

Speech Disorders in Special Populations
Practice Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth examination of speech disorders observed in special populations, including individuals with developmental disabilities, neurological impairments, genetic syndromes, and sensory deficits. Students will explore the etiologies, assessment procedures, and intervention strategies for various speech disorders such as articulation, fluency, and voice disorders within these groups. Emphasis is placed on understanding the unique communication needs and challenges faced by these populations, and on designing individualized and culturally sensitive treatment plans. The course also covers interdisciplinary collaboration and equips students with evidence-based approaches for supporting speech and language development in both clinical and educational settings.
Recommended Textbook
Cleft Palate and Craniofacial Anomalies Effects on Speech and Resonance 3rd Edition by Ann W.
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
24 Chapters
372 Verified Questions
372 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3526 Page 2


Chapter 1: Anatomy and Physiology
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70043
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is considered a pneumatic activity?
A)Swallowing
B)Sucking
C)Gagging
D)Vomiting
E)Chewing
Answer: B
Q2) The philtrum runs between which two structures?
A)The nasal tip and the tubercle
B)The nasal tip and the columella
C)The columella and the tubercle
D)The columella and the upper lip
E)The cupid's bow and the tubercle
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Clefts of the Lip and Palate
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following accurately describes a Simonart's Band?
A)A partial or arrested form of a cleft lip
B)A bilateral incomplete cleft of the lip
C)A strand of soft tissue in the area of the cleft palate
D)The philtral tissue segment that is isolated due to the bilateral cleft
E)A band of placental tissue that disrupts embryological development
Answer: C
Q2) Which race has the highest prevalence of clefts?
A)Africans
B)Asians
C)Caucasians
D)Native Americans
E)Indians
Answer: D
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4

Chapter 3: The Genetics Evaluation and Common
Craniofacial
Syndromes
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2 Verified Questions
2 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70041
Sample Questions
Q1) What is failure of the brain to divide into two separate hemispheres called?
A)Hydrocephaly
B)Macrocephaly
C)Holoprosencephaly
D)Microcephaly
E)Unicephaly
Answer: C
Q2) Cleft palate rather than cleft lip) is more likely to be associated with which of the following?
A)Deformations
B)Malformations
C)Disruptions
D)Associations
E)Other congenital anomalies
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Genetics and Patterns of Inheritance
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70040
Sample Questions
Q1) What term is used to describe having two different alleles of a gene for a particular trait?
A)Homozygous
B)Phenotypic
C)Autosomal dominant
D)Heterozygous
E)Multifactorial
Q2) A woman and her husband are both heterozygous carriers of an autosomal recessive condition. What is the possibility that their offspring will have the condition?
A)0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
E)100%
Q3) Which of the following is not a rule of inheritance that Mendel described?
A)All alleles are dominant
B)Variations of genes are referred to as alleles
C)We get one gene from each parent
D)Alleles segregate from each other at meiosis
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Page 6

Chapter 5: Feeding Problems of Infantswith Clefts or
Craniofacial Anomalies
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is described as "assisted fluid delivery"?
A)Use of nasogastric feeding to supplement volume of intake
B)Use of gastrostomy tube feedings following oral intake
C)Use of gentle squeezing of a nipple or flexible bottle during feeding to deliver fluid
D)Use of a crosscut nipple to increase flow of fluid during sucking
E)Use of a tube in addition to breast feeding
Q2) Which of the following are essential for normal feeding?
A)Nipple compression
B)Generation of positive pressure suction
C)Generation of negative pressure suction
D)a and b
E)a and c
Q3) As the infant grows, which of the following structures does not descend?
A)Velum
B)Epiglottis
C)Hyoid
D)Larynx
E)Vocal cords
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Chapter 6: Developmental Aspects:speech, Language, and Cognition
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70038
Sample Questions
Q1) An infant with a cleft palate will tend to produce a predominance of what type of consonants?
A)Glottals and velars
B)Plosives
C)Fricatives and affricates
D)Liquids
E)Glides
Q2) Infants associate the physical movement of sound production with auditory results through which of the following?
A)Cooing and babbling system
B)Taking turns and external stimulation
C)Tactile-kinesthetic and auditory feedback loop
D)Speech stimulation of the caregivers
E)Contrasting voiced and voiceless phonemes
Q3) What is the most important requirement for speech and language learning?
A)Environmental stimulation
B)Motivation
C)Intelligence
D)Adequate hearing
E)Normal oral structure
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Chapter 7: Resonance Disorders Andvelopharyngeal
Dysfunction Vpd
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70037
Sample Questions
Q1) Velopharyngeal incompetence can be due to which of the following?
A)A velar fistula
B)A thin velum
C)Velar paresis
D)Enlarged tonsils
E)Irregular adenoids
Q2) Which of the following occurs during the production or pressure-sensitive sounds?
A)Hyponasality
B)Hypernasality
C)Nasal air emission
D)Mixed resonance
E)Cul-de-sac resonance
Q3) Which of the following is not caused by significant nasal emission?
A)Short utterance length
B)Compensatory errors
C)Nasal grimace
D)Hypernasality
E)Weak consonants
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Chapter 8: Facial, Oral and Pharyngeal Anomalies
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70036
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following has a potential to have a negative effect on resonance?
A)Tonsillectomy
B)Adenoidectomy
C)Frenulectomy
D)Glossectomy
E)Mandibular advancement
Q2) Inner ear abnormalities typically cause which type of hearing loss?
A)Conductive
B)Profound
C)Sensorineural
D)Mild
E)Moderate
Q3) A frenulectomy is most often indicated for which of the following?
A)Speech difficulties
B)Feeding difficulties
C)Dental difficulties
D)Cosmetic concerns
E)Medical concerns
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10
Chapter 9: Dental Anomalies
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70035
Sample Questions
Q1) What group of sounds is most commonly affected by dental abnormalities?
A)Sibilants
B)Stops
C)Nasals
D)Velars
E)Glottals
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of buccal crossbite?
A)Occurs when the lingual cusps of all the maxillary posterior teeth are buccal to the mandibular teeth
B)Involves any combination of teeth distal to the canines and usually occurs because the maxilla is too narrow
C)Occurs when one or more maxillary teeth are positioned buccally such that the maxillary lingual cusps reside buccal to the mandibular cusps
D)All of the above
E)None of the above
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11

Chapter 10: Psychosocial Aspects Ofcleft Lippalate and
Craniofacial Anomalies
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about children with clefts?
A)They see themselves as less acceptable than their peers.
B)They view themselves as positively as their typical peers if the cleft is invisible, such as in cleft palate only.
C)They are more satisfied with their appearance when they are younger than when they are teens.
D)They become more socially competent than their peers to compensate for their differences.
E)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is true about teasing of children who have craniofacial anomalies?
A)It is correlated with the degree of difference in their facial appearance.
B)It appears to be an inevitable part of growing up with facial differences.
C)It can be altered by the child's personality style.
D)It persists well into adulthood for most affected individuals.
E)All of the above
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Chapter 11: Speech and Resonance Assessment
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70033
Sample Questions
Q1) To an inexperienced listener, a pharyngeal fricative can sound similar to which of the following?
A)Lateral lisp
B)Frontal lisp
C)Palatal-dorsal production
D)Bilabial fricative
E)Labiodental fricative
Q2) In the first year of life, what are the primary speech pathology concerns for a child with a Pierre Robin sequence?
A)Receptive language
B)Velopharyngeal function
C)Feeding and prerequisites for verbal communication
D)Quality of communication
E)Quantity of communication
Q3) What is a recommended procedure to elicit speech in a child that is reticent?
A)Have the child repeat single words rather than sentences
B)Ask the child to name pictures
C)Ask open-ended questions
D)Ask either/or questions
E)Wait for the child to talk spontaneously
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Chapter 12: Orofacial Examination
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70032
Sample Questions
Q1) The area where the levator veli palatini muscle interdigitates in the velum is known as which of the following?
A)Median palatine raphe
B)Velar dimple
C)Torus palatinus
D)Zona pellucida
E)Uvula
Q2) What are infections acquired in the hospital called?
A)Nosocomial infections
B)Acquired infections
C)Microbial infections
D)Septic infections
E)Influenzacoccal infections
Q3) What can cause the velum to "tent up" in an inverted V shape during phonation?
A)Levator veli palatini muscles inserting into the aponeurosis
B)Paralysis of the posterior part of the velum
C)Levator veli palatini muscles inserting onto the hard palate
D)Paralysis of the levator veli palatini muscles
E)Palatopharyngeus muscle inserting abnormally into the velum
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Page 14

Chapter 14: Nasometry
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70030
Sample Questions
Q1) High vowels have more nasal resonance than low vowels due to which of the following?
A)Shape of the pharynx
B)Frequency of the vowel
C)Greater incidence of velopharyngeal insufficiency
D)Tongue position in the oral cavity
E)Larger oral cavity size
Q2) Which of the following was the first instrument developed to measure nasal and oral acoustic energy?
A)Nasometer
B)OroNasal System
C)TONAR
D)NasalView
E)Aerodynamic instrumentation
Q3) What does a low nasalance score typically indicate?
A)Nasal emission
B)Nasal rustle
C)Hypernasality
D)Hyponasality
E)Cul-de-sac resonance
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Chapter 15: Speech Aerodynamics
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70029
Sample Questions
Q1) What does the orifice equation use to calculate minimal cross-sectional area of the velopharyngeal port?
A)Simultaneous measures of the differential pressure across the orifice and rate of airflow
B)The correction factor h
C)Differential pressure across the orifice divided by the rate of airflow
D)The increase in airflow and increase in air pressure across the orifice
E)The pressure drop across the orifice and increase in oral airflow
Q2) Which of the following cannot be determined by aerodynamic methods?
A)Timing aspects of velopharyngeal function
B)Extent of nasal emission
C)Patency of the nasal airways during breathing
D)Estimates velopharyngeal orifice size
E)Severity of hypernasality
Q3) Which procedure measures airway resistance in the nasal cavity?
A)Nasometry
B)Manometry
C)Rhinomanometry
D)Polysomnography
E)Nasendoscopy
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Chapter 16: Videofluoroscopy
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70028
Sample Questions
Q1) When there is greater attenuation during radiography, which of the following is true?
A)The image is near the black end of the spectrum
B)More radiation particles will reach the film
C)Fewer radiation particles will reach the image
D)There is more exposure
E)b and d
Q2) Which view shows the velum and posterior pharyngeal wall?
A)Lateral view
B)Frontal view
C)Base view
D)Oblique view
E)Towne's view
Q3) Simultaneous audio recording of speech is done with which of the following?
A)Cephalometric X-ray
B)MRI
C)Videofluoroscopy
D)Ultrasound
E)c and d
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17

Chapter 17: Nasopharyngoscopy
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70027
Sample Questions
Q1) For surgical planning, what is the most important finding through nasopharyngoscopy?
A)Size of the opening
B)Shape of the opening
C)Location of the opening
D)Timing of closure
E)Pattern of closure
Q2) A disadvantage of nasopharyngoscopy is that it does not allow the examiner to see which of the following?
A)Adenoid tissue
B)Nasal surface of velum
C)Length of the posterior pharyngeal wall
D)Oronasal fistula
E)Vocal cords
Q3) Which of the following suggests the presence of a small velopharyngeal opening?
A)Bubbling of secretions
B)Irregularity of the posterior part of the velum
C)Irregular adenoid tissue
D)A small black circle
E)Visible airflow through the valve
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Chapter 18: Surgical Management of Clefts and
Velopharyngeal
Insufficiencyincompetence
VPI Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70026
Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with a history of cleft palate and surgical repair often demonstrate which of the following?
A)Midface retrusion
B)Class III malocclusion
C)Class II malocclusion
D)a and b
E)a and c
Q2) The earliest that a pharyngoplasty is usually done is at what age?
A)1 to 2 years
B)2 to 2½ years
C)2½ to 3 years
D)3½ to 4 years
E)5 to 6 years
Q3) With regard to the timing of cleft lip repair, the "rule of 10s" includes which of the following?
A)10 months old and 10 pounds
B)10 weeks of age and 10 pounds
C)10 grams of hemoglobin
D)b and c
E)a and b
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Chapter 19: Orthognathic Surgery for Craniofacial Conditions
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70025
Sample Questions
Q1) Which procedure is done to lengthen bone?
A)Le Fort I
B)Le Fort II
C)Le Fort III
D)Distraction osteogenesis
E)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is a common problem associated with a retrodisplaced or a small maxilla?
A)Hypernasality
B)Sleep apnea and hyponasality
C)Class II malocclusion
D)Occlusal cant
E)Oronasal fistula
Q3) Which of the following may be improved with maxillary advancement surgery alone?
A)Obligatory distortions and hyponasality
B)Compensatory errors and obligatory distortions
C)Obligatory distortions and hypernasality
D)Compensatory errors and hypernasality
E)Compensatory errors and hyponasality
20
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Chapter 20: Prosthetic Management
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70024
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true of reduction therapy?
A)It aims to improve velopharyngeal function.
B)The length of the lift is gradually increased.
C)It aims to stimulate movement of the velopharyngeal structures.
D)It aims to avoid surgery, or reduce the severity of the surgery.
E)The length of time wearing it is gradually decreased.
Q2) With a palatal lift, which part of the appliance holds the velum in place?
A)Body
B)Tail
C)Mid-piece
D)Prongs
E)Bar
Q3) When working directly with the prosthodontist to modify an appliance for best results, what procedure is most effective to use?
A)Perceptual assessment
B)Nasopharyngoscopy
C)Nasometry
D)Intraoral examination
E)Videofluoroscopy
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21

Chapter 21: Speech Therapy
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70023
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can be corrected with speech therapy when there is VPI?
A)Short utterance length
B)Placement errors
C)Nasal grimace
D)Hypernasality
E)Weak consonants
Q2) In which of the following conditions is speech therapy not appropriate?
A)Compensatory articulation
B)Hypernasality and nasal emission due to apraxia
C)Obligatory errors
D)Post-operative nasal emission
E)Articulation errors due to mislearning
Q3) Which of the following can be corrected by starting with the yawn technique?
A)Pharyngeal fricative
B)Pharyngeal plosive
C)Glottal stop
D) /l
E)Velar plosive
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22

Chapter 22: The Team Approach
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70022
Sample Questions
Q1) One standard requirement for meeting the ACPA standards is that each Cleft Palate Team must have which of the following:
A)Coordinator
B)Geneticist
C)Psychologist
D)Pulmonologist
E)Medical records specialist
Q2) Most of the managed care organizations exist as which of the following?
A)For-profit corporations
B)Not-for-profit organizations
C)Third-party administrators
D)Preferred providers PPOs.
E)Government-run providers
Q3) Based on ACPA recommendations, which professionals must be on a Cleft Palate Team as a very minimum?
A)Plastic surgeon, ENT, pedodontist
B)Surgeon, dental professional, speech-language pathologist
C)Plastic surgeon, ENT, speech-language pathologist
D)Plastic surgeon, oral surgeon, speech-language pathologist
E)Dental professional, orthodontist, plastic surgeon
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Chapter 23: Cleft Care in Developing Countries
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70021
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary role of the speech-language pathologist on a cleft palate surgical mission?
A)To evaluate patients for VPI
B)To determine which patients are appropriate for palate repair
C)To work with the dental professional to develop speech appliances
D)To provide speech therapy
E)To counsel the family and teach others
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A)The prevalence of clefts does not vary with geography.
B)Poverty is the only reason children in developing countries do not have access to care.
C)Interpreters should be given some written "scripts" prior to the evaluations.
D)The main mission of international organizations is to provide direct surgical care to affected children.
E)c and d
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Chapter 24: Velopharyngeal Dysfunction and Speech Disorders
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/70020
Sample Questions
Q1) Upon examination, the child demonstrates the use of nasal phonemes and glottal stops for all speech sounds.What is the most appropriate recommendation?
A)A trial period of speech therapy
B)A prosthetic device on a trial basis
C)Referral to an ENT for evaluation
D)Referral to a cleft palate team
Q2) Pierre Robin sequence typically includes which of the following characteristics at birth?
A)Cleft palate, micrognathia, airway obstruction
B)Cleft palate, prognathia, glossoptosis
C)Cleft palate, ankyloglossia, airway obstruction
D)Micrognathia, glossoptosis, ankyloglossia
E)Cleft lip and palate, micrognathia, glossoptosis
Q3) What procedure is best for identifying an occult submucous cleft?
A)A visual inspection of the velum
B)Palpation of the velum
C)Videofluoroscopy
D)Nasopharyngoscopy
E)Nasometry

Page 25
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