Speech-Language Pathology Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Speech-Language Pathology is a specialized field focused on the assessment, diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of speech, language, communication, and swallowing disorders in individuals of all ages. This course explores foundational theories, scientific principles, and clinical techniques used by speech-language pathologists to address diverse communicative and swallowing challenges. Through a combination of theoretical instruction and practical application, students gain insight into normal and disordered communication processes, intervention strategies, ethical considerations, and the collaborative role of speech-language pathologists within interdisciplinary healthcare and educational teams.
Recommended Textbook
Cleft Palate and Craniofacial Anomalies Effects on Speech and Resonance 3rd Edition by Ann W.
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24 Chapters
372 Verified Questions
372 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Anatomy and Physiology
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) At what vertical level is the greatest medial displacement of the lateral pharyngeal walls during oral speech production?
A)Vocal folds
B)Epiglottis
C)Base of tongue
D)Hard palate
E)Upper esophageal sphincter
Answer: D
Q2) Where are the palatine tonsils located?
A)Between the faucial pillars
B)Behind the choanae
C)Above the velum
D)In the nasopharynx
E)At the base of the tongue
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Clefts of the Lip and Palate
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can cause a facial cleft?
A)Micrognathia
B)Amniotic bands
C)Crowding in utero
D)Glossoptosis
E)Forme fruste
Answer: B
Q2) Which type of cleft includes the velum and hard palate, but stops at the incisive foramen?
A)Complete cleft of the primary palate
B)Incomplete cleft of the secondary palate
C)Posterior cleft of the secondary palate
D)Complete cleft of the secondary palate
E)Incomplete cleft of the primary palate
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: The Genetics Evaluation and Common
Craniofacial
Syndromes
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2 Verified Questions
2 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cleft palate rather than cleft lip) is more likely to be associated with which of the following?
A)Deformations
B)Malformations
C)Disruptions
D)Associations
E)Other congenital anomalies
Answer: B
Q2) What is failure of the brain to divide into two separate hemispheres called?
A)Hydrocephaly
B)Macrocephaly
C)Holoprosencephaly
D)Microcephaly
E)Unicephaly
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Genetics and Patterns of Inheritance
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the recurrence risk for parents of a child with nonsyndromic cleft lip and/or palate with their next pregnancy?
A)3% to 5%
B)25% to 50%
C)30% to 45%
D)10% to 15%
E)5% to 10%
Q2) Which of the following describes traits that manifest only when mutations are present in both copies of a gene?
A)Dominant traits
B)Recessive traits
C)Heterogeneous traits
D)Homogenous traits
E)Autosomal dominant traits
Q3) Which of the following results in Down syndrome?
A)Monosomy 22
B)Trisomy 21
C)Trisomy 23
D)Trisomy 13
E)Trisomy 16
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Chapter 5: Feeding Problems of Infantswith Clefts or
Craniofacial Anomalies
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of a nonnutritive stimulation?
A)To heighten sensory awareness
B)To facilitate oral motor action
C)To help prevent development of oral aversion
D)To elicit a sucking response
E)All of the above
Q2) As the infant grows, which of the following structures does not descend?
A)Velum
B)Epiglottis
C)Hyoid
D)Larynx
E)Vocal cords
Q3) Which of the following structures is not actively involved in the physical act of sucking?
A)Jaw
B)Cheeks
C)Lips
D)Maxilla
E)Tongue
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Chapter 6: Developmental Aspects:speech, Language, and Cognition
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are common phonemic substitutions used by children who have an unrepaired cleft palate?
A)Glides for liquids
B)Nasals for orals
C)Glottal stops for plosive stops
D)b and c
E)a, b, and c
Q2) Which of the following is not true about children with palate only?
A)They are more likely to have deficits in prelanguage skills than their peers.
B)They tend to have the same scores in verbal performance as in nonverbal performance on standardized tests.
C)They may receive more early stimulation than their unaffected peers.
D)They are at increased risk for syndromes.
E)They often have language and learning problems.
Q3) What is the most important requirement for speech and language learning?
A)Environmental stimulation
B)Motivation
C)Intelligence
D)Adequate hearing
E)Normal oral structure
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Resonance Disorders Andvelopharyngeal
Dysfunction Vpd
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which speech characteristics are most likely to occur with a very large velopharyngeal opening?
A)Significant audible nasal emission
B)Hypernasality and audible nasal emission
C)A loud and distorting nasal rustle
D)Hypernasality and inaudible nasal emission
E)Pharyngeal fricatives
Q2) Cul-de-sac resonance can be due to which of the following?
A)Adenoidectomy
B)Tonsillectomy
C)Enlarged tonsils
D)Enlarged adenoids
E)A fistula
Q3) Which of the following is an obligatory distortion?
A)Generalized backing
B)Nasalization of vowels
C)Velar fricative
D)Nasal sniff
E)Pharyngeal fricative
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Chapter 8: Facial, Oral and Pharyngeal Anomalies
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following has a potential to have a negative effect on resonance?
A)Tonsillectomy
B)Adenoidectomy
C)Frenulectomy
D)Glossectomy
E)Mandibular advancement
Q2) Which of the following is not used as a treatment for upper airway obstruction in children?
A)Tonsillectomy
B)Adenoidectomy
C)Tracheostomy
D)Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty
E)CPAP
Q3) What is a common cause of acute otitis media?
A)Eustachian tube malfunction
B)Enlarged tonsils
C)Cleft palate
D)Cleft lip
E)Tympanic membrane malfunction
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Dental Anomalies
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for when the upper teeth are lingual to the lower teeth?
A)Labioversion
B)UnderJet
C)OverJet
D)Overbite
E)Diastema
Q2) What is the term that describes the part of the dental arch that is posterior to the canine teeth?
A)Labial
B)Buccal
C)Mesial
D)Distal
E)Lingual
Q3) Which of the following would be considered a compensatory error due to a Class III malocclusion?
A)Frontal lisp
B)Lateral lisp
C)Pharyngeal fricative
D)Glottal stop
E)Velar fricative
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Chapter 10: Psychosocial Aspects Ofcleft Lippalate and
Craniofacial Anomalies
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What causes "stigma" for individuals with craniofacial anomalies?
A)The deviation from cultural standards of beauty
B)Deliberate negative intent by unaffected people
C)Compensatory activities of unaffected individuals, such as being unusually indulgent or helpful
D)Extra awareness of the affected individuals by those who are unaffected
E)All of the above
Q2) Why is elementary school difficult for children with clefts?
A)Teachers tend to reject them more often compared to unaffected classmates.
B)They often have communication deficits related to their speech skills.
C)They have higher levels of anxiety compared to their unaffected peers.
D)They have lengthy absences for surgeries.
E)All of the above
Q3) Which syndrome is not typically associated with intellectual impairment relative to unaffected peers?
A)Apert's syndrome
B)Smith-Lemli-Opitz syndrome
C)Treacher Collins syndrome
D)Velocardofacial syndrome
E)Fetal alcohol syndrome
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Speech and Resonance Assessment
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To an inexperienced listener, a pharyngeal fricative can sound similar to which of the following?
A)Lateral lisp
B)Frontal lisp
C)Palatal-dorsal production
D)Bilabial fricative
E)Labiodental fricative
Q2) Surgery is never indicated for which of the following?
A)Velopharyngeal insufficiency
B)Velopharyngeal incompetence
C)Velopharyngeal mislearning
D)A symptomatic fistula
E)An occult submucous cleft
Q3) When evaluating nasal emission, the speech sample should have many of which type of phonemes?
A)High vowels
B)Back vowels
C)Voiceless consonants
D)Voice consonants
E)Plosives
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Chapter 12: Orofacial Examination
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the velum appears "V" shaped" during phonation, what does this suggest?
A)Malformed tensor veli palatini muscle
B)Submucous cleft
C)Torus palatinus
D)Passavant's ridge
E)Abnormal attachment of the musculus uvulae muscle
Q2) What is the typical cause of asymmetrical movement of the velum during phonation?
A)Velar paralysis or paresis
B)A submucous cleft
C)Adenoid hypertrophy
D)Velopharyngeal hypotonia
E)Anterior attachment of the levator muscle
Q3) An intraoral evaluation reveals a bifid uvula.Which of the following statements is true?
A)Resonance will be hypernasal
B)A tonsillectomy is contraindicated
C)The child will have nasal emission
D)The child may have normal velopharyngeal function
E)The child will have velopharyngeal incompetence
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Chapter 14: Nasometry
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true about interpretation of nasalance?
A)Normal oral resonance is typically under 20 percentage points.
B)If lingual-alveolars and bilabials are significantly higher than velars, this could be due to an oronasal fistula.
C)Articulation errors can affect the nasalance score.
D)The higher the contour is on the screen, the more hyponasality to expect.
E)The nasalance score can be in the normal range with mild nasal emission.
Q2) High vowels have more nasal resonance than low vowels due to which of the following?
A)Shape of the pharynx
B)Frequency of the vowel
C)Greater incidence of velopharyngeal insufficiency
D)Tongue position in the oral cavity
E)Larger oral cavity size
Q3) What does a low nasalance score typically indicate?
A)Nasal emission
B)Nasal rustle
C)Hypernasality
D)Hyponasality
E)Cul-de-sac resonance
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Chapter 15: Speech Aerodynamics
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does a pneumotachograph measure?
A)Volume of airflow
B)Rate of airflow
C)Air pressure
D)Nasal air resistance
E)Acoustics of airflow
Q2) Which of the following should always be considered when assessing the status of the nasal airway in children?
A)Size of the child
B)Weight of the child
C)Age of the child
D)Opening to the nasal vestibule
E)History of allergies
Q3) Which of the following causes the rapid displacement of the vocal folds during speech?
A)Hypopharyngeal airflow
B)Subglottic air pressure
C)Vocal fold vibration
D)Decrease in air pressure
E)Phonation
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Chapter 16: Videofluoroscopy
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When there is greater attenuation during radiography, which of the following is true?
A)The image is near the black end of the spectrum
B)More radiation particles will reach the film
C)Fewer radiation particles will reach the image
D)There is more exposure
E)b and d
Q2) Which view shows the velum and posterior pharyngeal wall?
A)Lateral view
B)Frontal view
C)Base view
D)Oblique view
E)Towne's view
Q3) What is needed to adequately image a three-dimensional volume structure adequately?
A)Include three mutually perpendicular planes
B)Increase the level of radiation for better resolution
C)Include the base plane to see the entire port
D)Do a 360º rotation
E)b and c
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Chapter 17: Nasopharyngoscopy
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following should not be done prior to inserting the scope?
A)Have the child blow his nose
B)Check the image on the camera
C)Put lidocaine gel on the scope
D)Put the child in a supine position
E)Spray the nose with a decongestant
Q2) A disadvantage of nasopharyngoscopy is that it does not allow the examiner to see which of the following?
A)Adenoid tissue
B)Nasal surface of velum
C)Length of the posterior pharyngeal wall
D)Oronasal fistula
E)Vocal cords
Q3) Which of the following suggests the presence of a small velopharyngeal opening?
A)Bubbling of secretions
B)Irregularity of the posterior part of the velum
C)Irregular adenoid tissue
D)A small black circle
E)Visible airflow through the valve
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Page 18
Chapter 18: Surgical Management of Clefts and
Velopharyngeal
Insufficiencyincompetence
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Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The earliest that a pharyngoplasty is usually done is at what age?
A)1 to 2 years
B)2 to 2½ years
C)2½ to 3 years
D)3½ to 4 years
E)5 to 6 years
Q2) When is a cheiloplasty usually performed?
A)Right after birth
B)3 to 4 weeks
C)5 to 6 weeks
D)10 to 12 weeks
E)16 to 18 weeks
Q3) What procedure is used for aligning the maxillary segments prior to formal surgery for unilateral and bilateral clefts?
A)Taping the lip
B)Dental elastics
C)Latham appliance
D)Lip adhesion
E)All of the above
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Chapter 19: Orthognathic Surgery for Craniofacial
Conditions
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes the procedure where a partial cut is made in the middle of a bone and then the segments are slowly pulled apart to allow new bone to regenerate in the space?
A)Le Fort advancement
B)Distraction osteogenesis
C)Bone graft
D)Osteotomy
E)Gingivoperiosteoplasty
Q2) At what ages is the facial skeleton usually mature enough for secondary orthognathic surgery?
A)Girls: 11 years; boys: 13 years
B)Girls: 12 years; boys: 14 years
C)Girls: 13 years; boys: 15years
D)Girls: 14 years; boys: 16 years
E)Girls: 15 years; boys: 17 years
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Chapter 20: Prosthetic Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A feeding obturator is not capable of which of the following?
A)Helping an infant to achieve suction
B)Keeping the tongue from resting inside of the cleft
C)Covering an infant's unrepaired cleft during feeding
D)Separating the oral cavity from the nasal cavity
E)Reducing regurgitation into the nasal cavity
Q2) With a palatal lift, which part of the appliance holds the velum in place?
A)Body
B)Tail
C)Mid-piece
D)Prongs
E)Bar
Q3) When working directly with the prosthodontist to modify an appliance for best results, what procedure is most effective to use?
A)Perceptual assessment
B)Nasopharyngoscopy
C)Nasometry
D)Intraoral examination
E)Videofluoroscopy
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Chapter 21: Speech Therapy
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about obligatory distortions?
A)They commonly occur with structural anomalies in the vocal tract.
B)They can be corrected with speech therapy.
C)Manner is maintained, but placement is altered.
D)One type of obligatory distortion is the glottal stop.
E)They always cause nasal emission.
Q2) Which of the following can be corrected with speech therapy?
A)Short utterance length
B)Phoneme-specific nasal emission
C)Nasal grimace
D)Hypernasality
E)Weak consonants
Q3) Which of the following will most affect the success of motor learning and motor memory for speech?
A)Auditory memory
B)Auditory perception and discrimination
C)Frequency of speech therapy
D)Use of oral-motor exercises
E)Feedback and frequent practice
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Page 22
Chapter 22: The Team Approach
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Sample Questions
Q1) The team's primary contact person for the family is usually which of the following?
A)Primary care physician
B)Pediatrician
C)Family doctor
D)Managing surgeon
E)Team coordinator
Q2) Most of the managed care organizations exist as which of the following?
A)For-profit corporations
B)Not-for-profit organizations
C)Third-party administrators
D)Preferred providers PPOs.
E)Government-run providers
Q3) One standard requirement for meeting the ACPA standards is that each Cleft Palate Team must have which of the following:
A)Coordinator
B)Geneticist
C)Psychologist
D)Pulmonologist
E)Medical records specialist
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Page 23
Chapter 23: Cleft Care in Developing Countries
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Sample Questions
Q1) In 1997, the International Task Force on Volunteer Cleft Missions outlined recommendations for volunteer cleft missions based on which of the following?
A)Mission objectives
B)Organization
C)Personal health and liability
D)Funding
E)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A)The prevalence of clefts does not vary with geography.
B)Poverty is the only reason children in developing countries do not have access to care.
C)Interpreters should be given some written "scripts" prior to the evaluations.
D)The main mission of international organizations is to provide direct surgical care to affected children.
E)c and d
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24
Chapter 24: Velopharyngeal Dysfunction and Speech Disorders
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nasal emission is most audible on which of the following sounds?
A)Nasal sounds
B)Voiceless consonants
C)Vowels
D)Voiced continuents
E)Voiced plosives
Q2) Upon examination, the child demonstrates the use of nasal phonemes and glottal stops for all speech sounds.What is the most appropriate recommendation?
A)A trial period of speech therapy
B)A prosthetic device on a trial basis
C)Referral to an ENT for evaluation
D)Referral to a cleft palate team
Q3) Pierre Robin sequence typically includes which of the following characteristics at birth?
A)Cleft palate, micrognathia, airway obstruction
B)Cleft palate, prognathia, glossoptosis
C)Cleft palate, ankyloglossia, airway obstruction
D)Micrognathia, glossoptosis, ankyloglossia
E)Cleft lip and palate, micrognathia, glossoptosis
Page 25
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