Sports Science Anatomy
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Sports Science Anatomy explores the structure and function of the human body as it relates to athletic performance and physical activity. This course covers the fundamental principles of anatomy with a focus on the musculoskeletal, cardiovascular, respiratory, and nervous systems, highlighting how these systems interact during exercise and sport. Students will gain a detailed understanding of bones, muscles, joints, and their role in movement, as well as the physiological adaptations that occur in response to training. Emphasis is placed on anatomical terminology, biomechanical analysis, and the practical application of anatomical knowledge in sports injury prevention, rehabilitation, and performance enhancement.
Recommended Textbook
Human Anatomy 4th Edition by Michael McKinley Dr
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Chapter 1: A First Look at Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The antecubital region is ______ to the brachial region.
Answer: distal
Q2) This figure shows a frontal view of a human.What does number 1 indicate?
A)Mediastinum
B)Pelvic cavity
C)Thoracic cavity
D)Pleural cavity
E)Pericardial cavity
Answer: A
Q3) Gross anatomy refers to the study of A)cells.
B)structures formed by cells.
C)structures not visible to the unaided eye.
D)structures visible to the unaided eye.
E)nasal secretions.
Answer: D
Q4) The state of equilibrium,or constant interval environment,in the body is called
Answer: homeostasis
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Chapter 2: The Cell: Basic Unit of Structure and Function
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Q1) Materials tend to move less rapidly when their concentrations are significantly different between two compartments.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Hyperplasia is defined as
A)the abnormal development of a tissue.
B)the movement or spread of malignant cells.
C)an abnormal growth of cells that invades surrounding tissue.
D)a generalized increase in the size of a part of an organ.
E)an increase in the normal number of cells within a tissue or organ.
Answer: E
Q3) The two identical cells that arise from mitosis are called ____________ cells. Answer: daughter
Q4) The subunits of ribosomes are exported outside the nucleus into the cytoplasm,where they are assembled into their finished product.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Embryology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is true regarding the process of meiosis?
A)Meiosis begins in a haploid state and concludes in the diploid condition.
B)Meiosis forms haploid daughter cells from a diploid cell.
C)Meiosis is represented by the notation: n \(\rarr\) 2n.
D)Most growth in the body is accomplished through meiosis.
E)Meiosis results in identical sex cells.
Answer: B
Q2) From which primary germ layer is the thyroid gland derived?
A)Ectoderm
B)Mesoderm
C)Endoderm
Answer: C
Q3) From which primary germ layer is the heart derived?
A)Ectoderm
B)Mesoderm
C)Endoderm
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of membrane that prevents desiccation,provides lubrication,and traps bacteria and foreign particles is
A)serous.
B)cutaneous.
C)mucous.
D)cartilaginous.
E)synovial.
Q2) The tissue type that covers surfaces and lines the inside of organs and body cavities is
A)muscle.
B)connective.
C)epithelial.
D)nervous.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q3) What type of cell is shown in this image?
A)Simple squamous cell
B)Simple cuboidal cell
C)Goblet cell
D)Macrophage
E)Basal cell
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Chapter 5: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not a function of the integument?
A)Protection
B)Water loss prevention
C)Temperature regulation
D)Synthesis of cholecalciferol (vitamin D precursor)
E)No exceptions;all are functions of the integument.
Q2) ________ glands are modified sweat glands located only in the external ear canal.
Q3) A _______ is a congenital anomaly that results in skin discoloration due to blood vessels that proliferate and form a benign tumor.
Q4) Although sweat and sebaceous glands develop from the stratum basale of the epidermis,they eventually burrow and remain in the underlying dermis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) During skin development,cuboidal cells of the periderm flatten to form the ectoderm.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Sebaceous glands discharge an oily,waxy secretion called _______.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Cartilage and Bone
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consider the classifications of bone,and examples of each.Which classification comprises bones used primarily for movement rather than protection?
A)Short bones
B)Long bones
C)Flat bones
D)Irregular bones
E)Regular bones
Q2) Which structure does not contain cartilage?
A)Larynx
B)Lung
C)Stomach
D)Knee
E)Ear
Q3) A fracture of the distal end of the radius is a _________ fracture.
Q4) Rami,trochanters,tubercles,and tuberosities are bone markings that serve as
A)articulating surfaces.
B)passageways for nerves.
C)attachments for ligaments or tendons.
D)pits or depressions to hold cartilage.
E)passageways for blood vessels.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) This figure shows a superior view of the cranial cavity.Which number indicates the crista galli?
A)1
B)3
C)9
D)10
E)The crista galli is not labeled on this figure.
Q2) The inferior articular processes of each vertebra articulate with the superior articular processes of the vertebra immediately cranial to it.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The zygomatic process of the temporal bone and the _________ process of the zygomatic bone form the zygomatic arch.
A)zygomatic
B)maxillary
C)frontal
D)temporal
E)mastoid
Q4) The roof of the cranium is called the _________,or skullcap.
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Chapter 8: Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not a site for muscle attachment on the femur?
A)Gluteal tuberosity
B)Pectineal line
C)Linea aspera
D)Greater trochanter
E)Lateral condyle
Q2) The ala terminates inferiorly at the _______ on the medial surface of the ilium.
A)anterior gluteal line
B)posterior gluteal line
C)arcuate line
D)inferior gluteal line
E)auricular surface
Q3) At what location do the three bones of the os coxae fuse?
A)Iliac crest
B)Ischial tuberosity
C)Acetabulum
D)Pelvic brim
E)Pubic symphysis
Q4) The longest,heaviest bone in the body is the ____________.
Q5) The palm of the hand is formed by the _________ bones.
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Chapter 9: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clenching the fingers to make a fist,then relaxing and straightening them is an example of __________ followed by __________.
A)flexion;extension
B)extension;flexion
C)adduction;abduction
D)abduction;adduction
E)extension;hyperextension
Q2) These figures show the coxal joint.What structure does number 6 indicate?
A)Ischiofemoral ligament
B)Iliofemoral ligament
C)Articular capsule
D)Ligament of head of femur
E)Acetabular ligament
Q3) The joint formed by the axis and atlas that permits the "no" shaking of the head is a _____ joint.
A)condylar
B)hinge
C)plane
D)pivot
E)saddle
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue and Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Second-class levers are the most common in the human body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The type of lever with the fulcrum in the middle is a ________ lever.
A)first-class
B)second-class
C)third-class
Q3) Which structures are reservoirs that store acetylcholine?
A)Synaptic vesicles
B)Synaptic clefts
C)Terminal cisternae
D)Lysosomes
E)Sarcomeres
Q4) The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber is called the ______________.
Q5) Which may occur as a result of muscle atrophy?
A)Muscle size is reduced.
B)Fibers become weaker.
C)Muscle loses tone.
D)Fibers waste away and die.
E)All of the choices are correct.
12
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Chapter 11: Axial Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the muscles listed,the only one that inserts on the hyoid bone is the A)hyoglossus.
B)palatoglossus.
C)styloglossus.
D)lateral pterygoid.
E)genioglossus.
Q2) When a person blinks she is using her
A)occipitofrontalis muscle.
B)orbicularis oris.
C)procerus.
D)orbicularis oculi.
E)depressor labii inferioris.
Q3) This figure shows the muscles of respiration.What muscle does number 2 indicate?
A)External intercostal
B)Internal intercostal
C)Scalene
D)Diaphragm
E)Transversus thoracis
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Chapter 12: Appendicular Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) This figure shows superficial and deep arm muscles.What muscle does number 2 indicate?
A)Biceps brachii
B)Brachialis
C)Coracobrachialis
D)Brachioradialis
E)Triceps brachii
Q2) Of the muscles listed,the one not inserting on the quadriceps tendon is the A)rectus femoris.
B)gluteus maximus.
C)vastus lateralis.
D)vastus intermedius.
E)vastus medialis.
Q3) There are three anterior thoracic muscles.Select the exception.
A)Levator scapulae
B)Pectoralis minor
C)Serratus anterior
D)Subclavius
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Chapter 13: Surface Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each digit has only one MP joint.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ____________ triangle of the neck is bounded by the sternocleidomastoid,omohyoid,and posterior digastric muscles.Palpation here will allow one to feel the pulsation of the common _______ artery.(Same word for both blanks).
Q3) The inferior border of the gluteus medius forms the gluteal fold.
A)True
B)False
Q4) This figure shows an anterolateral view of the axilla and trunk.What does number 3 indicate?
A)Posterior axillary fold
B)Anterior axillary fold
C)Axilla
D)Biceps brachii muscle
E)Serratus anterior muscle
Q5) The _____________,or chin,tends to be more pointed in females and more "squared-off " in males.
Q6) The posterior neck region is also referred to as the ______________ region.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of neuronal circuit in which several nerve impulses come together at a single postsynaptic neuron is a _____________ circuit.
A)converging
B)diverging
C)reverberating
D)parallel-after-discharge
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q2) A condition in which the brain is substantially missing is A)spina bifida.
B)amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
C)muscular dystrophy.
D)anencephaly.
E)cerebral palsy.
Q3) The glial cell that helps to circulate cerebrospinal fluid is the A)astrocyte.
B)ependymal cell.
C)neurolemmocyte.
D)microglial cell.
E)oligodendrocyte.
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Chapter 15: Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not a function of cerebrospinal fluid?
A)CSF helps to remove waste products from the brain.
B)CSF helps to reduce the effective weight of the brain.
C)CSF transports nutrients and chemicals to the brain.
D)CSF helps to promote mitosis within neuronal tissue.
E)CSF provides a liquid cushion to protect the brain from sudden movements.
Q2) Which is not a function of the blood-brain barrier?
A)It prevents nicotine and alcohol from entering brain interstitial fluid.
B)It prevents brain neurons from being exposed to drugs.
C)It prevents brain neurons from being exposed to waste products in the blood.
D)It protects brain neurons from exposure to abnormal hormone levels.
E)It protects brain neurons from exposure to abnormal ion levels.
Q3) The corpora quadrigemina is part of what portion of the brain?
A)Diencephalon
B)Brainstem
C)Thalamus
D)Telencephalon
E)Epithalamus
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Chapter 16: Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) There is no delay between stimulus and response in a polysynaptic reflex.
A)True
B)False
Q2) This figure shows spinal nerve branches.What structure does number 1 indicate?
A)Anterior ramus
B)Posterior ramus
C)Rami communicantes
D)Sympathetic trunk ganglion
E)Posterior root ganglion
Q3) The anterior ramus of a typical spinal nerve innervates the
A)deep muscles of the back and the skin of the back.
B)major thoracic and abdominal organs.
C)abdominal wall.
D)anterior and lateral trunk and the limbs.
E)special senses.
Q4) A dermatome is a specific segment of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A ___________ is a specific segment of skin that is supplied by a single spinal nerve.
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Chapter 17: Pathways and Integrative Functions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The secondary neuron in a sensory pathway is a(n)
A)motor neuron.
B)interneuron.
C)visceral neuron.
D)center in the brain.
E)tract in the spinal cord.
Q2) A brain lesion in the __________ may cause personality abnormalities.
A)occipital lobe
B)frontal lobe
C)temporal lobe
D)insula
E)parietal lobe
Q3) Motor pathways are ascending pathways in the brain and spinal cord that control the activities of skeletal muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which somatic motor pathway is responsible for voluntary control of muscle activity?
A)Direct pathway
B)Indirect pathway
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Chapter 18: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ ganglia differ from the sympathetic trunk ganglia segments in that they are single structures,rather than paired.
Q2) Which cranial nerves are associated with the parasympathetic division of the ANS?
A: III
B: IV
C: V
D: VII
E: IX
F: X
G: XII
A)a,d,e,f
B)b,c,d,e
C)a,c,d,g
D)c,d,f,g
E)b,e,f,g
Q3) Parasympathetic stimulation of the ciliary muscles allows one to see close-up objects.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Senses: General and Special
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your grandmother complains that the meal she just ate was rather bland or tasteless.This is because as an elderly person,her
A)taste buds are increasing in number but decreasing in sensitivity.
B)taste buds are decreasing in number but increasing in sensitivity.
C)taste buds are decreasing in number and decreasing in sensitivity.
D)taste buds have not changed,but her taste center in the cerebral cortex has changed.
E)food was prepared with little regard to taste.
Q2) A person having a heart attack may feel pain along the medial side of the left arm.This pain is known as
A)referred pain.
B)phantom pain.
C)selected pain.
D)covert pain.
E)masked pain.
Q3) All axons from the right optic nerve cross over at the chiasm and pass to the left side of the brain.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Endocrine glands
A)are ductless glands.
B)are the organs of the endocrine system.
C)secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream.
D)help maintain homeostasis.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which is not correct regarding the posterior pituitary?
A)It is derived from nervous tissue
B)It is connected to the hypothalamus by the hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract
C)It is composed of the pars intermedia and the infundibular stalk
D)It stores oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone
E)It releases its hormones in response to nervous stimulation
Q3) Which is not characteristic of the endocrine system?
A)Causes metabolic activity changes in target cells
B)Slow reaction time
C)Long-lasting effects
D)Rapid,immediate recovery to prestimulation state
E)Hormones are released into the bloodstream
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Chapter 21: Blood
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Q1) The blood type of a person missing the surface antigen D is Rh-positive.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One of the unhealthy effects of blood doping is to
A)increase the viscosity of the blood.
B)decrease the blood pressure in the arteries.
C)decrease the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood.
D)increase the carbon dioxide carrying capacity of the blood.
E)increase the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood.
Q3) Congenital hemolytic anemia is
A)when destruction of erythrocytes is more rapid than normal.
B)when there is an inherited anemia associated with a defect in iron uptake.
C)caused by a failure of the body to absorb Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>.
D)characterized by a large number of immature,nucleated cells.
E)characterized by significantly decreased formation of erythrocytes and hemoglobin due to defective red bone marrow.
Q4) The maintenance of a blood pH of about 7.4 and correct fluid levels are part of the _____________ function of blood.
Q5) A reduced number of leukocytes causes a serious disorder called ____________.
Q6) The process of erythrocyte production is called _______________.
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Chapter 22: Heart
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Q1) The middle layer of the heart wall that is made of cardiac muscle tissue is the ________________.
Q2) In this figure showing an anterior view of the heart,number 7 depicts the
A)aortic semilunar valve.
B)right atrium.
C)left ventricle.
D)right atrioventricular valve.
E)pulmonary semilunar valve.
Q3) The right and left coronary arteries are the only branches of the ascending aorta.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During ventricular systole
A)only the AV valves open.
B)only the AV valves close.
C)only the semilunar valves close.
D)the semilunar valves close and the AV valves open.
E)the semilunar valves open and the AV valves close.
Q5) The ______________ circuit consists of the chambers on the right side of the heart as well as the pulmonary arteries and veins.
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Chapter 23: Vessels and Circulation
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Q1) In the fetus,the blood from the umbilical vein is shunted away from the liver and sent to the inferior vena cava through the ductus ______________.
Q2) The umbilical arteries carry _______ blood.
A)deoxygenated
B)oxygenated
C)no
Q3) Which are considered end arteries?
A)Epigastric arteries
B)Renal arteries
C)Splenic arteries
D)Epigastric and renal arteries
E)Renal and splenic arteries
Q4) The cerebral arterial circle is an anastomosis of arteries around the A)pons.
B)medulla oblongata.
C)sella turcica.
D)frontal lobes.
E)dural venous sinuses.
Q5) The process of forming blood vessels is called ________.
Q6) The azygos vein merges with the _____________ vena cava.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Lymphatic System
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Q1) Tonsils have multiple germinal centers and invaginated outer edges called _______ that help trap material.
A)crypts
B)trabeculae
C)sinuses
D)clefts
E)fissures
Q2) Which is not drained by the right lymphatic duct?
A)Right side of abdomen
B)Right side of thorax
C)Right side of head and neck
D)Right shoulder
E)Right arm
Q3) Lymphatic capillaries originate in the
A)central nervous system.
B)red bone marrow.
C)yellow bone marrow.
D)tissue spaces between cells.
E)cisterna chyli.
Q4) Gastrointestinal tract lymph is also called ______________.
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Chapter 25: Respiratory System
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Q1) What structure connects the larynx to the primary bronchi?
A)Trachea
B)Pharynx
C)Esophagus
D)Bronchioles
E)Alveolar ducts
Q2) During the development of the respiratory system,the vasculature,muscle,and cartilage of each lung form from
A)ectoderm.
B)mesoderm.
C)endoderm.
Q3) On each side of the chest,the _________ pleura lines the internal thoracic wall and the __________ pleura tightly covers the lung.
A)thoracic;pulmonary
B)parietal;visceral
C)visceral;parietal
D)fibrous;serous
E)respiratory;pleural
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Chapter 26: Digestive System
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Q1) The gallbladder
A)is a mixed organ,containing both endocrine and exocrine tissues.
B)stores and concentrates bile.
C)lies adjacent to the inferior vena cava on the superior surface of the liver.
D)is surrounded and protected by the round ligament.
E)is attached to the liver by the falciform ligament.
Q2) The pharynx serves as a common passageway for the digestive and respiratory tracts,and is lined with a keratinized epithelium to protect against abrasion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which structure is not derived from the foregut portion of the gut tube during development?
A)Esophagus
B)Jejunum
C)Gallbladder
D)Stomach
E)Pharynx
Q4) Of the three regions of the small intestine,the terminal (end)portion is the
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Chapter 27: Urinary System
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Q1) Urination is triggered by a complex sequence of events called the ___________ reflex.
Q2) The ureters
A)are intraperitoneal.
B)average 12 cm in length.
C)are fibromuscular tubes.
D)extend from the renal hilum to the anterolateral wall of the urinary bladder.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which layer is not found in the wall of the ureter?
A)Adventitia
B)Muscularis
C)Mucosa
D)Submucosa
E)No exceptions;all layers are found in the wall of the ureter.
Q4) From deep to superficial,the protective layers on the kidney are the
A)fibrous capsule,perinephric fat,renal fascia,paranephric fat.
B)renal corpuscle,perinephric fat,renal fascia,paranephric fat.
C)renal fascia,paranephric fat,renal corpuscle,perinephric fat.
D)renal fascia,perinephric fat,fibrous capsule,paranephric fat.
E)fibrous capsule,paranephric fat,renal fascia,perinephric fat.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Reproductive System
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Q1) The spermatic cord enters the abdominal cavity through a tubular passageway called the _______ _______.
Q2) The myometrium of the uterus is composed of
A)skeletal muscle.
B)mucous membrane.
C)fibrous connective tissue.
D)loose connective tissue.
E)smooth muscle.
Q3) Which of these structures contains sebaceous glands?
A)Clitoris
B)Vestibular bulb
C)Mons pubis
D)Labia minora
E)Prepuce
Q4) Which type of ovarian follicle contains a secondary oocyte?
A)Secondary follicle
B)Primary follicle
C)Vesicular follicle
D)Primordial follicle
E)Polar follicle
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