Sports Injury Management
Test Bank
Course Introduction
Sports Injury Management is a comprehensive course that examines the principles and practices involved in preventing, assessing, treating, and rehabilitating injuries sustained during athletic activity. Students will explore the anatomy and biomechanics relevant to common sports injuries, as well as risk factors and mechanisms of injury. The course covers immediate and long-term care strategies, including first aid, emergency response, therapeutic modalities, and rehabilitation protocols. Emphasis is placed on injury prevention, return-to-play considerations, collaboration with healthcare professionals, and ethical and legal aspects in sports injury scenarios, preparing students for roles in athletic training, coaching, and sports healthcare.
Recommended Textbook
Michlovitzs Modalities for Therapeutic Intervention 6th Edition by James W. Bellew PT EdD
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17 Chapters
315 Verified Questions
315 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter
Roles in the Patient Care Management Model
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following modalities is capable of delivering heat to tissues?
A) Intermittent compression
B) Handheld ice cups
C) Continuous ultrasound
D) TENS
Answer: C
Q2) In the patient care management model, therapeutic modalities include the use of physical agents to provide which of the following?
A) Palliative care alone
B) Therapeutic benefits
C) Discharge planning
D) Assessment of patient prognosis
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following modalities is most appropriate for the proliferative stage of tissue healing?
A) Ice massage
B) Diathermy
C) TENS
D) Cold whirlpool
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Cold Therapy Modalities
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does the presence of thick adipose tissue under the skin tend to block decreases in tissue temperature when cryotherapy is applied to the skin?
A) Adipose tissue has a low thermal conductivity.
B) Resting membrane currents are higher.
C) Adipose tissue has no thermal sensory receptors.
D) More blood flows to the skin through capillaries in adipose tissue.
Answer: A
Q2) The physiological effects of cryotherapy are primarily a result of which of the following?
A) Stimulation of free nerve endings in the skin
B) Release of vasodynamic hormones
C) Increase in nerve conduction velocity
D) Decrease in tissue temperature
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is an abnormal response to the application of cold?
A) Reddening of the skin
B) Raised, red, irregularly shaped areas on the skin
C) Numbness of the skin
D) Feelings of burning or aching of the skin
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Therapeutic Heat
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23 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The effects of heat on connective tissue include all of the following except
A) Increased elasticity
B) Increased viscosity
C) Decreased joint stiffness
D) Increased muscle flexibility
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of using heat rather than cold for patient interventions?
A) Inhibition of edema formation
B) Increased joint stiffness
C) Decreased pain
D) Increased tissue extensibility
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following physiological responses to heat will facilitate vasodilation?
A) Increased nerve conduction velocity
B) Release of histamine and prostaglandins
C) Decreased oxygen uptake by heated tissues
D) Increased blood pressure
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Therapeutic Ultrasound
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Added heat buildup at the periosteal junction of bone can occur most likely as a result of
A) Acoustic wave reflection producing standing waves
B) Acoustic wave absorption in the very dense periosteum
C) Acoustic wave refraction into bone
D) Acoustic wave absorption into bone
Q2) All of the following are true of low-intensity pulsed ultrasound (LIPUS) except A) It is delivered at much lower intensities (0.03 watts/cm²) than conventionally delivered US.
B) It is delivered via a moving applicator that contacts the skin through the regular ultrasonic gel just like other forms of US.
C) It produces fracture healing by increasing bone angiogenesis and stimulating osteogenesis.
D) Application is standardized and does not have to be set but is programmed into the applicator.
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Chapter 5: Hydrotherapy: the Use of Water As a Therapeutic Agent
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for pool therapy?
A) Fear of losing balance or sinking in water
B) History of seizures currently under control with anti-seizure medication
C) Impaired cognitive function
D) Decompensated congestive heart failure
Q2) If your patient has an in-dwelling catheter can he or she participate in pool therapy?
A) No, in-dwelling catheters are a contraindication for pool therapy.
B) Yes, however, all catheters must be removed prior to entering the pool.
C) No, patients with open wounds cannot enter a therapeutic pool.
D) Yes, however, all catheters must be clamped and fixed prior to entering the pool.
Q3) Resistance to movement when standing in a pool and performing arm-lowering exercises in the water is provided by which of the following properties of water?
A) Cohesiveness
B) Friction
C) Buoyancy
D) Density
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Chapter 6: Electromagnetic Modalities: Laser, Diathermy, and
Pulsed Electromagnetic Fields
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about electromagnetic energy?
A) Has matter that is equal in mass to its frequency
B) Transfers heat via conduction
C) Travels through space without a transport medium
D) Requires contact with the body or another conducting pathway
Q2) You have decided to use LLLT for treatment of lateral epicondylitis. Which of the following lasers is the best choice for absorption of light energy in the tissues attached to the lateral epicondyle at a depth of 2 to 3 millimeters from the skin?
A) HeNe red laser at 632 nm
B) GaAs infrared laser at 830 nm
C) GaAl laser at 930 nm
D) Nd-YAG pulsed laser at 1,200 nm
Q3) The physiological effect of low-level laser therapy (LLLT) can be attributed to which of the following?
A) Thermal effects on treated tissues
B) Activation of photosensitive neurons in the dermis
C) Photochemical activation of enzymes that catalyze processing of molecular substrates
D) Vasodilation of capillary beds
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Spinal Traction
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A recently published clinical prediction rule for cervical traction includes which of the following?
A) Positive shoulder abduction test
B) Age of 50 years or younger
C) Negative upper limb tension test
D) Increased symptoms with manual distraction
Q2) How much traction force is required to overcome friction of the lower body when doing lumbar traction?
A) One-half to three-quarters of body weight
B) Approximately 20 pounds
C) Up to approximately one-half of body weight
D) Greater than 150 pounds
Q3) Which of the following lists contains only contraindications or precautions for traction?
A) Spinal instability, uncontrolled hypertension, claustrophobia
B) Infection, osteoarthritis, hiatal hernia
C) Rheumatoid arthritis, facet joint capsulitis, upper extremity radiculopathy
D) Spine cancer, hiatal hernia, herniated nucleus pulposus
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9
Chapter 8: Intermittent Pneumatic Compression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following circumference measurements of the limb must be recorded prior to treatment?
A) 2 cm proximal and 6 cm distal to the garment
B) Every 10 cm from bony landmarks
C) Proximal and distal to the garment
D) Every centimeter of the limb to be treated
Q2) What should you do if your patient complains of numbness or tingling of her distal extremity during IPC?
A) Instruct the patient to contract her muscles in the garment to decrease this sensation.
B) Stop treatment and check for possible deep vein thrombosis or nerve compression.
C) Decrease elevation of the limb and adjust parameters until the sensation subsides.
D) This is a normal response to IPC and there is no cause for concern.
Q3) Which of the following is a common benign response following an IPC treatment?
A) Slight transient dizziness and unsteadiness
B) Numbness of the extremity
C) Persistent shortness of breath for several hours
D) Depressed circumferential lines on limb
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Chapter 9: Foundations of Clinical Electrotherapy
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Ohm's law, when using a device that has a constant voltage, what will happen to the current when the skin resistance increases?
A) The current increases.
B) The patient will feel a short-duration shock.
C) There is no change in current.
D) The current decreases.
Q2) Which of the following is the correct description of "charge"?
A) An object that has an equal number of protons and electrons
B) Movement of a current along a conductor
C) Gain or loss of protons by an atom
D) Addition or removal of electrons, creating an electromagnetic force
Q3) What can be done clinically to decrease impedance between the electrode and the skin?
A) Use smaller electrodes to disperse the current over a smaller area.
B) Use electrodes with gel or adhesive conductive agents.
C) Apply a thin layer of dry gauze between the electrode and the skin.
D) Strap electrodes tightly to the skin or place a sandbag on top of the electrode.
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11
Chapter 10: Clinical Electrical Stimulation: Application and Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following will occur in a constant current (CC) device if the resistance to current flow in biological tissues increases?
A) Voltage will increase.
B) Current will increase.
C) Voltage will decrease.
D) Current will increase
Q2) What is a "motor point"?
A) Location of receptors in the skin that best respond to electrical stimulation
B) Place where the greatest motor response is found for a given amount of stimulation
C) Point over a muscle where point stimulation will locate greatest resistance to current
D) Hypothetical location of alpha motor neuron in the muscle
Q3) Which pair of parameters is most commonly varied or manipulated to elicit the various forms of TENS such as conventional, acupuncture, and burst train?
A) Frequency and amplitude
B) Frequency and rise time
C) Frequency and pulse duration
D) Pulse duration and waveform shape
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Mechanisms of Pain and Use of Therapeutic Modalities
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the three most common parameters used to provide the different modes of TENS?
A) Current waveform, pulse frequency, and fall time
B) Pulse frequency, pulse duration, and current amplitude
C) Current amplitude, pulse duration, and carrier frequency
D) Pulse duration, pulse frequency, and waveform shape
Q2) Modulation of the beat frequency when using interferential current is known as which of the following?
A) Swing
B) Sweep
C) Scan
D) Swift
Q3) Which of the following may occur with the co-administration of opioid medication and TENS?
A) Analgesic tolerance
B) Central inhibition
C) Pain gating
D) Descending facilitation
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Chapter 12: Therapeutic Modalities for Improving Range of Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) For a patient having undergone ankle immobilization following a sprain, which of the following clinical measures best supports the administration of therapeutic modalities?
A) Active range of motion (AROM) ankle dorsiflexion of +2 degrees
B) AROM ankle inversion of 40 degrees
C) 4+/5 strength of the ankle evertors
D) Decreased stance time during gait
Q2) Which of the following best describes the "stretch window," or the optimal time in which to stretch following heating of a tissue?
A) A period of time in which tissue temperature will continue to rise and stretching should be done following this waiting period
B) A period of time in which stretching should be applied, as the change in tissue temperature is likely at peak
C) A period of time in which metabolic activity of the tissues is greatest, thus stretching has the greatest opportunity to increases tissue healing
D) A period of time in which strengthening exercises are recommended due to increased blood flow in the area heated
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14
Chapter 13: Electrotherapy for Musculoskeletal Disorders
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following parameters can be decreased to help limit fatigue during NMES?
A) Frequency
B) Fall-time
C) Off-time
D) Interpulse interval
Q2) During NMES, what pattern of recruitment of motor units will most likely occur?
A) Spatial and temporal
B) Smallest to largest
C) Largest to smallest
D) Only the largest motor units will be recruited.
Q3) Research studies on the effect of NMES on quadriceps strength following anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction found increased strength in the quadriceps using which of the following stimulation intensities?
A) 10% below muscle contraction
B) 50% of maximum voluntary contraction
C) 100% maximum voluntary contraction
D) Maximum tolerated current
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15
Chapter 14: Neuromuscular Electrical Stimulation Nmes
and Functional Electrical Stimulation Fes in Patients With
Neurological Diagnoses
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16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is known about the use of biofeedback for patients who have had a stroke?
A) Current evidence does not show support.
B) Studies confirm it is useful for recovery.
C) It is ineffective for stroke victims because of spasticity.
D) It can be combined with NMES for retraining of gait.
Q2) Studies have shown that FES for upper extremity function has been effective in facilitating functional use of the extremity in which of the following patient populations?
A) Those who have had a stroke
B) Those with traumatic brain injury
C) Those having a spinal cord injury
D) All of the above
Q3) NMES applied to the antagonist muscle for patients with spasticity will reduce spasticity based on which of the following theories?
A) Reciprocal inhibition of the spastic agonist muscle
B) Recurrent inhibition via Renshaw cells
C) Sensory habituation of the antagonist muscle
Page 16
D) Facilitation of parasympathetic neurons in the limb
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Chapter 15: Therapeutic Modalities for Tissue Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of the minimal erythema dose (MED) test?
A) To calibrate the UV light with the wavelength of the skin's radiation
B) To determine the time at which a mild sunburn is produced
C) To determine the depth of penetration of the UV light
D) To calculate the dosage required to raise the temperature of the skin 2°C
Q2) The role of the inflammatory process that occurs following soft tissue injury can best be described as
A) Excessive and counterproductive to healing
B) Critical for successful tissue healing
C) Inadequate to promote scar formation
D) Required so the central nervous system (CNS) can produce mucopolysaccharides
Q3) Which of the following is a proposed mechanical effect of intermittent pneumatic compression (IPC) that promotes wound healing?
A) Increased peak blood flow velocity
B) Decreased arterial blood pressure
C) Increased venous blood pressure
D) Decreased oxygenated blood
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Chapter 16: Alternative Modalities for Pain and Tissue
Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) There is some evidence that therapeutic magnets may be effective for treatment of which of the following?
A) Diabetic peripheral neuropathy
B) Urinary incontinence
C) Chronic low back pain
D) Osteoarthritis of the knees
Q2) Which of the following is a likely explanation of the physiological effects of pulsed magnetic fields?
A) Inhibition of interstitial edema and facilitation of ribonucleic acid (RNA) formation
B) Movement of ions across cell membranes and stimulation of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) transcription
C) Increased release of inflammatory hormones and facilitation of fibrinogenesis
D) Facilitation of nerve conduction velocity and release of endogenous substrates
Q3) Which of the following is a contraindication for ESWT?
A) Peripheral neuropathy
B) Use of blood thinner medications
C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
D) Osteoarthritis
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Chapter 17: Electrophysiological Testing of Nerves and Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) An examiner performing an NCS on a patient notes that the upper extremity nerve conduction velocities are about 5 to 10 meters per second faster than the lower extremity nerves. What is the correct interpretation of this finding?
A) This indicates a neuropathy affecting only the upper extremity nerves.
B) This is an abnormal finding likely caused by practitioner error in performance of the test.
C) This indicates a neuropathy affecting only the lower extremity nerves.
D) This is a normal finding.
Q2) Why must an ENMG examination be delayed until about 21 days after an axonopathy?
A) Three weeks is the approximate amount of time needed for Wallerian degeneration of the nerve to proceed.
B) It takes about 3 weeks for axons to begin regeneration.
C) Anterior horn cells will restore axoplasmic flow after 21 days.
D) It takes about 3 weeks for post-injury inflammation to subside.
Q3) Which of the following are primary indicators of demyelination of a nerve?
A) Positive sharp waves and decreased sensory and muscle action potentials
B) Prolonged distal latencies and slowing of nerve conduction velocity
C) Decreased amplitude and blocked nerve conduction
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D) Shorter distal latencies and increased nerve conduction velocity
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