
Course Introduction

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Sports Medicine is an interdisciplinary course that explores the prevention, diagnosis, treatment, and rehabilitation of injuries and medical conditions related to physical activity and sports participation. The curriculum covers a range of topics including musculoskeletal anatomy, common sports injuries, injury assessment techniques, emergency care, therapeutic exercise, and the principles of rehabilitation. Students also learn about the role of physical fitness in overall health, the psychological aspects of athletic performance, and strategies for promoting safe and effective athletic participation. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based practices, ethical considerations, and collaborative care among health professionals in the field of sports medicine.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Disease 6th Edition by Patton
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Q1) toward the head or above
A)superior
B)anterior
C)medial
D)proximal
E)superficial
F)inferior
G)posterior
H)lateral
I)distal
J)deep
Answer: A
Q2) When using directional terms to describe the body,it is assumed that the body is in what position?
A) supine
B) anatomical
C) lateral
D) prone
Answer: B
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Q1) Both sucrose and lactose are examples of disaccharides.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q2) All molecules are not necessarily compounds.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) Explain the structure of a nucleic acid and list the differences between RNA and DNA. Answer: Answers will vary.
Q4) Water is the most common solute in the human body.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q5) A triglyceride contains a molecule of glycerol.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) structure made up of phospholipids and cholesterol molecules
A)plasma membrane
B)nucleus
C)ribosomes
D)mitochondria
E)smooth endoplasmic reticulum
F)rough endoplasmic reticulum
G)lysosomes
H)centrioles
I)microvilli
J)nucleolus
Answer: A
Q2) The end product of the process of translation is an amino acid chain or protein.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Filtration requires different levels of hydrostatic pressure across a membrane.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) single layer of cells; some are tall and thin and reach the free surface,and others do not
A)simple squamous
B)simple cuboidal
C)simple columnar
D)pseudostratified columnar
E)stratified squamous
F)transitional
Q2) Alveolar connective tissue specializes in the storage of lipid or fat.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which tissue covers and lines many parts of the body?
A) epithelial tissue
B) connective tissue
C) muscle tissue
D) nervous tissue
Q4) An important part of muscle tissue is the matrix found in between cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Name and describe the four types of tissues in the body.Give an example of each.
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Q1) One important function of intact skin is to keep out harmful bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a gland in the endocrine system?
A) thyroid
B) pituitary
C) hypothalamus
D) salivary
Q3) The lymphatic system eventually returns lymph back to the bloodstream.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Name and explain the function of the three types of muscles in the muscular system.
Q5) Sweat glands are part of the integumentary system.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The prostate gland and the scrotum are classified as accessory organs of the male reproductive system.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Organisms that cause opportunistic infections require specific environmental conditions before they can become infectious.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A malignant tumor that arises from connective tissue is usually called a sarcoma.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain why it is helpful in the inflammatory response to dilate the blood vessels and make the vessel walls more permeable.Include a definition of chemotaxis.
Q4) The spread of a tumor to another part of the body is called metastasis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List and briefly describe the four methods of disease prevention and control discussed in the chapter.
Q6) Define or explain the following terms: neoplasm,benign,malignant,metastasis,carcinoma,and sarcoma.
Q7) Define or explain the following terms: endemic,epidemic,and pandemic.
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Q1) muscle attached to the side of the hair follicle
A)hypodermis
B)hair papilla
C)dermal papillae
D)Meissner corpuscle
E)stratum corneum
F)lanugo
G)melanin
H)eccrine gland
I)stratum germinativum
J)arrector pili
K)sebaceous gland
L)lunula
M)apocrine gland
N)Pacini corpuscle
Q2) Describe and give the location of the epithelial membranes of the body.
Q3) Mucous membranes line the respiratory and digestive tracts of the body.
A)True
B)False

Page 9
Q4) Describe the four types of skin cancer identified in the chapter.
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Q1) There are 28 phalanges in the human skeleton.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The lamellae of the osteon surround the central canal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Name and describe the three types of inflammatory arthritis discussed in this chapter.
Q4) Describe the structure of cartilage.
Q5) Growth of a bone occurs at the epiphyseal plates.
A)True
B)False
Q6) There are more bones in the facial part of the skull than in the cranium.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Floating ribs are named "floating" because they are not joined to any other bone.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Describe the structure of the osteon.
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Q1) Both skeletal muscles and cardiac muscles have striations.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When the elbow is straightened,the triceps brachii becomes the antagonistic muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) movement that directs the bottom of the foot downward so you are standing on your toes
A)flexion
B)extension
C)abduction
D)adduction
E)supination
F)pronation
G)rotation
H)plantar flexion
I)dorsiflexion
Q4) Describe the progression of Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
Q5) Explain muscle fatigue,the oxygen debt,and how the oxygen debt is "paid."
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Q1) The resting neuron has a more positive charge inside than outside.
A)True
B)False
Q2) cells that produce myelin for cells outside of the central nervous system
A)microglia
B)axon
C)dendrites
D)oligodendrocyte
E)afferent neuron
F)astrocytes
G)efferent neuron
H)interneurons
I)nodes of Ranvier
J)Schwann cells
Q3) The pia mater,the arachnoid mater,and the dura mater are part of the meninges.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All interneurons are entirely within the gray matter.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Because color blindness is an inherited trait carried on the X chromosome,it is more common in women because they have two X chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) appendage on the side of the head; also called the pinna
A)organ of Corti
B)tympanic membrane
C)eustachian tube
D)stapes
E)semicircular canal
F)cochlea
G)malleus
H)auricle
I)perilymph
J)endolymph
Q3) The oval window separates the outer from the middle ear.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the function of the sense of smell.
Q5) Explain the functioning of the sense of taste and list the four primary tastes.
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Q1) The result of the interaction between a nonsteroid hormone and a target cell is the formation of a new protein.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The negative feedback mechanism of hormone regulation helps maintain the body's homeostasis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Glucocorticoids increase the amount of glucose in the blood and act as antiinflammatory agents.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hormones produced and released by the adrenal cortex help reinforce the "fight-or-flight" response.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Both ANH and leptin help regulate appetite and food intake.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the role ghrelin and leptin may have in regulating body weight.
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Q1) If a person's body contained 5 liters of blood,about _____ liters would be plasma and _____ liter(s)would be formed elements.
A) 4; 1
B) 2.6; 2.4
C) 2.4; 2.6
D) There is no way to determine the proportion of plasma to formed elements.
Q2) The removal of the spleen is one possible treatment for thrombocytopenia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) can be caused by an Rh-negative mother carrying her second Rh-positive baby
A)hemophilia
B)acute lymphocytic leukemia
C)polycythemia
D)hemorrhagic anemia
E)acute myeloid leukemia
F)pernicious anemia
G)sickle cell anemia
H)multiple myeloma
I)erythroblastosis fetalis
J)thalassemia
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Q1) severe chest pain that occurs when the myocardium is deprived of adequate oxygen
A)incompetent heart valve
B)angina pectoris
C)pericarditis
D)dysrhythmia
E)atherosclerosis
F)myocardial infarction
G)fibrillation
H)stenosed heart valve
I)congestive heart failure
J)cardiac tamponade
K)tachycardia
L)bradycardia
M)cor pulmonale
Q2) The aortic semilunar valve is the valve
A) between the left atrium and left ventricle
B) that opens from the right ventricle into the artery
C) between the right atrium and right ventricle
D) that opens from the left ventricle into the artery
Q3) Define or explain bradycardia,tachycardia,and sinus dysrhythmia.
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Q1) What is pulse? Name two places in the head and neck and two places on the upper and lower extremities where a pulse can be felt.
Q2) Polycythemia has a direct effect on which of the following factors that influence blood pressure?
A) blood volume
B) strength of the heart contraction
C) heart rate
D) blood viscosity
Q3) A person who has suffered a serious loss of blood would be most at risk for cardiogenic shock.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Because of the expansion of the lungs,deep breathing hinders the return of blood to the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Necrosis that has progressed to tissue decay is called gangrene.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) B lymphocytes that have been exposed to an antigen develop into cells that produce antibodies called _____ cells.
A) plasma
B) memory
C) bursa
D) Kupffer
Q2) Interstitial fluid that enters the lymphatic system is called lymph.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The source of lymph is blood plasma.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If an identical twin donates an organ to his or her twin,why is rejection unlikely?
Q5) A contact dermatitis such as the response to poison ivy is caused by the action of T cells.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is autoimmunity? Give an example of an autoimmune disease.
Q7) Describe HIV and explain its effect on a cell.
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Q1) The two most important respiratory control centers for regulating breathing are located in which part of the brain?
A) medulla
B) pons
C) cerebral cortex
D) cerebellum
Q2) Which of the following is not a subdivision of the pharynx?
A) tracheopharynx
B) nasopharynx
C) oropharynx
D) laryngopharynx
Q3) Describe the structure of the pharynx.Explain its role in equalizing the pressure across the eardrum.
Q4) Pleurisy is a condition in which part of the lung cannot completely expand or has collapsed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the role of the cerebral cortex in regulating respiration.
Q6) Name and explain four types of breathing explained in the chapter.
Q7) What is pharyngitis?
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Q1) layer of the wall of the digestive tract that generates peristalsis
A)enamel
B)muscularis layer
C)villi
D)hard palate
E)splenic flexure
F)common bile duct
G)cementum
H)submucosa
I)mesentery
J)hepatic flexure
Q2) The digestion of food includes both mechanical and chemical digestion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Rugae in the stomach are seen only when the stomach is full.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Peritonitis is an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal space.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Defend the statement that the catabolism of all food substances has the goal of reattaching a phosphate group to ADP.
Q2) The starting substance for glycolysis is glucose; the end product is carbon dioxide.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One function of ATP is to store energy for the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following conditions is not considered part of basal conditions?
A) not digesting a meal
B) being asleep
C) being in a comfortably warm room
D) All of the above are basal conditions.
Q5) Explain the process of glucose anabolism.Where does it occur?
Q6) Explain the two conditions that occur when the body is unable to keep itself sufficiently warm.
Q7) Both anorexia nervosa and bulimia are classified as behavioral disorders.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) the blood vessel in the Bowman capsule
A)calyx
B)urinary bladder
C)Bowman capsule
D)loop of Henle
E)renal cortex
F)collecting tubule
G)proximal convoluted tubule
H)renal medulla
I)ureters
J)renal pyramids
K)juxtaglomerular apparatus
L)glomerulus
M)urethra
N)distal convoluted tubule
O)renal pelvis
Q2) Both active and passive mechanisms are used to move materials from the nephron back to the blood.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Explain the mechanism by which aldosterone helps maintain fluid homeostasis.
Q2) If sodium moves into the interstitial fluid,edema could result.
A)True
B)False
Q3) condition of which loss of skin elasticity is a clinical sign
A)ion
B)dehydration
C)intracellular fluid
D)hypokalemia
E)ADH
F)decrease in capillary blood pressure
G)ANH
H)hypocalcemia
I)drop in blood protein levels
J)electrolyte
K)hyponatremia
L)overhydration
M)aldosterone
N)interstitial fluid
O)edema
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Q1) Explain the functioning of the respiratory mechanism in the control of blood pH.What effect would a prolonged period of decreased respiration have on the pH of the blood?
Q2) the only pH regulating system that can excrete base
A)buffer
B)metabolic acidosis
C)acid solution
D)respiratory alkalosis
E)respiratory system
F)metabolic alkalosis
G)alkaline solution
H)kidney system
I)respiratory acidosis
J)neutral solution
Q3) Explain the pH scale.Which body fluid has the highest pH? Which has the lowest?
Q4) Would you expect the blood in the pulmonary artery or in the pulmonary vein to have the higher pH? Explain your answer.
Q5) Lactic acid and carbonic acid are referred to as fixed acids.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) An ovarian cyst is the first stage of ovarian cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The prostate gland produces a milk-colored fluid that makes up about 60% of the seminal fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A hydrocele is a condition in which fluid has accumulated in the scrotum.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An inguinal hernia occurs when part of the intestine pushes through the abdominal wall into the scrotum.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ductus deferens carries sperm out of the scrotum and is part of the spermatic cord.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What are some treatments for cancer of the prostate?
Q7) Explain the menstrual cycle including the role of all hormones involved.
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Q1) Fertilization usually occurs in the A) uterus
B) outer third of the oviduct near the ovary
C) inner third of the oviduct near the uterus
D) ovarian follicle
Q2) Mutagens cause a change in the genetic code in the cells of the developing embryo.
A)True
B)False
Q3) By 4 months of gestation,all of the organ systems are complete and in place.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If a fetus presents in the breech position,a cesarean section may be necessary. A)True B)False
Q5) Stage three of labor is usually the shortest. A)True B)False
Q6) Explain the events from fertilization to the implantation of the fertilized egg into the uterus.
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Q1) Which of the following is a photograph of chromosomes that are cut out and pasted onto a chart and used to detect chromosomal disorders?
A) pedigree
B) karyotype
C) Punnett square
D) plasmid
Q2) Another term for a chromatin strand is a gene.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The human genome contains 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Nondisjunction can produce gametes with 22 and 24 chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the cause and symptoms of cystic fibrosis.
Q6) A mutagen is an agent that causes a mutation.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Explain the cause and symptoms of Down syndrome.
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