Speech and Hearing Science Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Speech and Hearing Science explores the anatomical, physiological, acoustic, and psychological processes underlying human communication. This course examines the mechanisms of sound production and perception, focusing on how the human vocal tract generates speech and how the auditory system processes sounds. Students will study the physical properties of sound, auditory system function, speech acoustics, and the neural bases of speaking and hearing. The course provides foundational knowledge for understanding typical and atypical communication, setting the stage for advanced studies in speech-language pathology, audiology, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Audiology Today 1st Edition by James
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16 Chapters
457 Verified Questions
457 Flashcards
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Page 2
W. Hall
Chapter 1: Audiology Yesterday, Today, and Tomorrow
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23 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The description of activities that can be included in clinical practice is known as the A)Code of Ethics
B)Licensure Board
C)American Board of Audiology
D)Scope of Practice
Answer: D
Q2) Audiologists are responsible for caring for persons with ____________.
Answer: Hearing loss and related disorders
Q3) Up to _____in 1000 children is born with some degree of hearing impairment.
Answer: Six
Q4) Which audiologist whose work has focused on newborn and pediatric hearing is also called the Mother of Audiology?
Answer: Marion Downs
Q5) Which organization,in 1988,was formed "of,by,and for audiologists"?
A)American Speech-Language-Hearing Association
B)American Otology Association
C)American Academy of Audiology
D)Ear Institute
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Sound, Acoustics, and Psychoacoustics
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54 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) List three properties of sound that are manipulated by audiologists.
Answer: Intensity,frequency,duration
Q2) The wavelength of a sound wave is defined as the distance between
A)Two successive condensations only
B)Two successive rarefactions only
C)Two successive rarefactions or condensations
D)One rarefaction and the next condensation
Answer: C
Q3) The units of pitch and loudness are _______ and ________,respectively.
Answer: Mel,phon
Q4) The minimum amount of force that can be detected by a healthy human ear is _________ dynes/cm<sup>2 </sup> or __________ µPa.
Answer: 0.0002, 20
Q5) Minimum auditory field MAF)and minimum auditory pressure MAP)are measured using ______ and ________,respectively.
Answer: Loudspeakers, earphones
Q6) The maximum displacement of a wave is called ____________________
Answer: Peak amplitude
Q7) RMS stands for _______________________.
Answer: Root mean square
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Chapter 3: Anatomy and Physiology of the Auditory and Vestibular Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The volume of the adult external ear canal is about ______ cc.
Answer: 1 cc/ 1ml
Q2) The thickness of the normal tympanic membrane is about 0.1 mm.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The most flexible and stiff regions of the tympanic membrane are called _______ and _________,respectively.
Answer: Pars flaccida, Pars tensa
Q4) The middle ear contains fluid,while the inner ear contains air.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) Identify at least five different centers in the central auditory nervous system.
Answer: Cochlear nucleus, Superior Olivary Complex, Lateral Lemniscus, Inferior Colliculus, Thalamus, Auditory Cortex.
Q6) The process of determining the direction of sounds is called ________. Answer: Localization
Answer: Stapes Page 5
Q7) The lightest bone in the human body is the ________.
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Chapter 4: Preparing for Hearing Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main reason the patient presents for hearing testing is called __________.
Q2) List two risks to patient safety in an audiology clinic.
Q3) Cite four factors that can influence behavioral hearing test results.
Q4) A purpose of masking is to prevent _________________ hearing and to obtain _______ information.
Q5) List three ways an adult patient might response to sound.
Q6) The abbreviation HIPAA refers to _______________________.
Q7) A patient history should be taken after hearing testing is complete.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Otoscopy is defined as _________________________________________.
Q9) Which of the following is a factor in behavioral hearing assessment?
A)Age in young children
B)State of arousal
C)Cognitive function and language status
D)All of the above
Q10) What is the best setting for hearing testing?
Q11) An earphone for the right ear is colored-coded ______________,and the left earphone is color-coded _______________. Page 7
Q12) Prevention of medical ___________ is a serious concern in healthcare.
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Chapter 5: Pure Tone Audiometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) What three factors do audiologists look for when interpreting audiograms?
Q2) Loudspeakers are the preferred transducer of choice for hearing testing of infants and children who do not tolerate earphones.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe how the traditional PTA is calculated.
Q4) The audiogram configuration of noise-induced hearing loss is characterized by a notching decrease in hearing sensitivity in the frequency region of:
A)8000 Hz
B)500 Hz
C)250 to 500 Hz
D)4000 Hz
Q5) What is a hearing threshold?
Q6) What are the pros and cons of using loudspeakers for hearing testing?
Q7) What are some important steps that should precede pure tone audiometry?
Q8) What is a clinically important air-bone gap?
Q9) What are the advantages of forehead and mastoid approaches for bone conduction testing?
Q10) Name the three mechanisms for bone conducting hearing.
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Chapter 6: Speech Audiometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference between speech discrimination and word recognition?
Q2) The maximum score in word recognition performance is always at a comfortable listening level.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the clinic,word recognition is never tested in background noise.
A)True
B)False
Q4) State two different patient response modes in word recognition testing.
Q5) The SRT is described in _______________,whereas word recognition scores are described in ___________________.
Q6) What is the relation between the SRT and the PTA?
Q7) Name different types of stimuli used in speech audiometry.
Q8) The count-the-dots audiogram provides a handy way to estimate a patient's:
A)Bone conduction hearing thresholds
B)Speech reception threshold
C)Speech awareness threshold
D)Articulation index
Q10) What is the purpose of the VU meter on an audiometer? Page 10
Q9) What is difference between the SDT and the SRT and how are they related?
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Chapter 7: Masking and Audiogram Interpretation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most effective masking noise in speech audiometry is:
A)Broadband noise BBN)
B)White noise
C)Speech noise
D)Narrowband noise
Q2) An important difference between the SAL test and conventional bone-conduction testing is:
A)Masking noise is presented via bone conduction rather than air conduction
B)Masking noise is presented via air conduction rather than bone conduction
C)Both ears are uncovered during the SAL test
D)There is no difference between the two techniques
Q3) Masking is almost never required in speech audiometry.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When the stimulus is heard in the non-test ear,_____ occurs.
Q5) How is the Weber test performed?
Q6) Explain the difference between minimum and maximum masking.
Q7) The reduction in intensity when sound is transmitted from other ear to the other through or around the head is called ___________.
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Q8) Covering an ear during bone-conduction testing produces the __________.
Chapter 8: Electro-Acoustic Measures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acoustic immittance recorded at a single air pressure is called _____.
Q2) The abbreviations TEOAE and DPOAE stand for ______ and ________,respectively.
Q3) The most common stimulus used to elicit TEOAEs is a ______________________.
Q4) What is an indicator of the activation of the acoustic reflex?
A)Contraction of the stapedius muscle
B)Stiffening of the ossicular chain
C)Reduced compliance of the middle ear structures
D)All of the above
Q5) What does the peak pressure in a tympanogram represent?
A)The pressure at which the tympanic membrane is the most compliant
B)The pressure at which the tympanic membrane is the least compliant
C)The maximum pressure that the tympanic membrane can sustain without rupturing
D)The minimum pressure that the tympanic membrane can sustain without collapsing
Q6) The abbreviation ART stands for __________.
Q7) OAEs are always normal when pure tone audiometry is normal.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Describe where and how otoacoustic emissions are generated.
Q9) Two acoustic immittance tests are ______________ and ______________ Page 13
Q10) The most common test stimulus in DPOAEs measurement is ____________.
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Chapter 9: Special Speech Audiometry Tests and Auditory
Evoked Responses
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An auditory evoked potential is recorded in response to a sound presented through insert earphones.What type of transducer is used to record the evoked potentials?
A)Headphone
B)Insert earphone
C)Bone conduction vibrator
D)Electrodes True or False
Q2) List three different kinds of noise used in speech-in-noise tests.
Q3) Multi-talker babble is synonymous with cafeteria noise.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A type of noise consisting of multiple speakers speaking simultaneously in which words can be occasionally understood is called
A)Multitalker babble
B)Broadband speech noise
C)Cocktail party noise
D)Cafeteria noise
Q5) The latency of ABR wave V is the time it occurs after the __________________.
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Q6) ABR responses are elicited using _____ or ______.
Q7) What are the two major features of ABR waves that are analyzed?
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Chapter 10: Differential Diagnosis of Auditory and Vestibular Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) VEMP testing involves measurement of changes in the tension of the _________ muscle.
Q2) OSHA guidelines require that employers monitor an employee's hearing at least ______ a year.
Q3) Hearing handicap is in part determined by the impact of hearing loss on
A)Psychosocial status.
B)Quality of life.
C)Communication.
D)All of the above.
Q4) Traditional site-of-lesion tests include each of the following EXCEPT
A)ABLB
B)SISI
C)Békésy audiometry
D)ENoG
Q5) Best practice is ___________-based practice.
Q6) The process of narrowing down possible causes of a hearing loss or any medical problem is known as ___________________.
Q8) The abbreviation VNG stands for ________________ ________________ . Page 16
Q7) What is nystagmus? What vestibular technique is based on nystagmus recordings?
Q9) What is the first step in the diagnostic process?
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Chapter 11: Outer, Middle, and Inner Ear Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the effects on excessive noise exposure on the inner ear.
Q2) Which of the following is an etiology for a sensorineural hearing loss that requires immediate referral to a physician for evaluation and possible treatment?
A)Presbycusis
B)Sudden onset sensorineural hearing loss
C)Impacted cerumen
D)Noise-induced hearing loss
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of a craniofacial abnormality?
A)Preauricular pit
B)Aural atresia
C)Microtia
D)Perforation of the tympanic membrane
Q4) The term used for the period around birth is ______________________ .
Q5) A hearing that occurs suddenly without a known etiology is called ________.
Q6) Certain chemicals called _____________________ can protect the ear against the damaging effects of free radicals in noise-induced hearing loss.
Q7) Provide two examples of craniofacial abnormalities.
Q8) Identify three specific causes for a perforation of the tympanic membrane.
Q9) How are cholesteatomas managed?
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Nervous System Dysfunction and Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alzheimer's disease is associated with hearing loss and central auditory dysfunction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following are tumors that can be found in the central nervous system?
A)Astrocytoma
B)Glioma
C)Meningioma
D)All of the above
True or False
Q3) Change in the brain brought about by experience is known as brain
Q4) What factors help to determine the diagnosis and location of tumors in the central nervous system?
Q5) What is a major distinction between acoustic tumors and neurofibromatosis II?
Q6) One risk factor for auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder in infants is graduation from the ____________________.
Q7) What are some major features of ANSD?
Q8) Define an auditory processing disorder APD). Page 19
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Chapter 13: Audiologic Habilitationrehabilitation: Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cite several advantages of the open-fit receiver-in-the-canal RIC)type of hearing aid.
Q2) Describe what you would immediately suspect if a patient complained that their hearing aid just died.
Q3) A conventional behind-the-ear hearing aid is coupled to the ear with an ___________.
Q4) What is the approximate time taken for a person to go from awareness of his/her hearing loss to considering a hearing aid?
A)Less than one year
B)Two years
C)Four years
D)Seven years
Q5) The process of confirming that the hearing aid is amplifying sound appropriately for the patient's hearing loss is called ________________.
Q6) Paper and pencil inventories can contribute greatly to validation of hearing aid performance.
A)True
B)False
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Q7) Battery sizes are _____________________ coded.
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Chapter 14: Audiologic Habilitationrehabilitation: Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the oral approach to communication?
Q2) Grandparents and siblings are not affected when a family member has a hearing loss.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Define "bilingual-bicultural education" for children who are deaf.
Q4) Habilitation of hearing loss in children needs to be family centered.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Decreased memory,attention,and processing speed are all examples of ______________ factors that can affect communication in elderly persons with hearing loss.
Q6) Professional counseling is appropriate when a patient is clinically depressed because of his or her hearing loss or related disorder,like tinnitus.
A)True B)False
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Q7) The _____________ approach to communication places an emphasis on the child's residual hearing through the use of amplification with the goal of developing listening skills through natural communication.
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Chapter 15: Pseudohypacusis, Tinnitus, and Hyperacusis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Management of children diagnosed with a false hearing loss often includes:
A)Hearing aids
B)Professional counseling
C)Cochlear implants
D)FM technology
Q2) Explain the role played by otoacoustic emissions in the evaluation and management of patients with hyperacusis.
Q3) Tinnitus is always heard as a ringing sound.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All patients with false or exaggerated hearing loss are malingerers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the difference between false hearing loss and exaggerated hearing loss.
Q6) Explain two components of general management of a patient with bothersome tinnitus.
Q7) Hyperacusis can rarely be effectively managed or treated.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Tinnitus and hyperacusis are_________________,not diseases.
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Chapter 16: Management Strategies in Specific Patient Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Characteristics of effective patient reports are:
A)Simple and clear
B)Accurate
C)Supported by clinical findings
D)All of the above
Q2) List four essential components of a patient audiology report.
Q3) Audiologists play no role in the management of persons with balance disorders.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Neurofibromas generally grow on only one side.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Two important goals of cochlear implant programming are estimation of _______ and the __________.
Q6) Which of the following groups has developed guidelines for management of children with permanent hearing loss:
A)NIH
B)State licensure boards
C)Joint Committee on Infant Hearing
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D)American Association of Interventionists AAI)
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