Sports Nutrition Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Sports Nutrition explores the relationship between nutrition and athletic performance, emphasizing how dietary choices influence energy levels, endurance, recovery, and overall health for athletes and active individuals. The course covers macronutrient and micronutrient requirements, hydration strategies, supplementation, meal planning, and the nutritional needs for different types of sports and training regimens. Students also examine current research, practical guidelines for optimizing performance, and common challenges such as weight management, eating disorders, and special populations within the athletic community.
Recommended Textbook
Krauses Food and the Nutrition Care Process 14th Edition by L. Kathleen Mahan
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Intake: Digestion, Absorption, Transport, and Excretion of Nutrients
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of secretin?
A)Stimulation of gastric secretions and increased motility
B)Stimulation of gallbladder contraction and the release of bile
C)Stimulation of the pancreas to secrete water and bicarbonate
D)Stimulation of the parietal cells to secrete gastrin
Answer: C
Q2) SGLT-1 is key to the small intestine's ability to absorb water because
A)it is an active transporter of sodium and glucose.
B)it blocks the transport of sodium.
C)it stimulates the body's thirst mechanism.
D)it changes the pH of the small intestine.
Answer: A
Q3) What happens to cellulose and lignin as they go through the GI tract?
A)They are converted into glucose before absorption.
B)They are converted into glucose and absorbed by active transport.
C)They are excreted in the feces unchanged.
D)They are excreted in the feces as glucose.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Intake: Energy
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Q1) In research regarding the measurement of activity-related energy expenditure, what method is used to validate uniaxial and triaxial monitors of human movement?
A)Doubly labeled water
B)Indirect calorimetry
C)Heart rate monitor
D)Physical activity questionnaire
Answer: A
Q2) The respiratory quotient (RQ) is highest after consumption of a diet that is primarily composed of what?
A)Carbohydrate
B)Protein
C)Fat
D)Mixed macronutrients
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Inflammation and the Pathophysiology of Chronic Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Increased intestinal permeability is associated with ___________.
A)blocking of large molecules to prevent passage into the internal microenvironment
B)an allogenic state
C)decreased antigenic load
D)more severe food sensitivity or allergy
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a biomarker of inflammation?
A)Hemoglobin A1C
B)Sedimentation rate
C)High-sensitivity C-reactive protein
D)TNF-alpha
Answer: B
Q3) Cytochrome P450 enzymes are essential for
A)production of cholesterol.
B)detoxification transport of toxins for elimination.
C)production of prostacyclins.
D)all of the above.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Intake: Analysis of the Diet
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Q1) The Malnutrition Universal Screening Tool (MUST) relies on what factors for the determination of nutritional risk in adults?
A)Body mass index, eating habits, functional status
B)Body mass index, blood albumin and cholesterol levels, clinical signs
C)Body mass index, weight loss, acute disease effect on intake
D)Body mass index, medical diagnosis, blood albumin level
Q2) Smartphones are now a legitimate method to record food intake.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the patient's _____ history, you would most likely find out about the patient's cultural views related to health care.
A)medical
B)social
C)medication
D)dietary
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6
Chapter 5: Clinical: Nutritional Genomics
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Q1) Among which types of inheritance have no nutrition-related disorders been identified?
A)Autosomal recessive
B)X-linked dominant
C)Y-linked
D)X-linked recessive
Q2) Nutritional components of food affect genetic expression by acting as ligands for peroxisome proliferator-activated receptors (PPAR).Which disease may NOT be positively affected by this nutrigenomic relationship?
A)Type 2 diabetes mellitus
B)Cancer
C)Obesity
D)Atherosclerosis
Q3) Which of the following is the area of DNA where binding of regulatory proteins signals the start of transcription?
A)Promoter
B)Intervening sequence
C)Response element
D)Transcription factor
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Chapter 6: Clinical: Water, Electrolytes, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) By what mechanism is thirst stimulated in the hypothalamus?
A)Increase in serum osmolality
B)Decrease in serum osmolality
C)Increase in both serum osmolality and in extracellular volume
D)Decrease in serum osmolality and an increase in extracellular volume
Q2) Which organ(s) maintain acid-base balance by the regulation of hydrogen ions?
A)Lungs
B)Liver
C)Kidneys
D)Adrenal glands
Q3) Which acid-base imbalance can result from diuretics use, vomiting, and loss of chloride?
A)Respiratory alkalosis
B)Respiratory acidosis
C)Metabolic alkalosis
D)Metabolic acidosis
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8
Chapter 7: Clinical: Biochemical, Physical, and Functional Assessment
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Q1) Which nutrient-related disorder is likely to result in a stool test being ordered?
A)Diabetes
B)Anemia
C)Night blindness
D)Cheilosis
Q2) Which of the following is a measure of glucose control?
A)Highly sensitive C-reactive protein
B)Hemoglobin A1C
C)Homocysteine
D)Apolipoprotein B
Q3) Which of the following is a measure of somatic protein status?
A)C-reactive protein
B)Retinol-binding protein
C)Urinary methylmalonic acid
D)Urinary creatinine
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Chapter 8: Clinical: Food-Drug Interactions
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Q1) When the sedative propofol (Diprivan) is administered to a patient, what nutritional consequence must be considered?
A)It can provide 1.1 kcal/ml of lipid.
B)It can provide extra calcium.
C)It contains lactose and may promote lactose intolerance.
D)It contains wheat starch and may affect people with celiac disease.
Q2) The gastrointestinal side effect commonly seen when narcotic drugs such as codeine and morphine are administered is
A)a change in taste.
B)constipation.
C)gastrointestinal bleeding.
D)anorexia.
Q3) An excipient is a(n)
A)acetylation process.
B)active ingredient in a drug.
C)pressor agent.
D)inactive ingredient.
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Chapter 9: Behavioral-Environmental: the Individual in the Community
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Q1) The Hunger-Free Kids Act of 2010 did which of the following?
A)Expanded the after school meal program
B)Expanded WIC program coverage from 6 months to 1 year
C)Improved the nutrition quality of school-based lunch programs
D)All of the above
Q2) What is the name of the survey that currently collects information on nutrient intake and health status in the United States?
A)Diet and Health Knowledge Survey
B)National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey
C)Nationwide Food Consumption Survey
D)Continuing Survey of Food Intake of Individuals
Q3) Which of the following is a qualification for a school to receive federal cash reimbursement and food donations under the National School Lunch Program?
A)The school must be located in a low-income urban area.
B)The school must be located in a low-income rural area.
C)The school must serve a lunch meeting specific nutritional requirements.
D)The school must serve a minimum of 200 meals per day 5 days each week.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Overview of Nutrition Diagnosis and Intervention
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Sample Questions
Q1) When providing nutritional care for the terminally ill patient, dietary restrictions A)should be maintained throughout the illness.
B)are rarely appropriate and should not be used.
C)should be followed to the best of the patient's ability.
D)should be focused on preventing disease progression.
Q2) The nutritional value of the average clear liquid diet is A)no protein and 500 to 700 kcal.
B)5 to 10 g protein and 500 to 600 kcal.
C)20 to 30 g protein and 100 to 1200 kcal.
D)40 to 50 g protein and 500 to 700 kcal.
Q3) The Joint Commission requires the identification of nutrition risk of hospital patients to occur within
A)12 hours of admission.
B)24 hours of admission.
C)48 hours of admission.
D)24 hours of admission, except on the weekend.
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Chapter
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT part of the Universal Prescription for Health and Nutritional Fitness?
A)Eat foods with prebiotics and probiotics.
B)Drink fluoridated water.
C)Eat fewer high cholesterol foods.
D)Limit or omit high-sodium foods.
Q2) "Low-fat" on a food label means that food
A)contains 25% less fat than a reference product.
B)contains less than or equal to 3 g of fat per serving.
C)contains one-third fewer fat calories than a reference product.
D)is naturally low in fat.
Q3) MyPyramid was developed by
A)USDA and Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS).
B)the National Cancer Institute.
C)the Food and Drug Administration.
D)the Ministry of Health.
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Chapter 12: Food and Nutrient Delivery: Complementary and
Integrative Medicine and Dietary Supplementation
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Q1) For which medical diagnosis is CAM most frequently used in the United States?
A)Headache
B)Arthritis
C)Head cold
D)Back pain
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that there has been an increased usage of CAM in the United States?
A)CAM is not as expensive as conventional medicine.
B)CAM is used when conventional medicine has little to offer in effective treatment.
C)CAM is used when conventional medicine has significant risks and side effects.
D)CAM has a history of efficacy in treatment of some conditions.
Q3) Which of the following types of claims was first established under DSHEA?
A)Authoritative statements
B)Health claims
C)Nutrition claims
D)Structure-function claims
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14
Chapter 13: Food and Nutrient Delivery: Nutrition Support
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Q1) In general, a patient's parenteral feeding can be discontinued when enteral nutrition meets _____ of the patient's need.
A)25%
B)50%
C)75%
D)100%
Q2) Which trace element needs to be initially given at higher levels when there is a risk of refeeding syndrome?
A)Zinc
B)Copper
C)Chromium
D)Phosphorus
Q3) For a fluid-restricted patient, an appropriate formula to select for use would be _____ kcal/ml.
A)0.8
B)1
C)1.2
D)1.5
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Chapter 14: Education and Counseling: Behavioral Change
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Q1) Which of the following is a client's belief in his ability to carry out change?
A)Self-efficacy
B)Self-management
C)Self-monitoring
D)Self-reflection
Q2) What counseling activity is based on the idea that thoughts and beliefs that affect behavior can be changed to promote behavior change?
A)Cognitive behavioral therapy
B)Transtheoretical model
C)Reflective listening
D)Shifting focus
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an activity that facilitates behavior change?
A)Self-efficacy
B)Empathy
C)Reframing
D)Discrepancy
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Chapter 15: Nutrition for Reproductive Health and Lactation
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Q1) Which of the following will result from the normal physiologic adaptation during pregnancy?
A)Decreased serum hemoglobin
B)Proteinuria
C)Hypoglycemia
D)Constipation
Q2) What are the signs and symptoms of pregnancy-induced hypertension?
A)Hypertension, proteinuria, and edema
B)Hypotension, hyperalbuminemia, and excessive urine output
C)Abdominal cramping and weight loss
D)Weight loss, edema, and hypertension
Q3) What should a pregnant woman do to relieve nausea and vomiting during the early months of her pregnancy?
A)Drink liquids with meals and have small, frequent feedings.
B)Eat high-fat foods and include liquids with meals.
C)Eat small, frequent meals low in fat.
D)Eat three regular meals per day.
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Chapter 16: Nutrition in Infancy
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Q1) Compared with formula-fed infants, why do breast-fed infants experience a reduced incidence of infections?
A)Human milk is higher in fat.
B)Human milk has anti-infective factors.
C)Commercial infant formula is higher in iron.
D)Commercial infant formula is higher in fat.
Q2) For a breast-fed infant, which nutrient(s) should be the earliest to be supplemented?
A)Fluoride and vitamin D
B)Iron and magnesium
C)Vitamin C
D)Vitamin K
Q3) How many kilocalories are provided by 6 fl oz of breastmilk or standard infant formula?
A)60 kcal
B)120 kcal
C)180 kcal
D)300 kcal
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Chapter 17: Nutrition in Childhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the American Academy of Pediatrics recommend in regard to calories from fat in the diet of a young child?
A)Limit fat calories to 30% of total caloric intake.
B)Limit fat calories to 20% of total caloric intake.
C)Fat calories should only be limited in extreme circumstances.
D)Fat calories should be limited for every child older than 1 year of age.
Q2) Which of the following may cause a preschool child to eat less food at a meal?
A)Providing the child with a short-handled spoon or fork.
B)Providing food at a warm temperature, not too hot or cold.
C)Scheduling feeding time right after play or activity.
D)Serving foods so they do not touch one another on the plate.
Q3) Food insecure families in the United States
A)contribute to poor outcomes in children.
B)are associated with inadequate iron intake in children 3 years and under.
C)are served by SNAP, WIC, and school lunch.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 18: Nutrition in Adolescence
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Q1) Which of the following represents the growth experienced by a child during adolescence?
A)50% of the adult height and 20% of the adult weight
B)30% of the adult height and 30% of the adult weight
C)20% of the adult height and 50% of the adult weight
D)10% of the adult height and 20% of the adult weight
Q2) How is hypertension diagnosed in adolescents?
A)Blood pressure of 130/85 mm Hg
B)Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg
C)Blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg
D)Average of three blood pressure readings that exceed the 95th percentile
Q3) The RDA for calcium for all adolescents is _________ with an upper level intake of
A)800 mg; 1000 mg
B)3000 mg; 5000 mg
C)1300 mg; 3000 mg
D)There is no RDA for calcium for adolescents
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Chapter 19: Nutrition in the Adult Years
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Q1) The leading cause of death and debilitation among adults in the United States is A)accidents.
B)cancer.
C)diabetes.
D)heart disease.
Q2) Which of the following is the term used to describe microbial foods or supplements that can be used to change or reestablish the intestinal flora and improve the health of the host?
A)Probiotics
B)Phytoestrogens
C)Stanols
D)Lignans
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the defining characteristics of metabolic syndrome?
A)Abdominal obesity
B)Hypertension
C)Elevated blood lipids
D)Physical inactivity
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21
Chapter 20: Nutrition in Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) The 2010 health care reform legislation expands Medicare to include
A)an annual wellness visit.
B)education and counseling.
C)expanded coverage for reimbursement for dietitians.
D)all of the above.
Q2) In Medicare benefits, for which of the following are MNT services NOT included?
A)Preventive services
B)Cancer
C)Diabetes
D)Preend-stage kidney disease
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the four syndromes known to be predictive of adverse outcomes in older adults?
A)Depression
B)Diabetes
C)Cognitive impairment
D)Malnutrition
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Chapter 21: Nutrition in Weight Management
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Q1) Which of the following does the NIH identify as being an appropriate candidate for bariatric surgery?
A)A person with metabolic syndrome
B)A patient with BMI of 25 to 29 with high blood pressure
C)A patient with BMI of 30 to 34
D)A patient with BMI of 40 or higher
Q2) The metabolic syndrome is associated with which of the following groups of disorders?
A)Glucose intolerance, gout, and hypertension
B)Gout, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia
C)Glucose intolerance, hyperlipidemia, and hypertension
D)Hypoglycemia, hyperlipidemia, and hypertension
Q3) The rate of weight loss for men on energy-deficient diets is more rapid than for women because men
A)generally have less fat to lose.
B)are more successful at weight reduction programs.
C)have higher testing metabolic rate and lean body mass than women.
D)are more likely to exercise while trying to lose weight.
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Chapter 22: Nutrition in Eating Disorders
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Q1) In which eating disorder might a person have an intense fear of becoming overweight even though she is underweight?
A)Anorexia nervosa
B)Bulimia nervosa
C)Eating disorder not otherwise specified
D)Binge eating disorder
Q2) Which is a typical personality characteristic of people with anorexia nervosa?
A)Extroverted
B)Introverted
C)Underachiever
D)Easygoing
Q3) Low T syndrome is a
A)low metabolic state associated with anorexia nervosa.
B)reduction in thyroxine associated with anorexia nervosa.
C)decrease in triiodothyronine associated with bulimia nervosa.
D)decrease in reduced triiodothyronine associated with anorexia nervosa.
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Chapter 23: Nutrition in Exercise and Sports Performance
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Q1) During extended physical activity, such as endurance events, the major fuels used for cellular energy are
A)glucose and fatty acids.
B)glycogen and ketones.
C)amino acids and fatty acids.
D)glucose and ketones.
Q2) Which of the following pathways is NOT used to generate energy in muscle cells during any type of exercise?
A)Glycogenolysis
B)Gluconeogenesis
C)Glycolysis
D)Beta oxidation
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the benefits of caffeine use as an ergogenic aid?
A)Enhances fatty acid mobilization
B)Facilitates calcium transport in muscle contractility
C)Reduces fatigue by reducing plasma potassium accumulation
D)Cleanses out metabolic end products by promoting diuresis
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25
Chapter 24: Nutrition and Bone Health
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Q1) A chronic elevation of which circulating hormone typically leads to an increase in bone resorption and bone loss?
A)Thyroid hormone
B)Parathyroid hormone
C)Corticosteroid hormone
D)Glucagon
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a risk associated with excessive calcium supplementation?
A)Constipation
B)Iron deficiency
C)Urinary tract stones
D)High blood pressure
Q3) When is the peak bone mass of a female typically achieved?
A)By the end of adolescence
B)By approximately 30 years of age
C)Within the decade preceding menopause
D)After the onset of menopause
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Chapter 25: Nutrition for Oral and Dental Health
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Q1) When and for how long does tooth mineralization occur?
A)From 2 months' gestation through 5 years of age
B)From 4 months' gestation through the preteen years
C)From 2 months' gestation through the preteen years
D)From 4 months' gestation through 5 years of age
Q2) Cheese is considered to be anticariogenic because it
A)induces an alkaline saliva.
B)induces an acidic saliva.
C)induces a neutral saliva.
D)decreases saliva production.
Q3) The ingestion of which of the following is most likely to promote bacterial activity that promotes dental caries?
A)Sucrose, glucose, and fructose
B)Xylitol, mannitol, and lactose
C)Aspartame, saccharin, and cyclamate
D)Xylitol, saccharin, and galactose
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Chapter 26: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Adverse
Reactions to Food: Allergies and Intolerances
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Q1) Which diagnostic methods for determining food allergy by immunologic function are the most accurate?
A)Skin-prick test, ELISA, and RAST
B)Cytotoxic testing and ELISA
C)Sublingual testing, RAST, and skin-prick test
D)CAP-FEIA
Q2) Which age group is most likely to develop food hypersensitivity?
A)0 to 2 years of age
B)3 to 12 years of age
C)Adolescents
D)Elderly
Q3) Which of the following methods is effective for diagnosis when symptoms are subjective or when multiple food allergies are suspected?
A)Open food challenge
B)Single-blind food challenge
C)Double-blind, placebo-controlled food challenge
D)Elimination diet
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Chapter 27: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Upper
Gastrointestinal Tract Disorders
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Q1) Treating esophagitis with cimetidine, a histamine H -receptor blocking agent, is effective because it
A)provides a viscous protective barrier.
B)decreases gastric acid production.
C)increases LES pressure.
D)promotes gastric emptying.
Q2) Which of the following contributes to nighttime GERD?
A)Delayed gastric emptying
B)Increased swallowing
C)Decreased digestive secretions
D)Increased saliva production
Q3) Which of the following dietary modifications minimize the problems associated with a gastrectomy with a vagotomy?
A)Increasing carbohydrate intake, particularly simple sugars, and decreasing fat and protein
B)Decreasing intake of liquids and simple sugars with meals
C)Reducing the intake of fiber from fruits and vegetables
D)Increasing the intake of milk at mealtimes and between meals
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Chapter 28: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Lower
Gastrointestinal Tract Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following patients with small bowel resection is the LEAST likely to need long-term parenteral nutrition?
A)40-year-old man with a jejunal resection
B)20-year-old woman who had radiation enteritis before resection
C)60-year-old woman with an almost total ileal resection
D)50-year-old woman with the ileocecal valve removed
Q2) The FODMAPs diet is showing success for which group of patients?
A)Patients with diverticulosis
B)Celiac disease patients
C)Crohn disease patients
D)IBS patients
Q3) What should be in the solution used for fluid replacement for acute diarrhea in infants and small children?
A)Vitamins, minerals, and electrolytes
B)Glucose and electrolytes in water
C)Chemically defined formula
D)Lactose-free formula
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Hepatobiliary and Pancreatic Disorders
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Q1) Which type of immunosuppressant drug used in the treatment of liver transplant is most likely to promote sodium retention, hyperglycemia, and impaired absorption of calcium?
A)Azathioprine
B)Cyclosporine
C)Glucocorticoid
D)Tacrolimus
Q2) Enteral nutrition is preferred over parenteral nutrition when treating patients with severe, acute pancreatitis because
A)enteral nutrition is more expensive.
B)enteral nutrition can prevent pseudocysts from developing.
C)failure to use the gastrointestinal tract exacerbates the stress response.
D)it is not the preferred route of nutrition.
Q3) Which of the following herbal supplements is popular for treating liver disease?
A)Milk thistle
B)Centella asiatica
C)Ephedra
D)Kava
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Chapter 30: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Diabetes Mellitus and
Hypoglycemia of Nondiabetic Origin
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a microvascular disease associated with hyperglycemic patients?
A)Retinopathy
B)Neuropathy
C)Nephropathy
D)Peripheral vascular disease
Q2) Which of the following criteria is NOT appropriate for the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?
A)Fasting plasma glucose of greater than 126 mg/dl
B)HbA1c of greater than 7.0%
C)Postload (2 hour) plasma glucose of 200 mg/dl or greater
D)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following would NOT result in postprandial (reactive) hypoglycemia?
A)Rapid glucose absorption
B)Excessive insulin secretion
C)Insufficient glucagon secretion
D)Excessive hepatic gluconeogenesis
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Thyroid, Adrenal, and
Other Endocrine
Disorders
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Q1) Which of these is NOT required for the production of thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3)?
A)Thyroid peroxidase (TPO)
B)Tyrosine
C)Thyroid-binding globulin (TBG)
D)Iodide
Q2) More than 90% of people with autoimmune thyroid disease have a genetic defect affecting their ability to metabolize what?
A)Vitamin D
B)Flavonoids
C)Selenium
D)Tyrosine
Q3) A rare primary adrenal insufficiency in which insufficient levels of steroid hormones are produced despite adequate levels of the hormone ACTH is known as A)adrenal fatigue.
B)Addison disease.
C)Cushing syndrome.
D)euthyroid sick syndrome.
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Chapter 32: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Anemia
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Q1) The Shilling test is useful in diagnosing which type of anemia?
A)Pernicious
B)Iron deficiency
C)Hemolytic
D)Medication induced
Q2) In what stage of iron deficiency does the value of soluble serum transferrin receptors measure as high as in the blood?
A)Stage I early negative iron balance
B)Stage II iron depletion
C)Stage III iron-deficient erythropoiesis
D)Stage IV iron deficiency anemia
Q3) Foods high in _____ should be avoided by individuals with sickle cell anemia.
A)protein
B)folate
C)iron
D)vitamin A
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Chapter 33: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Cardiovascular Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT associated with lowering blood pressure?
A)Hawthorn berry
B)Mint
C)Garlic
D)Coenzyme Q10
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a proinflammatory marker that increases when endothelial dysfunction leads to unstable plaque formation in atherosclerosis?
A)Interleukin-6
B)Fibrinogen
C)Nitric oxide
D)C-reactive protein
Q3) What is the condition in which severe congestive heart failure is characterized by a state of severe malnutrition?
A)Anorexia nervosa
B)Cardiac cachexia
C)Hypoalbuminemia
D)Tissue hypoxia
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Pulmonary Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which results from a sweat test indicate that a patient may have CF?
A)Elevated levels of sodium and chloride
B)Decreased levels of sodium and chloride
C)Elevated levels of sodium and potassium
D)Decreased levels of potassium and chloride
Q2) The primary cause of aspiration pneumonia is
A)drinking water or other thin liquids.
B)tube feeding at a high rate per hour.
C)weak muscles.
D)excessive lung secretion.
Q3) What term refers to rapid breathing?
A)Dyspnea
B)Hemoptysis
C)Tachypnea
D)Aspiration
Q4) What vitamin supplementation may be necessary for patients with tuberculosis?
A)Vitamins C and E
B)Folate and vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
C)Vitamins B6 and D
D)Pyridoxine and folate
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Chapter 35: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Renal Disorders
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Q1) The rennin-angiotensin mechanism
A)regulates calcium and phosphorus balance.
B)regulates blood pressure.
C)is the first function of the kidney to deteriorate in AFI.
D)is responsible for the production of EPO.
Q2) Renal adaptations that permit "normal" function eventually fail, causing a progression toward ESRD because of A)loss of nephrons.
B)uremia.
C)increases in blood pressure.
D)imbalances between glomerular and tubular functions.
Q3) Which of the following guidelines should be followed by a patient who has a history of kidney stones?
A)Decrease fluid intake to keep urine output to less than 1 L/day.
B)Decrease intake of magnesium-containing antacids.
C)Increase fluid intake to maintain urinary output at or above 2 L/day.
D)Use sodium bicarbonate to alkalize urine.
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Chapter 36: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Cancer
Prevention, Treatment, and Survivorship
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Q1) Common side effects of radiation-induced enteritis combined with small bowel resection include
A)sore throat, mucositis, and severe dental and gum destruction.
B)nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
C)maldigestion, malabsorption, dehydration, and malnutrition.
D)edema, ascites, and weight gain.
Q2) In carcinogenesis, which step does NOT necessarily occur in tumor development?
A)Initiation
B)Promotion
C)Progression
D)Metastasis
Q3) Which of the following is a protein that affects fat stores during cancer and induces a state of anorexia?
A)Insulin
B)Growth hormone
C)Tumor necrosis factor (cachectin)
D)Glucagon
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Hiv and Aids
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Q1) It is important to talk with patients about body shape and fat redistribution to combat what aspect of HIV disease?
A)Food-medication interaction
B)Opportunistic infections
C)Peripheral neuropathy
D)HIV-associated lipodystrophy syndrome (HALS)
Q2) What period of disease progression does acute HIV infection make up?
A)The period from transmission to up to 10 years after infection
B)The period from transmission of HIV to the production of detectable antibodies
C)The period between normal and less than 500 CD4+ cells/mm3
D)The period when CD4 decrease falls to even lower levels and the infection becomes symptomatic and progresses to AIDS
Q3) What is the most valuable indicator of nutritional status in HIV-infected children?
A)Energy levels
B)Viral load
C)CD4 levels
D)Growth
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Chapter 38: Medical Nutrition Therapy in Critical Care
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Q1) In surgical patients, what factor is the strongest predictor of postoperative mortality?
A)Extent of the primary disease and operation performed
B)Serum albumin
C)BMI
D)Age
Q2) How does the gut hypothesis explain the development of systemic inflammatory response syndrome?
A)Injury or disruption of the gut barrier function allows bacterial translocation to occur.
B)Active feeding of the gut promotes the migration of gut-associated lymphoid tissue.
C)Bypassing feeding of the gut via parenteral nutrition promotes infection through open access to the blood system.
D)Foodborne illness promotes absorption of foodborne pathogens, increasing infection.
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Chapter 39: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Rheumatic Disease
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Q1) With what do the plasma copper levels seen in patients with rheumatoid arthritis correlate?
A)Dietary intake of copper
B)Type of medication
C)Degree of joint inflammation
D)Degree of malabsorption and diarrhea
Q2) Which of the following conditions is NOT a disease of autoimmune origin?
A)OA
B)RA
C)SLE
D)Scleroderma
Q3) Which spices are included in the "antiinflammatory diet"?
A)Thyme, cayenne, and cloves
B)Oregano, lemon peel, and thyme
C)Ginger, curry, turmeric, and rosemary
D)Cayenne, cumin, and parsley
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Chapter 40: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Neurologic Disorders
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Q1) The guideline for use of a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) in patients with neurologic disease or disorders is to use
A)whenever there is a risk of aspiration pneumonia.
B)with patients whose swallowing function will not ensure adequate nutritional intake.
C)with patients who refuse a central line for total parenteral nutrition.
D)with patients who are expected to resume oral alimentation within 7 days.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of head-injured patients?
A)They have profound urinary nitrogen loss.
B)Their energy needs are related to the Glasgow Coma Scale.
C)They are hypermetabolic.
D)They have decreased energy needs.
Q3) What is dysphagia?
A)Inhalation of a foreign object into the lungs
B)Impaired taste
C)Difficulty swallowing
D)Impairment of the tongue or other muscles essential to speech
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Chapter 41: Mnt in Psychiatric and Cognitive Disorders
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Q1) Fluctuations in blood glucose can amplify which condition/disease?
A)Depression
B)Schizophrenia
C)Anxiety
D)All of the above
Q2) The most proven risk factor for Alzheimer disease is
A)protein-energy malnutrition.
B)folic acid deficiency.
C)insulin resistance.
D)advanced age.
Q3) Folic acid supplementation in the methylated form is useful in some psychiatric disorders because of its role in
A)production of serotonin and dopamine.
B)macrocytic anemia.
C)histamine metabolism.
D)preventing neural tube defects.
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Page 43
Chapter
Infants
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Q1) Which of the following procedures should be used in the transition from parenteral to enteral feedings with an LBW infant?
A)Advance to enteral feeding as quickly as possible.
B)Begin full-volume enteral feeding.
C)Stop parenteral feeding until enteral feeding is well established.
D)Maintain parenteral feeding until enteral feeding is well established.
Q2) Infants begin to gain weight above their birth weight
A)by the end of the first day postpartum.
B)within 48 to 72 hours postpartum.
C)by the end of the first week postpartum.
D)by 2 to 3 weeks postpartum.
Q3) Human milk
A)has a different composition in the mothers of preterm infants.
B)has zinc and iron that is more readily absorbed.
C)has hormones.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 43: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Genetic
Metabolic Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following metabolic disorders is NOT a disorder of carbohydrate metabolism?
A)Hereditary glucose intolerance
B)Glycogen storage disease
C)Galactosemia
D)Fructose 1,6-diphosphatase deficiency
Q2) Which of the following will NOT result in the development of phenylketonuria?
A)Deficiency in phenylalanine hydroxylase
B)Deficiency in dihydropteridine reductase
C)Insufficient synthesis of biopterin
D)Insufficiency of dietary tyrosine
Q3) Which of the following metabolic disorders is NOT classified as an organic acidemia?
A)Methylmalonic metabolic disorder
B)Propionic metabolic disorder
C)Isovaleric metabolic disorder
D)Argininosuccinic aciduria
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Chapter 44: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities
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Q1) Which developmental disorder is characterized by the child having an insatiable appetite?
A)Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
B)Spina bifida
C)Down syndrome
D)Prader-Willi syndrome
Q2) By current methods, which developmental disorder is preventable?
A)Down syndrome
B)Spina bifida
C)Autism
D)Prader-Willi syndrome
Q3) To make standard 20-calorie/oz formula, how much powdered formula needs to be mixed with every 2 oz of water?
A)1 tsp
B)1 Tbsp
C)1 scoop
D)2 scoops
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Page 46