evoked via stimulation of the outer sole of the foot and will cause a normal infant to extend the great toe.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Why do the right and left phrenic nerves have considerable clinical interest?
Q7) Briefly describe the structure of the spinal nerves.
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Chapter 22: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the function of monoamine oxidase as related to the autonomic nervous system.
Q2) Preganglionic neurons conduct impulses from the brain or spinal cord to an autonomic ganglion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The neurotransmitter released by both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons is acetylcholine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is not true about sympathetic postganglionic neurons?
A) They are usually longer than preganglionic neurons.
B) They produce acetylcholine.
C) They produce norepinephrine.
D) They have acetylcholine receptors on their dendrites.
Q5) Biofeedback involves willful control of specific effectors normally controlled only autonomically.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Contrast somatic motor pathways with autonomic pathways.
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Chapter 26: Endocrine Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) T is the thyroid hormone released in greatest quantity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which hormone stimulates uterine contractions?
A) Oxytocin
B) FSH
C) LH
D) Both B and C
Q3) One of the few hormones that functions on a positive-feedback loop is:
A) ADH.
B) calcitonin.
C) oxytocin.
D) insulin.
Q4) Glucocorticoids are essential for maintaining a normal blood pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The pineal gland is part of two systems, the endocrine system and the nervous system.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following Rh factor combinations could cause agglutination of an infant's red blood cells?
A) Mother-, father+, infant+
B) Mother-, father-, infant-
C) Mother+, father-, infant+
D) Mother+, father+, infant-
Q2) Define hematocrit. How is it determined?
Q3) Monocyte
A)105-120 days
B)10-12 days
C)Months
D)Days to years
E)Hours to 3 days
Q4) One reason that blood is effective in heat regulation is that it has a high specific heat.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Name and give the functions of each type of granulocyte.
Q6) Name and give the functions of each type of agranulocyte.
Q7) Name and give the function of the three blood-formed elements.
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Chapter 28: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) The last wave in an ECG terminates the cardiac cycle; because of this, it is called the T wave.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Heart sounds are made by the closing of AV and semilunar valves.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Blood passing through a semilunar valve will enter an artery.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The pulmonary and aortic valves are also called _____ valves.
A) cuspid
B) semilunar
C) aortic
D) pulmonary
Q5) During the normal cardiac cycle, there is never a time when both the atria and ventricles are relaxed.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Name and describe the three layers of the heart wall.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Collagen fibers function to keep the lumen of the blood vessel open.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Outer connective tissue layer of a blood vessel
A)Arteries
B)Capillaries
C)Pulmonary circulation
D)Systemic circulation
E)Tunica adventitia
F)Tunica intima
G)Tunica media
H)Veins
Q3) Smooth muscle is found in all parts of the vascular system except the capillaries.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the anatomy of the circle of Willis. Why is this an advantageous anatomical configuration?
Q5) Describe the fetal circulation. Also, describe the changes in circulation at birth.
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Chapter 30: Circulation of the Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) A collection of mechanisms that influence the circulation of the blood is the definition for:
A) baroreceptors.
B) hemodynamics.
C) minute volume.
D) the Fick law.
Q2) The difference between systolic and diastolic pressures is termed pulse pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following tasks must the circulation control mechanism accomplish?
A) Maintain circulation.
B) Vary the volume and distribution of the blood circulated.
C) Make sure that all cells receive the same amount of blood to maintain nutrient and oxygen levels.
D) Both A and B are correct.
Q4) An increase in aldosterone would cause an increase in blood volume.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how the Starling law relates to cardiac output.
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Chapter 31: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cluster of lymph nodes found in the underarm and upper chest regions is referred to as _____ nodes.
A) superficial cervical
B) inguinal
C) axillary
D) superficial cubital
Q2) The "beaded" appearance of lymph vessels is caused by bands of smooth muscle tissue surrounding the vessel.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The spleen's two functions are defense against foreign microorganisms and provision of a blood reservoir.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Lymphatic vessels run parallel to veins and form frequent anastomoses with them.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Identify each of the lymphatic organs, and give a generated function for each.
Q6) Name and give the location of the major clusters of lymph nodes in the body.
Q7) Compare and contrast the structures of veins and lymphatics.
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Chapter 32: Innate Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) When pseudopods form a phagocyte, completely surrounding an organism and forming a sac around it, the structure formed is called a phagosome.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Diapedesis is the process by which microbes are marked for destruction by phagocytic cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The body identifies normal body cells by way of the unique major histocompatibility complex displayed by the cell as a surface protein.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The most numerous type of phagocyte is the macrophage.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The agent that causes tuberculosis is surrounded by a waxy layer that prevents water-soluble proteins from penetrating it. It is known that cells in the immune system have a very difficult time killing these agents through phagocytosis. Explain why this is true.
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Chapter 33: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of immunity produced by vaccination would be _____ immunity.
A) active natural
B) passive natural
C) active artificial
D) passive artificial
Q2) A person with a nonfunctioning immune system could still benefit from both natural and artificial passive immunity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The antibody commonly found in tears and saliva is:
A) IgE.
B) IgD.
C) IgM.
D) IgA.
Q4) Antibody molecules may agglutinate antigens that are on the surface of microorganisms. Explain how agglutination can help promote the destruction of microorganisms such as bacteria.
Q5) Explain how the AIDS virus seems to affect the immune system.
Q6) Explain the apparent basis for autoimmune diseases. Give two examples of such diseases.
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Chapter 34: Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) One outcome of long-term stress is a disruption in the body's ability to maintain some of its homeostatic mechanisms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The "fight-or-flight" syndrome of changes is characteristic of the exhaustion stage.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Stressors differ in different individuals and in one individual at different times.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The general adaptation syndrome includes all of the following stages except the:
A) alarm reaction.
B) immune response.
C) stage of resistance or adaptation.
D) stage of exhaustion.
Q5) The classification of stimuli as stressors or nonstressors is very precise.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement differentiates between the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the larynx and explains which one moves the larynx?
A) Intrinsic muscles have both their origin and insertion on the larynx, whereas extrinsic muscles insert on the larynx but have their origin on some other structure; neither muscle moves nor displaces the larynx as a whole.
B) Intrinsic muscles have both their origin and insertion on the larynx, whereas extrinsic muscles insert on the larynx but have their origin on some other structure; contraction of the extrinsic muscles actually moves or displaces the larynx as a whole.
C) Intrinsic muscles have both their origin and insertion on the larynx, whereas extrinsic muscles insert on the larynx but have their origin on some other structure; contraction of the intrinsic muscles actually moves or displaces the larynx as a whole.
D) Intrinsic muscles have both their origin and insertion outside of the larynx, whereas extrinsic muscles insert on the larynx but have their origin and insertions on the larynx and actually move or displace the larynx as a whole.
Q2) What is surfactant and what is its function?
Q3) List the functions of the respiratory system.
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Chapter 36: Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vital capacity is the sum of inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and expiratory reserve volume.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Name and explain the pulmonary volumes and capacities. Which of these increase and decrease as a person moves from normal breathing to forceful inspiration and expiration?
Q3) The pressure between the visceral pleura and parietal pleura must always be positive to ensure the lung can expand.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cerebral impulses are a more powerful regulator of respirations than the carbon dioxide content of the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The anatomical dead space is approximately equal to the same number of milliliters as the individual's weight in pounds.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Gas Exchange & Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) About 10% of the carbon dioxide carried in the blood is simply dissolved in the plasma.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An increase in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide decreases the affinity between hemoglobin and oxygen. This is called a right shift, or the Haldane effect.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If the PCO is greater in the cells than in the intercellular fluid, CO will remain in the cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Under usual conditions, the oxygen saturation of systemic venous blood is 75%.
A)True
B)False
Q5) According to the rate laws of chemistry, the more carbon dioxide in the blood, the more carbaminohemoglobin will be formed.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Upper Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) All the papillae on the tongue contain taste buds.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following organs has a mucosa layer composed of stratified squamous epithelium that resists abrasion?
A) Esophagus
B) Stomach
C) Small intestine
D) Large intestine
Q3) Which of the following organs has a mucosal layer that is composed of columnar epithelium with a brush border of microvilli to enhance absorption?
A) Esophagus
B) Large intestine
C) Small intestine
D) Stomach
Q4) Explain the cause of appendicitis.
Q5) Another name for the lower esophageal sphincter is the pyloric sphincter.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Lower Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) The right angle between the transverse colon and the ascending colon is the:
A) costal angle.
B) hepatic flexure.
C) left colonic bend.
D) splenic flexure.
Q2) The greater omentum is a fatty tissue covering the anterior surface of the intestines.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a function of the liver?
A) Detoxification
B) Secretion of insulin
C) Storage of iron and vitamins
D) Production of bile
Q4) What is an anatomical reason that aged individuals have a lower incidence of appendicitis than do children and young adults?
Q5) The liver occupies most of the right hypochondrium.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the structure of a typical tooth.
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Chapter 40: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enzyme that works on milk sugars
A)Amylase
B)Bile
C)Lactase
D)Maltase
E)Pepsin
F)Peptidase
G)Sucrase
H)Trypsin
I)Lipase
Q2) Chewing and swallowing are both considered mechanical digestion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During deglutition, the tongue closes off the nasopharynx.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the mechanism of absorption for water-soluble nutrients.
Q5) Vitamins A, D, E, and K depend on bile salts for their absorption.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 41: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the process of glycolysis. What is the starting material and what are the end products of the process of glycolysis?
Q2) Which of the following is not true of ATP?
A) It is a high-energy substance.
B) It is formed by the synthesis of ADP and phosphate.
C) It releases energy when split.
D) It cannot be recycled after it is broken down.
Q3) One function of lactic acid is to convert NADH back to NAD.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following minerals is important in blood cell production?
A) Magnesium
B) Iron
C) Manganese
D) Iodine
Q5) All of the following hormones control lipid metabolism except:
A) ACTH.
B) glucocorticoids.
C) epinephrine.
D) insulin.
43
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Chapter 42: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The folds in the bladder wall are called rugae.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a part of the glomerular-capsular membrane?
A) Parietal layer of Bowman capsule
B) Visceral layer of Bowman capsule
C) Glomerular endothelium
D) Basement membrane
Q3) Of all the blood pumped per minute by the heart, approximately ____ goes through the kidneys.
A) 1/5
B) 1/3
C) 1/2
D) 3/4
Q4) Kidney disease can be diagnosed by taking a tissue sample by means of a needle biopsy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how the loop of Henle establishes a solute concentration gradient from the top of the loop to the bottom of the loop.
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plasma, synovial fluid, and cerebrospinal fluid are all examples of extracellular fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Blood hydrostatic pressure tends to force fluid out of capillaries and into interstitial fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The release of aldosterone can cause an increase in the blood colloid osmotic pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Juxtaglomerular cells are located in the:
A) kidney.
B) adrenal cortex.
C) liver.
D) adrenal medulla.
Q5) Positive ions of electrolytes are cations and are attracted to a cathode. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Acid Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the respiratory compensation for a change in blood pH.
Q2) Which of the following is not a weak acid?
A) Hemoglobin
B) Oxyhemoglobin
C) Proteins
D) Na2HPO4
Q3) The chloride shift makes it possible for carbon dioxide to be buffered in the red blood cell and then carried as bicarbonate in the plasma.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hydrogen ions are continually entering the body fluids through:
A) acidic ketone bodies.
B) phosphoric acids.
C) carbonic acids.
D) all of the above.
Q5) Edith is pregnant and experiencing repeated vomiting episodes. Her obstetrician becomes concerned, admits her to the hospital, and begins intravenous administration of normal saline. How will this help Edith?
Q6) Name and explain the two types of pH control mechanisms used by the body.
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Chapter 45: Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cylindrical middle piece of a sperm provides the sperm with energy for locomotion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The structure that connects the epididymis with the ejaculatory duct is the:
A) urethra.
B) vas deferens.
C) seminal vesicle.
D) scrotum.
Q3) Which of the following is not a function of testosterone?
A) Initiation of spermatogenesis
B) Development of secondary male sex characteristics
C) Regulation of metabolism
D) Inhibition of secretion of gonadotropins
Q4) One reason androgen-binding protein is needed to make testosterone more water soluble is that testosterone is a lipid and is not very soluble in water.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the structure of spermatozoa and give the function of each part.
Q6) What is cryptorchidism? Explain the potential effect of it when not corrected.
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Chapter 46: Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The follicular phase of the menstrual cycle is the same as the:
A) ovulatory phase.
B) menstrual period.
C) postmenstrual phase.
D) postovulatory phase.
Q2) After menopause, the production of estrogen and gonadotropin drop off drastically.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The "G spot" is synonymous with the clitoris in the female.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the location, structure, and function of the uterine tube.
Q5) Which of the following is not a layer of the endometrium of the uterus?
A) Stratum myometrium
B) Stratum compactum
C) Stratum spongiosum
D) Stratum basale
Q6) Explain how the process of lactation is regulated.
Q7) Describe the structure of the uterus.
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Chapter 47: Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hormonal methods of contraception work by using the negative feedback system that controls the female reproductive cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a creature had 36 chromosomes in its normal body cells, the zygote of the creature would contain _____ chromosomes.
A) 72
B) 36
C) 18
D) an indeterminable number of
Q3) The main difference between oogenesis and spermatogenesis is that in oogenesis:
A) the primary oocytes contain 46 chromosomes.
B) the cytoplasm is equally divided among the daughter cells.
C) meiosis I does not occur.
D) only one ovum is produced from each primary oocyte, plus three polar bodies.
Q4) Explain the theories of aging discussed in this chapter.
Q5) After the oocyte is released from the ovary, it is known as an ovum.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe (or diagram) the hormone levels during pregnancy.
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Chapter 48: Genetics and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nondisjunction results in gametes that produce either trisomy or monosomy in the cells of offspring.
A)True
B)False
Q2) RNA interference, or iRNA, is being studied as a way to treat genetic disorders.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Carriers of Tay-Sachs disease have a higher resistance to: A) malaria.
B) tuberculosis.
C) cholera.
D) the toxic effects of mold growing on grain.
Q4) One form of gene therapy uses bacteria-like DNA plasmids to carry therapeutic genes to a cell.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cleft palate can be classified as both a congenital and genetic disorder. A)True B)False
Q6) Explain the principle of independent assortment.
Page 50
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