Sports
Medicine Question Bank
Course Introduction
Sports Medicine is an interdisciplinary field focused on the prevention, diagnosis, treatment, and rehabilitation of sports-related injuries and conditions. This course explores the physiological and biomechanical principles behind athletic performance, as well as best practices in injury management, rehabilitation techniques, and long-term health and wellness for athletes. Students will examine topics such as emergency care, nutrition, pharmacology, psychological aspects of sports, and ethical considerations in sports medicine practice, preparing them to support athletes at all levels of competition.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Anatomy and Physiology 15th Edition by Gerard
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29 Chapters
2169 Verified Questions
2169 Flashcards
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Page 2
J. Tortora
Chapter 1: An Introduction to the Human Body
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78 Verified Questions
78 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67055
Sample Questions
Q1) The function of the secretions of the pleura,is to
A)separate the thoracic and abdominal cavities.
B)protect the central nervous system.
C)prevent infection.
D)reduce friction between neighboring organs.
E)carry nervous impulses.
Answer: D
Q2) Place the events in correct order
A- Input about the controlled condition is sent to the control center.
B- If needed,the control center sends output to an effector.
C-The effector can produce a response that helps maintain homeostasis.
D-A receptor monitors a controlled condition
E-The control center evaluates the value of the controlled condition compared to the set point.
A)A,E,D,B,C
B)D,A,E,B,C
C)A,D,E,C,B
D)D,E,B,A,C
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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81 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are characteristics of anabolism EXCEPT:
A)It involves synthesizing new biomolecules.
B)It primarily involves endergonic reactions.
C)It releases large amounts of energy.
D)An example of anabolism is linking amino acids together to form proteins.
E)An example is the formation of two ammonia molecules from one nitrogen molecule and three hydrogen molecules.
Answer: C
Q2) In laboratory,Sudan IV is used to test for the presence of hydrophobic substances in food.Which organic molecule would exhibit a positive reaction with Sudan IV?
A)Lipids
B)Nucleic Acids
C)Carbohydrates
D)Globular proteins
Answer: A
Q3) Describe the law of conservation of energy.
Answer: Energy cannot be created or destroyed but it may be converted from one form to another form.
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4
Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which portion of a DNA segment does not code for a protein?
A)RNA
B)introns
C)exons
D)polyribosome
E)ribosome
Answer: B
Q2) If the solute concentration is greater inside of the cell than outside the cell,water will move by osmosis
A)into the cell.
B)out of the cell.
C)into and out of the cell at the same rate resulting in no net water movement.
D)All of these answer choices are correct.
E)None of these answers are correct.
Answer: A
Q3) Briefly describe alternative splicing.
Answer: Alternative splicing of mRNA is a process in which the pre-mRNA transcribed from a gene is spliced in different ways to produce several different mRNAs.The different mRNAs are used to make different proteins.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The extracellular matrix of connective tissue consists of A)enzymes and membranous organelles.
B)plasma membranes and ground substance.
C)keratinized cells and protein fibers.
D)calcified crystals of minerals and enzymes.
E)protein fibers and ground substance.
Q2) [_______] tissue moves food through the digestive tract? Dropdown choices: cardiac muscle
skeletal muscle
smooth muscle
Q3) Compare and contrast the functional and structural characteristics of the three types of muscle tissue.
Q4) Name and briefly describe the two types of growth seen in cartilage.
Q5) Mesenchyme will differentiate into all EXCEPT
A)osteoblasts
B)Erythrocytes
C)chondroblasts
D)fibroblasts
E)keratinocytes
6
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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78 Verified Questions
78 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anorexia may cause adults to develop fine,unpigmented hairs to help with warmth and insulation.Which type of hair is described?
A)Terminal
B)Vellus
C)Lanugo
D)Papilla
Q2) Put the events of keratinization in order.
A.Accumulate keratohyalin granules
B.Cells increase in size,some retain ability to divide
C.Cell membrane thickens.Cells imbedded in lipid matrix.
D.Cells within this layer proliferate
A)d,b,c,a
B)a,b,d,c
C)b,d,a,c
D)d,b,a,c
Q3) A raised scar that extends into previously normal tissue is a(n)
A)hypertrophic scar
B)keloid scar
C)granulation scar
D)epidermal scar
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Chapter 6: The Skeletal System: Bone Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mechanical stress [dropdown 1] osteoblast activity in bone,and removal of mechanical stress [dropdown 2] osteoblast activity in bone.
Optional answers for dropdown Decreases
Increases Maintains
Q2) Which hormone is the MOST important for Ca<sup>2+</sup> regulation?
A)parathyroid hormone
B)calcitriol
C)thyroid hormone
D)calcitonin
E)aldosterone
Q3) If bone is analogous to a bank,calcium is analogous to ______.
A)deposits
B)withdrawals
C)money
D)bank teller
E)automatic teller machine
Q4) Briefly describe the major differences between compact and spongy bone.
Q5) Briefly describe the steps in bone deposition.
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Chapter 7: The Skeletal System: the Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which bone forms the zygomatic arch with the zygomatic bone?
A)temporal
B)sphenoid
C)mandible
D)frontal
E)parietal
Q2) Which of the vertebrae listed below would be the largest and strongest vertebra in adult humans?
A)C5
B)L4
C)T4
D)C7
E)T12
Q3) The two primary curves of the adult vertebral column are the A)thoracic and sacral curves.
B)lumbar and sacral curves.
C)cervical and lumbar curves.
D)cervical and thoracic curves.
E)cervical and sacral curves.
Q4) Briefly describe the function of the paranasal sinuses.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the standard anatomical position,the _____ is the bone of the pelvis found the most superior.
A)ilium
B)pubis
C)ischium
D)Both ilium and ischium.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q2) Which raised line extends superiorly and laterally along the superior ramus of the pubis eventually merging with the arcuate line of the ilium?
A)pectineal line
B)ischial tuberosity
C)anterior gluteal line
D)inferior gluteal line
E)greater sciatic notch
Q3) Why does a fracture of the clavicle usually occur in the mid-region of the bone?
A)Due to the medial pressure from the inflated lungs
B)Due to the ligament-reinforced strength of the acromial joint
C)Due to weakness at the junction of the two curves of clavicle
D)Due to position of the clavicle relative to the humerus
E)Due to fusion of the ends of the clavicle to the sternum and scapula
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) The olecranon bursae are associated with the - [dropdown 1] joint.Bursae function to [dropdown 2].
Dropdown 1 choices:
Coxal
Elbow
Glenohumeral
Talocrural
Tibiofemoral
Dropdown 2 choices:
Absorb shock and help bones fit together better
Distribute weight over a great contact surface
Reduce friction between muscles and bones
Wrap around tendons to reduce friction
Q2) Gliding occurs between
A)flat bones or slightly curved bones.
B)a rounded bone and a ring.
C)an oval shaped projection and an oval shaped depression.
D)a ball like surface and a cuplike depression.
E)a convex surface and a concave surface.
Q3) What unique characteristics would a person who is "double-jointed" possess?
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Chapter 10: Muscular Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) List the four steps of the contraction cycle in order of occurrence.What is needed for these steps to continuously repeat?
Q2) Which microscopic structure is found only in the cardiac muscle tissue?
A)myosin
B)tropomyosin
C)sarcomeres
D)intercalated discs
E)striations
Q3) )Cross bridges are formed during muscle contraction when _____ binds to _____.
A)myosin;troponin
B)actin;troponin
C)myosin;actin
D)actin;myosin
E)actin;tropomyosin
Q4) Muscle damage can be indicated by
A)myoglobin found in blood.
B)few mitochondria located in muscle fibers.
C)low concentration of creatine kinase in the sarcoplasm.
D)slow myosin ATPase.
E)high amount of glycogen in the sarcoplasm.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When biting into an apple,the temporomandibular joint is the [dropdown 1] and acts like [dropdown 2] because the food is in the front of the mouth.When chewing the apple,the mandible acts like a [dropdown 3] because the food is in the middle of the lever arm.
Dropdown 1 choices: fulcrum lever load
Dropdown 2 and 3 choices: first-class lever
second-class lever third-class lever
Q2) Based on its name,which of the following best describes characteristics of the biceps femoris muscle?
A)has two insertions and found in lower leg
B)has two bellies and found in the upper leg
C)has two origins and found in the upper leg
D)has two origins and found in the upper arm
E)has two insertions and found in the upper leg
Q3) Discuss the roles of agonists,antagonists,synergists,and fixators in movement.
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the difference between spatial and temporal summation in a postsynaptic neuron.
Q2) The motor portion of the autonomic nervous system can be divided into
A)somatic and sympathetic divisions.
B)somatic and parasympathetic divisions.
C)enteric and somatic divisions.
D)sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.
E)voluntary and involuntary divisions.
Q3) What factors limit neurogenesis in the CNS of adults?
Q4) Excitatory postsynaptic potentials can occur if there is an influx of [dropdown 1] ions.Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials can occur if there is an influx of [dropdown 2 ] ions or an efflux of [dropdown 3] ions.
Dropdown 1,2 & 3 choices:
phosphate
chloride
potassium sodium
Q5) List the three major factors that contribute to the creation of the resting membrane potential in excitable cells.
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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74 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nerves that supply the thigh and calf of leg emerge from the
A)lumbar enlargement
B)filum terminale
C)cauda equina
D)conus medullaris
E)cervical enlargement
Q2) In the 400 meter relay,runners handoff the baton to the person in front of them.The second runner in the relay team had to be replaced .They were unable to pronate their forearm to reach behind for the baton because of injury to their brachial plexus.What is the most likely site of their injury?
A)Dorsal scapular nerve
B)Intercostal nerve
C)Phrenic nerve
D)Median nerve
E)Radial nerve
Q3) Name and describe the locations of the four major plexuses of spinal nerves.
Q4) Describe the gross external anatomy of the spinal cord.
Q5) Describe the cross-sectional anatomy of the spinal cord.
Q6) Identify and describe the function of each of the components of a spinal reflex arc.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which functional area of the cerebrum is responsible for the ability to form words?
A)Broca's area
B)Primary visual area
C)Common integrative area
D)Primary olfactory area
E)Primary somatosensory area
Q2) Frontal lobe damage left an individual unable to speak.What area was specifically damaged?
A)Broca's area
B)Primary gustatory area
C)Common integrative area
D)Prefrontal cortex area
E)Wernicke's area
Q3) The left cerebellar hemisphere receives information from the ___cerebral hemisphere.This type of input is considered _____.
A)Right;ipsilateral
B)Right contralateral
C)Left;ipsilateral
D)Left;contralateral
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dilation of the pupil occurs by stimulation of [dropdown 1] and constriction of the pupil occurs by stimulation of [dropdown 2]. ?<sub>1</sub>-adrenergic ?<sub>2</sub>-adrenergic ?<sub>1</sub>-adrenergic ?<sub>2</sub>-adrenergic ?<sub>3</sub>-adrenergic nicotinic muscarinic
Q2) A patient with chronic skeletal muscle spasms was placed on an anticholinergic medication.After taking the medication,the patient's muscle spasms ceased,but now the patient reports a loss of muscle strength.In addition,the patient's resting heart rate had increased.the doctor changed the medication to a lower dose and a type that specifically targets only nicotinic receptors.Explain how this could alleviate the side-effects of the first medication the patient received.
Q3) Describe the possible ways in which the axon of a sympathetic preganglionic neuron connects with postganglionic neurons after it reaches the sympathetic trunk ganglia.
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17
Chapter 16: Sensory, Motor, and Integrative Systems
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76 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which disorder is characterized by a person's breathing repeatedly stopping for 10 or more seconds while sleeping?
A)narcolepsy
B)insomnia
C)sleep apnea
D)coma
E)amnesia
Q2) Which disorder is characterized by involuntary periods of sleep that occur throughout the day?
A)narcolepsy
B)insomnia
C)sleep apnea
D)coma
E)amnesia
Q3) List the six types of sensory receptors classified based on the type of stimulus they detect and describe the types of stimuli that each type can detect.
Q4) You are sitting on a sunny Florida beach experiencing the sensation of warmth.Describe the anatomical structures and physiological events that allow you to perceive the warmth of the sun.
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) During embryonic development,the lens of the eye develops directly from an invagination of the lens placodes called the
A)optic groove.
B)optic vesicle.
C)optic stalk.
D)prosencephalon.
E)lens vesicle.
Q2) Select the correct order for the neural pathway from the inner ear to the brain. 1)inferior colliculus
2)cochlear branch nerve fibers of cranial nerve VIII
3)superior olivary nucleus in pons
4)hair cells in spiral organ
5)medial geniculate nucleus in thalamus
6)primary auditory cerebral cortex
7)cochlear nuclei in medulla oblongata
A)6,5,1,3,7,2,4
B)2,4,7,1,5,3,7
C)4,2,7,3,1,5,6
D)5,1,3,7,4,2,6
E)4,6,2,5,1,7,3
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Page 19
Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a common response of the body to long-term stress?
A)Increased lipolysis
B)Increased glycogenesis
C)Increased gluconeogenesis
D)Increased digestive activities
E)Increased breakdown of proteins
Q2) Compare and contrast the mechanisms of action of lipid-soluble versus water-soluble hormones.
Q3) How are most hormones released?
A)On a continuous,low-level basis
B)In short bursts with little or no secretion between bursts.
C)In a gradually increasing then decreasing pattern
D)Continuously at high levels
E)It depends on the immediate needs of the body
Q4) Which of the following glands is NOT an endocrine gland?
A)pituitary gland
B)thyroid gland
C)adrenal gland
D)sebaceous gland
E)pineal gland
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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: the Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Progressive liver failure may lead to serious bleeding problems due to
A)reduced production of thrombopoietin
B)a reduction in the production of platelets
C)a reduction in the cholesterol production
D)a reduction in the number of pluripotent stem cells
Q2) Anemia is defined as
A)a condition where blood does not clot properly.
B)a condition where blood cells are lysed by the immune response.
C)a condition where there is excessive bleeding.
D)a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is reduced.
E)none of these choices.
Q3) Which of the following hormones stimulates the development of megakaryoblasts?
A)Erythropoietin
B)Thrombopoietin
C)Nitric oxide
D)Human growth hormone
E)Heparin
Q4) List and briefly describe the three mechanisms used to reduce blood loss from a damaged blood vessel.
Q5) Why does damaged endothelium present an increased risk of blood clotting?
Page 21
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Chapter 20: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) The formula for calculating cardiac output (CO)is
A)heart rate multiplied by cardiac reserve
B)heart rate multiplied by end diastolic volume
C)heart rate multiplied by stroke volume
D)end diastolic volume multiplied by cardiac reserve
E)venous return multiplied by stroke volume
Q2) Positive inotropic agents often promote inflow of which cation to increase contractility of the heart?
A)sodium
B)potassium
C)magnesium
D)phosphorus
E)calcium
Q3) Discuss the common nutrient sources used by cardiac muscle to produce ATP in a resting individual.
Q4) Explain how the heart pumps blood into two separate closed circuits that are arranged in series.
Q5) Briefly describe why cardiac tissue cannot repair itself after damage?
Q6) Define arrhythmia and discuss different categories of arrhythmias.
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Chapter 21: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels and Hemodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vascular resistance depends on which of these factors? Select all that apply.
A)size of the blood vessel lumen
B)blood viscosity
C)total blood vessel length
D)glucose content of the blood
Q2) If the foramen ovale doesn't close at birth,the result will be
A)overloading the lungs with blood
B)excessive volume in the pulmonary trunk
C)a reduction of volume in the aorta
D)introducing deoxygenated blood into the systemic circulation
E)no change in the content of the systemic or pulmonary circulations
Q3) The largest driving force for pulling fluid from the interstitial spaces back into the capillaries is
A)interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure.
B)interstitial fluid osmotic pressure.
C)blood colloid osmotic pressure.
D)blood hydrostatic pressure.
E)glomerular hydrostatic pressure.
Q4) Identify and discuss the factors that contribute to systemic vascular resistance.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The level of thymic hormones
A)remains the same throughout an individual's lifetime
B)is highest just after puberty
C)is highest at maturity
D)is highest in old age
E)is highest in childhood
Q2) Which of the following is a small hormone that can stimulate or inhibit many normal cell functions?
A)Immunoglobulin
B)Kinin
C)Cytokine
D)MHC
E)Hapten
Q3) Which type of adaptive immunity will result from intravenous injection of immunoglobulins?
A)naturally acquired active immunity
B)naturally acquired passive immunity
C)artificially acquired active immunity
D)artificially acquired passive immunity
E)None of these choices
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a long drawn and deep inhalation immediately followed by a shorter but forceful exhalation?
A)sobbing
B)yawning
C)sighing
D)hiccupping
E)Valsalva maneuver
Q2) Which of the following is NOT part of the upper respiratory system?
A)Nose
B)Oral cavity
C)Pharynx
D)Trachea
E)Nasal meatuses
Q3) Which of the below tissues maintains open airways in the lower respiratory system?
A)stratified squamous epithelium with keratin
B)ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells
C)hyaline cartilage
D)mucus membrane
E)bone
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Page 25
Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of following processes is the primary function of the mouth?
A)Ingestion
B)Secretion
C)Mixing and propulsion
D)Absorption
E)None of these choices
Q2) Which of the following processes is the primary function of the villi of the small intestine?
A)Ingestion
B)Secretion
C)Mixing and propulsion
D)Absorption
E)None of these choices
Q3) Which plexus is located between the longitudinal and circular smooth muscle layers of the muscularis?
A)ENS
B)Myenteric plexus
C)Submucosal plexus
D)Digestive plexus
E)Absorption plexus
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Chapter 25: Metabolism and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) An excess intake of vitamin A is called [dropdown 1] and is characterized by several different symptoms,including [dropdown 2].
Dropdown 1 choices: hypovitaminosis A kwashiorkor marasmus
hypervitaminosis A bulimia
Dropdown 2 choices: ringing in the ears fever diabetes coma and death blindness
Q2) Why are 10 of the amino acids in the human body designated as essential amino acids?
Q3) Briefly outline the possible fates of glucose in the body.
Q4) Identify the different types of lipoproteins and describe the function of each.
Q5) Which vitamins are considered "antioxidant vitamins?" Why is this role so important?
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stress,causing excessive amounts of epinephrine secretion which stimulates glycogen breakdown,manifests as which condition? This condition can also indicate diabetes mellitus.
A)albuminuria
B)glucosuria
C)urobilinogenuria
D)hematuria
E)bilirubinuria
Q2) Urea recycling can cause a buildup of urea in the
A)renal capsule
B)nephron loop
C)ascending tubule
D)renal medulla
E)renal pelvis
Q3) The proximal convoluted tubules reabsorb what percentage of filtered water?
A)25%
B)50%
C)65%
D)80%
E)99%
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Chapter 27: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acidbase Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most abundant mineral in the body?
A)Na<sup>+</sup>
B)Calcium
C)Magnesium
D)Phosphate
E)Iron
Q2) The breathing rate of an infant
A)Is twice as fast as an adult
B)Causes greater water loss from the lungs
C)Removes less carbon dioxide than in an adult
D)Makes the infant blood more acidic
E)Is normal to an adult
Q3) Which of the following makes up the largest single component of the human body?
A)Skin
B)Water
C)Blood
D)Organs
E)Electrolytes
Q4) Describe the fluid and electrolyte disorders to which the elderly are particularly susceptible.
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Chapter 28: The Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which part of the uterus opens into the vagina?
A)Urethra
B)Cervix
C)Uterine tubes
D)Inguinal canal
E)Ovaries
Q2) Compare the surgical methods of birth control in males and in females.What do they have in common and how effective are they?
Q3) Anterior to the vagina and urethral openings is the
A)Labia majora
B)Labia minor
C)Mons pubis
D)Cervical sphincter
E)Labial frenulum
Q4) Which of the following is a fungal disease of the reproductive system?
A)Syphilis
B)Gonorrhea
C)Candidiasis
D)Genital Herpes
E)Chlamydia
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
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83 Verified Questions
83 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67083
Sample Questions
Q1) Endoderm gives rise to which of these structures?
A)Adrenal cortex
B)Gonads
C)Epithelium of the oral cavity
D)Epithelial lining of the pharynx
E)Neuroepithelium of sense organs
Q2) Which is the effector when oxytocin stimulates milk ejection?
A)glandular cells
B)plasma cells
C)neurosecretory cells
D)myoepithelial cells
E)all of these work together
Q3) Which condition listed results from an infection originating in the birth canal following childbirth and affects the mother's endometrium?
A)Emesis gravidarum
B)Puerperal fever
C)Turner's syndrome
D)Hyperemesis gravidarum
E)Klinefelter's syndrome
Q4) Describe the hormonal events surrounding parturition.
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