Special Needs in Dental Hygiene
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
This course focuses on the principles and practices of providing dental hygiene care to individuals with special needs, including those with physical, developmental, sensory, behavioral, cognitive, and multiple disabilities. Students will explore strategies for communication, patient assessment, and modification of dental hygiene procedures to accommodate individual requirements. Emphasis is placed on understanding the barriers to oral health care faced by special populations and developing empathetic, evidence-based approaches for effective treatment planning and delivery in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Dental Hygiene Theory and Practice 4th Edition by Michele Leonardi
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64 Chapters
1581 Verified Questions
1581 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Dental Hygiene Profession
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three responsibilities of the dental hygiene clinician are:
A) preventive, therapeutic, educational.
B) manager, educator, researcher.
C) planner, organization of appointments, billing.
D) communicator, planner, researcher.
Answer: A
Q2) What is an administrator or manager not doing when referring to dental hygiene?
A) Planning
B) Staffing
C) Financial work
D) Directing
Answer: C
Q3) What is the one most important reason why state dental practice laws were established?
A) To regulate the practice of dental hygiene and dentistry
B) To regulate the amount of education one must have to practice dentistry
C) To ensure the best overall service to the general public
D) To protect the health and welfare of the public
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Human Needs Theory and Dental Hygiene Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) From the following list, select those that should be part of documentation of the dental hygiene appointment with clients who have a deficit in the need for a wholesome facial image.
A) Process
B) Outcomes
C) Extent to which goals are met
D) Client's response to care
E) Referrals needed
F) Adverse reactions
G) Future treatment
H) All of the above
Answer: H
Q2) Which type of medications helps meet the human need for a biologically sound dentition?
A) Fluoride
B) NSAIDs
C) Penicillamine
D) Cyclosporine
E) Antimalarials
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Evidence-Based Decision Making
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the key critical analysis questions should be answered first so that your time is used most efficiently?
A) What are the results?
B) Are the results of the study valid?
C) Will the results help in caring for my client?
D) Why was the study conducted?
E) Was statistical significance found in analyzing the data?
Answer: B
Q2) Critical analysis requires that you understand:
A) research design and level of evidence.
B) statistical and clinical significance.
C) formulating a PICO question.
D) both a and b.
E) both b and c.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Health and Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) The distribution of a mailbox announcement is representative of which health promotion strategy?
A) Mass media
B) Legislation
C) Health education
D) Community organization
E) Clinical intervention
Q2) The health promotion movement calls health professionals to become involved in the following actions except for one. Which is the one exception?
A) Building public policy
B) Strengthening community action
C) Empowering communities
D) Emphasizing disease treatment
E) Developing personal skills
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Chapter 5: Changing Behaviors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Communication generally stops with one encoded and decoded message.
A)True B)False
Q2) Oral health professionals must be aware of their own values and how they affect the choices professionals make in planning and implementing oral health behavioral change programs.
A)True B)False
Q3) Pedagogy is the art and science of teaching _______________.
Q4) The two types of asking questions are __________ and ___________.
Q5) Motivational interviewing is a philosophic approach to client-centered education that emphasizes__________________, ____________________, and ___________________.
Q6) The most important aspects of verbal communication are _____, _____, _____, and _____. (Show your answer in alphabetical order.)
Q7) The CARE principle identifies _____, _____, _____, and _____ as important aspects of effective dental hygienist-client helping relationships. (Show your answer in alphabetical order.)
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Q8) The Zones of touch are _________________ and _______________________.
Chapter 6: Cultural Competence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Statement 1: Ethnic identity describes the common cultural, historic, and geographic experiences of a group. Statement 2: Individuals of a group who share an ethnic identity also share the same attitude, interests, and dialects.
A) Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is incorrect.
B) Statement 1 is incorrect; statement 2 is correct.
C) Statements 1 and 2 are both correct.
D) Statements 1 and 2 are both incorrect.
Q2) Nonverbal communication is important in a culturally sensitive environment. The clinician should be sensitive to:
A) gestures.
B) eye contact.
C) personal space.
D) all of the above.
Q3) An equitable, culturally sensitive environment is characterized by:
A) the care provider initiating a cultural encounter.
B) reciprocal inquiry between the client and care provider.
C) the client initiating sharing information about his or her cultural beliefs.
D) the care provider tailoring the information to the mindset of the client.
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Chapter 7: Professional Portfolios
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Sample Questions
Q1) Copyright is the legal protection for authors and creators of original works, including writing, composing, graphic and visual arts, and architectural and industrial designs, from others copying their work. Copyright prohibits all forms or replication or copying.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) When writing a Philosophy of Practice statement, the dental hygienist should consider the following topics to include except one. What is the one exception?
A) Define career goals and objectives.
B) Highlight your personal life, family, and hobbies.
C) Discuss the ethical considerations of dental hygiene practice.
D) Discuss your commitment to cultural diversity.
Q3) Which of the following steps should come first in creating an e-portfolio?
A) Writing reflections
B) Selecting a design template
C) Collecting the artifacts
D) Finding a portfolio web site for publishing
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Chapter 8: The Dental Hygiene Care Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water used for dental treatment should meet the nationally recognized standards set by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) for drinking water, which is ____ CFU/mL.
A) <10,000
B) <500
C) <600
D) <200
Q2) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends that all dental devices connected to a water system be flushed several minutes in the beginning of the day and ____ seconds between clients.
A) 60
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
E) 10
Q3) Most treatment areas have which of the following pieces of equipment:
A) storage cabinets
B) computers for scheduling
C) sink
D) alcohol hand rub
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Chapter 9: Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements regarding processing of contaminated instruments is (are) true?
A) Instruments should be processed in an area separate from where clean instruments are stored.
B) Personnel should wear heavy-duty utility/puncture-resistant gloves.
C) Instruments only need cleaning if they have visible contamination.
D) Instruments should be heat-sterilized unless they are heat sensitive.
E) Cleaning an instrument precedes all sterilization and disinfection processes.
F) Options a, b, d, and e are true.
Q2) Which of the following is not a link in the "chain of infection"?
A) A pathogen in sufficient numbers
B) A mode of transmission for the pathogen
C) An immune host
D) A portal of entry into a new host
Q3) Which of the following is the first step in managing an occupational exposure?
A) Report the injury to the designated person in the practice setting.
B) Perform first aid.
C) Complete an exposure report.
D) Apply a strong disinfectant to the wound site.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Medical Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions would require administration of oxygen, 162 mg aspirin, and activation of emergency medical services (EMS)?
A) Syncope
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Uncontrolled angina
D) Cerebrovascular incident
E) Seizure
Q2) What is the term for a person who is not responding when spoken to and shaken gently?
A) Unconscious
B) Ventricular fibrillation
C) Dental fear and anxious
D) Immunosuppression
Q3) What is the recommended rate of rescue for a child who has a pulse but is unresponsive?
A) One breath every 5 to 6 seconds
B) Two breaths every 15 seconds
C) One breath every 30 seconds
D) Two breaths every 5 to 6 seconds
E) One breath every 3 seconds
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Chapter 11: Ergonomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) List three chairside preventive measures to reduce the incidence of lumbar joint dysfunction.
Q2) Which is a common symptom of thoracic outlet compression?
A) Numbness and tingling in the fingertips
B) Neck and shoulder muscle spasms
C) Warm extremities
D) Prominent or enhanced radial pulse
Q3) Digital motion is an acceptable hand movement during treatment instrument activation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The fulcrum finger must remain locked during instrument activation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which nerve is affected when Guyon's canal syndrome is evident?
A) Ulnar nerve
B) Radial nerve
C) Median nerve
D) Nerves from the brachial plexus
Q6) Name the two symptoms of de Quervain's syndrome.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: The Health History
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Sample Questions
Q1) Physician consultation can be completed by all the following methods except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Telephone contact
B) By faxing documents
C) Asking client what information was provided by physician
D) Written request for information
Q2) All of the following are requirements for the legal preparation of the health history document except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Written with ink
B) Error is marked through with one line and "error" written above
C) Error should be initialed and dated
D) Form is signed by client or guardian
E) Patient aged 16 can sign personal health history
Q3) Evidence based protocols used in the dental office can protect the office if litigation occurs following a decision made for clinical procedures.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The thermometer is used for:
A) detecting a client's pulse.
B) taking a client's temperature.
C) counting a client's respiration.
D) reading a client's blood pressure.
Q2) If the dental hygienist measures the client's temperature and finds a higher than normal temperature, all of the following factors could be involved except:
A) smoking.
B) lack of sleep.
C) a stressful work environment.
D) recent ingestion of hot coffee.
Q3) Which of the following is a normal blood pressure reading for an adult?
A) <80/>150
B) >95/<120
C) <120/>80
D) <120/<80
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Chapter 14: Pharmacologic History
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Sample Questions
Q1) What field studies the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs?
A) Pharmacokinetics
B) Pharmacodynamics
C) Pharmacogenomics
D) Pharmacotherapeutics
Q2) What is the most common drug found in OTC products applied topically for pain control?
A) Lidocaine
B) Tetracaine
C) Benzocaine
D) Carbocaine
Q3) Which of the following adverse drug effect is the most common oral complication associated with medication use?
A) Caries
B) Xerostomia
C) Periodontal disease
D) Taste alteration
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Chapter 15: Extraoral and Intraoral Clinical Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The earliest form of oral squamous cell carcinoma (OSCC) is termed:
A) invasive squamous cell carcinoma.
B) dysplastic tissue.
C) carcinoma in situ.
D) basal cell carcinoma.
Q2) Which of the following can be noted of a client during initial appraisal that gives an indication of deafness or stroke history?
A) Wearing long pants
B) Increased weight gain
C) Slurred speech
D) Wearing clear glasses
Q3) Which of the following tissue types is limited to the dorsum of the tongue?
A) Epidermis
B) Dermis
C) Masticatory mucosa
D) Specialized mucosa
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Chapter 16: Dentition Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the eruption period for the maxillary first permanent premolar?
A) 7 to 8 years
B) 8 to 9 years
C) 10 to 11 years
D) 12 to 13 years
Q2) How is the term dilaceration defined?
A) Is a result of a disturbance of the ameloblasts during matrix formation
B) A large tooth resulting from the splitting of a single tooth germ
C) Abnormal distortion of a crown or root caused by trauma during formation
D) Tooth within a tooth, caused by invagination of the enamel during formation
Q3) Which term is used when there is an absence of one or more teeth?
A) Hyperdontia
B) Mesiodens
C) Hypodontia
D) Microdontia
Q4) Which bite situation can be produced from thumbsucking?
A) End to end
B) Crossbite
C) Open bite
D) Overbite
18
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Chapter 17: Oral Hygiene Assessment: Soft and Hard Deposits
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best time to apply a disclosant is:
A) after the periodontal assessment.
B) after the oral prophylaxis.
C) before the oral assessment.
D) before the client sees the oral findings.
Q2) Of the following variables, which is not an important variable to measure during baseline assessment?
A) Extent of oral biofilm
B) Amount of calculus
C) Location of deposits
D) Presence of food debris
Q3) A dental index converts specific clinical observations into a numeric value (score) to measure the level of oral hygiene of an individual or population. A high numeric value or index score indicates good oral hygiene.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Chapter 18: Dental Caries Management by Risk Assessment
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Q1) Patients with frank carious lesions, radiographic approximal lesions, white spot lesions, or restorations in the past 3 years should have a saliva and a bacterial culture taken. All patients should have a salivary flow rate test for caries risk assessment.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Which caries risk classification requires use of 1.1% sodium fluoride toothpaste rather than an over-the-counter (OTC), fluoride-containing toothpaste for patients age 6 years and older to adult?
A) Low risk
B) Moderate risk
C) High risk
D) Extreme risk
Q3) What is a white spot lesion?
A) A demineralized area due to loss of minerals in the subsurface
B) A demineralized area in the surface of the enamel
C) A remineralized area that has been treated with fluoride
D) An area to watch for development of a carious lesion
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Periodontal and Risk Assessment
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Q1) The term periodontal disease includes both gingivitis and periodontitis. Gingivitis is characterized by inflammation with no loss of attachment.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first sentence is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) One to 2 mm loss of attachment (LOA) with 4 to 5 mm probing depths describes what severity of periodontal disease?
A) Slight
B) Moderate
C) Severe
D) Gingivitis
Q3) Which of the following describes a degenerative noninflammatory periodontal condition resulting from heavy forces to the teeth?
A) Fremitus
B) Occlusal traumatism
C) Mucogingival condition
D) Inadequate attached gingiva
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Chapter 20: Potential Impact of Periodontal Infections on
Overall General Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atherosclerotic changes in blood vessels that lead to coronary heart disease are also the main cause of which of the following?
A) Preeclampsia
B) Chronic gastritis
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Nonhemorrhagic stroke
E) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Q2) Injury of endothelial cells may be caused by all of the following except:
A) bacteria.
B) hypertension.
C) environmental toxins.
D) drinking bottled water.
E) components of cigarette smoke.
Q3) People with uncontrolled or poorly controlled diabetes mellitus:
A) have high levels of glucose in the blood.
B) are more susceptible to infections.
C) have more severe periodontitis compared with diabetics whose condition is medically well controlled.
D) All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 21: Dental Hygiene Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dental hygiene diagnosis is written in a three-part statement that includes all of the following except:
A) unmet human need.
B) cause.
C) length of time the patient has had the problem.
D) defining characteristics (signs and symptoms).
Q2) Which of the following should accompany a dental hygiene diagnosis?
A) Signs noted by the dental hygienist
B) Symptoms reported by the client
C) Risk problems (cause)
D) All of the above
Q3) All of the following are unmet human needs for the client except:
A) freedom from pain.
B) freedom from fear and stress.
C) biologically sound and functional dentition.
D) conceptualization and problem solving.
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Chapter 22: Dental Hygiene Care Plan, Evaluation, and Documentation
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Q1) Select four characteristics of a well-written dental hygiene care plan.
A) Reflects current standards of evidence-based care
B) Identifies a relationship between the dental hygiene diagnoses, client goals, and intervention strategies
C) Is independent of the dental treatment plan
D) Reflects goals of care to prevent oral disease using primary, secondary, and tertiary preventive interventions
E) Identifies recommendation for continued care interval
F) Identifies the prognosis of care
G) Reflects goals of care to develop and maintain the individual's behaviors essential to oral health and the mastery of self-care and the environment
Q2) A well-defined client-centered goal will reflect the evidence of the diagnosed unmet human need. Which component of the dental hygiene diagnosis are the client-centered goals defined?
A) Statement of the problem
B) Statement of cause/etiology
C) Statement of signs and symptoms
D) Statement of chief complaint
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Chapter 23: Toothbrushing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select four client-related factors to consider for toothbrushing instruction.
A) Age
B) Personal values
C) Appropriateness of a power toothbrush
D) Risk and susceptibility to disease
E) Client's ability to tolerate stress of procedures planned
F) Dexterity
G) Time available to discuss toothbrushing
Q2) What is the most valid method of assessing the client's self-care practices such as toothbrushing?
A) Ask the patient if they have been brushing as recommended.
B) Assess the presence and location of plaque present with disclosing solution.
C) Use absence of plaque as the indicator of effective toothbrushing.
D) Evaluate toothbrush wear.
E) Use signs of disease of soft and hard tissues.
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25
Chapter 24: Mechanical Oral Biofilm Control: Interdental and Supplemental Self-Care Devices
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Q1) All of the following are things to consider when selecting a dental floss except one. Which one is the exception?
A) gingival attachement levels
B) the tightness of the contact area
C) the contour of the gingival tissue
D) the roughness of the interproximal surface
E) client's manual dexterity and preference
Q2) Which of the following interproximal devices may be used from both the facial and lingual aspects of the teeth?
A) Toothpicks
B) Toothpick holder
C) Triangular toothpick
D) Rubber tip stimulator
Q3) Which type of dental floss is best for Class II embrasure spaces?
A) Waxed floss
B) Unwaxed floss
C) Tufted floss
D) Dental tape
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Chapter 25: Dentifrices
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Q1) Dentifrice can be a risk factor when:
A) it causes dentinal hypersensitivity.
B) its level of abrasiveness is low.
C) its pH level is high.
D) it is bactericidal.
Q2) Dissolution of organic and inorganic tooth structure as a result of chemical agents is
A) abrasion
B) abfracation
C) erosion
D) attrition
Q3) According to scientific evidence, zinc compounds are effective to combat halitosis and volatile sulfur compounds (VSCs). According to scientific evidence, pyrophosphates are effective to combat halitosis and volatile sulphur compounds (VSCs).
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Chapter 26: Hand-Activated Instrumentation
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Q1) Which explorer(s) will adapt well to the line angles and detect calculus along these apical regions?
A) 3-A explorer
B) Shepard's hook explorer
C) 11/12 explorer
D) Both a and c
E) All of the above
Q2) The smaller the angle and the fewer the number of shank bends, the more suitable for use on anterior teeth. The more acute the angle and the greater the number of shank bends, the more suitable for use on posterior teeth.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) Fulcrums that move further away from the area being scaled may result in:
A) loss of control.
B) diminishing one's ability to scale the area.
C) enhancing access to deep periodontal pockets.
D) diminishing access to interproximal regions.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Ultrasonic Instrumentation
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Q1) Which of the following necessitate precautions when mechanized instrumentation is used?
A) Pacemakers, demineralized tooth surfaces, and children
B) Tobacco stain, orthodontic cement, and pericoronitis
C) Necrotizing periodontal diseases, communicable diseases, and immunosuppression
D) Periodontal debridement, dysphagia, and intrinsic tooth stain
E) Restorations, periodontal debridement, and coffee staining
Q2) Working end wear of inserts and tips results in which of the following?
A) Frequency adjustment problems
B) Lack of efficiency
C) Limited cavitation
D) Need for decreased power settings
E) Inadequate water flow for cooling
Q3) What actually causes the working end of an ultrasonic insert or tip to vibrate?
A) The voltage in the generator
B) The transducer contracting and expanding
C) The cavitation
D) Acoustic microstreaming
E) The wireless or wired foot pedal
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Root Morphology and Instrumentation
Implications
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Q1) The area of No. 11 and No. 12 will provide instrumentation challenges due to which of the following canine and first premolar features?
A) Inclined axial positioning of the maxillary canine and narrow premolar proximal surfaces
B) Ovoid maxillary canine root shape and cone-shaped premolar root
C) Prominent maxillary canine root concavities and prominent distal premolar root concavity
D) Long canine crown with a broad distal crest of curvature and short first premolar crown with a prominent mesial concavity
Q2) Which of the following statements about furcations is false?
A) Furcation involvement occurs when there is loss of attachment apical to the CEJ.
B) Furcations located closest to the CEJ are most likely to become involved with periodontal disease.
C) Furcations are generally most cervical on the facial surface of mandibular first permanent molars.
D) The more cervical the furcation, the more stable the tooth.
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Chapter 29: Stain Management and Tooth Whitening
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Q1) Five key variables affect tooth structure loss during extrinsic tooth stain removal with a rubber cup: abrasiveness of the prophylaxis paste, quantity of abrasive agent, contact time of the rubber cup on the tooth surface, speed of the rubber cup, and pressure or force applied to the rubber cup. To preserve tooth structure and prevent damage to teeth and restorative materials, the practitioner starts with the least abrasive agent and amount of agent, with the least amount of rubber cup contact time, and with the least amount of pressure to remove the extrinsic stain.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Specially developed prophylaxis paste marketed to restore the original luster to veneer, composite, gold, and porcelain restorations contains which key abrasive agent?
A) Microfine arginine bicarbonate particles
B) Microfine calcium phosphate particles
C) Microfine diamond particles
D) Microfine white sapphire particles
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Decision Making Related to Nonsurgical
Periodontal Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23048
Sample Questions
Q1) Challenges facing the dental hygienist in mechanical therapy adjacent to furcation involvement include all of the following except:
A) furcal anatomy.
B) difficulty in accessing area.
C) persistence of pathogenic microflora in the area.
D) location of the gingival margin in relation to the fulcra.
E) no instruments that adapt to the furca.
Q2) Periods of _____ are characterized by a reduced inflammatory response and little or no loss of bone and connective tissue attachment.
A) immunosuppression
B) quiescence
C) necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis
D) aggressive periodontal disease
E) stability
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32
Chapter 31: Chemotherapy for the Control of Periodontitis
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23049
Sample Questions
Q1) The literature surrounding the therapeutic efficacy of professional subgingival irrigation is equivocal because adequate concentrations of the active ingredient are unable to be maintained for sufficient periods of time.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) Which of the following products is not an antibiotic-based controlled-release drug?
A) Actisite
B) Periowave
C) Elyzol
D) Arestin
Q3) All of the following are ideal properties of an ideal home oral rinse except:
A) broad spectrum.
B) palatable for the user.
C) insoluble.
D) safe to use over long periods of time.
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33
Chapter 32: Acute Gingival and Periodontal Conditions,
Lesions of Endodontic Origin, and Avulsed Teeth
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23050
Sample Questions
Q1) What are the signs and symptoms of necrotizing periodontal diseases?
A) Ulceration and necrosis of the interdental papillae, pain, and spontaneous gingival bleeding
B) Inflammatory exudates seeping into the oral cavity
C) Occurrence in the palate
D) Presence of a large proportion of gram-positive organisms.
Q2) What are significant signs for endodontic lesions?
A) Inflammatory processes in the periodontium
B) Ulceration and necrosis of the interdental papillae
C) Occur in the palate
D) Occurs in chronic periodontitis
Q3) What are the signs and symptoms of chronic periodontal abscess?
A) Overgrowth of pathogenic organisms in a periodontal pocket that drains inflammatory exudates.
B) An abscess that is confined to the marginal gingiva and often occurs in previously Healthy gingival areas
C) No tooth mobility
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Fluorides, Chlorhexidine, Amorphous Calcium
Phosphate, and Xylitol
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23051
Sample Questions
Q1) The goal of caries management is maintaining and sustaining a balance between pathologic and preventive factors. Remineralizing early noncavitated carious lesions can be accomplished by enhancing salivary flow.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Which of the following is not a way to decrease the pathologic factors for caries management?
A) Explaining the caries process
B) Teaching brushing and flossing
C) Reducing caloric intake
D) Using a 0.12% chlorhexidine rinse to reduce the numbers of S. mutans
E) Using xylitol gum to reduce the numbers of S. mutans
Q3) All of the following are true about the caries management process for all clients except:
A) early risk assessment of children and the education of mothers.
B) avoiding the use of sharp explorers on demineralized areas of teeth.
C) preventive professional application of fluoride every six months.
Page 35
D) suppressing acidophilic oral microorganisms.
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Chapter 34: Pit and Fissure Sealants
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23052
Sample Questions
Q1) Which population should have sealants placed on their teeth?
A) Children with newly erupted molars
B) Adolescents with deep pit and fissures on their posterior teeth
C) Adults with noncavitated lesions
D) All of the above
Q2) Safety concerns of curing lights are:
A) the shield should be surface disinfected after use.
B) the operator and patient should never look directly at a curing light when in use.
C) a plastic barrier should be used on the tip.
D) all of the above.
Q3) When placing sealants on the maxillary teeth, the most effective device other than a rubber dam to reduce saliva contamination from the Stensen's duct is (are):
A) cotton rolls.
B) cotton rolls with a holder.
C) Dri-Angles.
D) high volume evacuation (HVE) only.
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Chapter 35: Nutritional Counseling
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23053
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the Martha's body mass index (BMI)?
A) 24
B) 27
C) 40
D) 25
Q2) Nutritional counseling for dental caries prevention targets which of the following?
A) Consumption of nutrient dense foods
B) Decreased consumption of fermentable carbohydrates
C) Proper toothbrushing technique
D) Regularity of flossing
Q3) Based on her BMI, Martha would be considered which of the following?
A) Healthy
B) Overweight
C) Obese
D) Underweight
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Chapter 36: Tobacco Cessation
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23054
Sample Questions
Q1) When assisting clients who are not ready to quit, the recommended goal is to help them think about the benefits of using tobacco versus the benefits of stopping tobacco use. What type of interview is recommended?
A) Protection from health risks interviewing
B) Personal advice to quit interviewing
C) Motivational interviewing
D) Responsibility for oral health interviewing
E) Makes a note in the chart when the client is not ready
Q2) Which of the following of the 5 As approach to tobacco cessation involves coping skills training?
A) Asking
B) Advising
C) Assessing
D) Assisting
E) Arranging
Q3) All of the following are OTC pharmacotherapies except nicotine:
A) gum.
B) lozenge.
C) patch.
D) inhaler.
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Chapter 37: Impressions, Study Casts, and Oral Appliances
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23055
Sample Questions
Q1) Silicone alginate-alternative impression materials are especially helpful when:
A) setting time is a concern.
B) elasticity is a concern.
C) dimensional stability is a concern.
D) multiple molds may be needed.
E) Both c and d are correct.
Q2) Alginate impression materials may be separated from the stone casts after:
A) the material no longer flows.
B) 45 to 60 minutes.
C) the material is in a semihard mass.
D) the initial set.
Q3) Disinfecting of impressions:
A) protects the patient from surface bacteria.
B) must be completed after the impression is poured.
C) is done only with impressions for patients with known infectious diseases.
D) is completed after the impression is rinsed with water.
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Chapter 38: Restorative Therapy
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23056
Sample Questions
Q1) When polishing amalgams, green and brown cups and points are used to:
A) remove large voids.
B) remove excess amalgam.
C) prepare the surface for finishing.
D) polish amalgam to a high luster.
Q2) Ideally, amalgam restorations should be finished and polished:
A) after 24 hours.
B) after 1 week.
C) after 1 month.
D) at time of placement.
Q3) Which of the following components act as a "coating" for the filler particles in composite material?
A) Adhesives
B) Polymers
C) Matrix
D) Silane coupling agent
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Dental Hypersensitivity Management
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23057
Sample Questions
Q1) Dentinal hypersensitivity is most common on what region of the tooth?
A) Lingual
B) Buccal cervical
C) Facial
D) Occlusal
Q2) Which one of the following is the best self-applied home product to help decrease dentinal hypersensitivity?
A) Fluoride mouth rinse or gel
B) Nonfluoride antibacterial mouth rinse
C) Oral irrigation system
D) Medium- to hard-bristled toothbrush
Q3) All of the following factors from the client's assessment data might be the cause of gingival recession except which one?
A) Presence of carious lesions
B) Use of a hard toothbrush
C) Presence of abfraction
D) Presence of occlusal trauma
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Chapter 40: Local Anesthesia
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23058
Sample Questions
Q1) The bevel of the needle should:
A) be turned toward the bone.
B) be turned away from the bone.
C) never touch the bone.
D) be turned in either direction as long as it fits snugly on the syringe.
Q2) What is the next step when you aspirate and get a positive aspiration?
A) Stop, withdraw the needle, and change the cartridge.
B) Do not stop the procedure if the aspiration is a small red drop.
C) Stop, withdraw the needle, and change to a new needle.
D) Stop, withdraw the needle, and change the needle and cartridge.
Q3) Topical anesthetic agents, such as benzocaine are applied before needle insertion to anesthetize the terminal nerve endings and thus promote client comfort. Thus a significant amount is needed to facilitate diffusion of the drug through the mucous membrane and can be reapplied numerous times due to the low toxicity of a topical medication.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Chapter 41: Nitrous Oxideoxygen Analgesia
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23059
Sample Questions
Q1) When the proportions of nitrous oxide and oxygen are adjusted to achieve the desired level of analgesia, each adjustment should be at the rate of which of the following?
A) 0.5 L nitrous oxide for at least 30 seconds
B) 0.5 to 1 L nitrous oxide for at least 1 minute
C) 1 L nitrous oxide for at least 30 seconds
D) 1 to 1.5 L nitrous oxide for at least 1 minute
E) 1.5 L nitrous oxide for at least 30 seconds
Q2) Contraindications for nitrous oxide-oxygen analgesia include:
1) breathing difficulties.
2) communication problems with the patient.
3) patient dislike of "laughing gas."
4) emotional instability.
5) hypertension.
6) early pregnancy.
A) 1, 2, 4, 5, 6
B) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 6
E) All of the above
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Persons With Disabilities
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23060
Sample Questions
Q1) According to the Americans with Disability Act, the term disability is associated with a limitation in a major life activity. Major life activities can include learning, thinking, interacting with others, and the operation of major bodily functions.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Behavioral guidance techniques that use numerous short appointments or visits to the dental office to instill familiarity with the dental environment is termed:
A) modeling.
B) desensitization.
C) distraction.
D) guided imagery.
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Chapter 43: Cardiovascular Disease
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23061
Sample Questions
Q1) Clients receiving antihypertensive drug therapy may experience all of the following except:
A) orthostatic hypotension.
B) xerostomia.
C) metallic taste.
D) fatigue.
Q2) When a client is taking prophylactic antibiotic premedication for the prevention of infective endocarditis, it is in the client's best interest if therapeutic scalings are scheduled in longer periods and as close together as possible. Prolonged antibiotic coverage could result in overdose.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) The medication of choice to alleviate angina pectoris is:
A) Procardia.
B) nitroglycerin.
C) Vasotec.
D) digitalis.
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Chapter 44: Diabetes Mellitus
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23062
Sample Questions
Q1) Xerostomia in people with diabetes is due to which of the following?
A) Increased fluid loss
B) Polydipsia
C) Neuropathy
D) Parotid gland swelling
Q2) A person with prediabetes can prevent the onset of diabetes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A scheduled client has diabetes and is showing symptoms of diabetes. The client reported recent test findings of a fasting blood glucose level greater than 126 mg/dL, and blood glucose levels greater than 200 mg/dL two hours after a meal. The dental hygienist should do which of the following?
A) Defer treatment and refer client to his or her physician.
B) Conduct a consultation with the physician to determine the best course of action.
C) Continue dental hygiene care.
D) Let the dentist provide the periodontal maintenance care.
Q4) Dental hygiene care should not begin until the diabetic condition is controlled.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Oral Care of Persons With Cancer
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23063
Sample Questions
Q1) Between 2004 and 2008, the incidence rate for oral cancer decreased in women and stabilized for men. Unfortunately, cancers of the lip, associated with the human papillomavirus (HPV), have seen an increase in recent years.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) During cancer therapy, dental hygiene education should focus on:
A) the immediate and impending oral complications of the cancer therapy.
B) the dental treatment and oral hygiene debridement needed during cancer therapy.
C) the dental examination and treatment planning for any necessary dental care.
D) why all dental hygiene education should be delayed until cancer treatment is completed.
Q3) During cancer treatment, which of the following is not a complication of chemotherapy?
A) Bleeding
B) Mucositis
C) Osteoradionecrosis
D) Infection
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Human Immunodeficiency Virus Infection
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23064
Sample Questions
Q1) Reverse transcriptase is best characterized as converting:
A) RNA into DNA.
B) DNA into RNA.
C) RNA into tRNA.
D) the host cell into an HIV virion.
Q2) Which of the following statements best summarizes the relationship between periodontal disease and HIV?
A) HIV-positive patients with low CD4+ cell counts are likely to have more advanced periodontal disease than HIV-negative patients.
B) HIV-positive patients with low CD4+ cell counts are likely to have more accelerated periodontal disease progression than HIV-negative patients.
C) The burden of conventional periodontal disease is similar in the HIV-positive and HIV-negative population.
D) Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is rare outside of the HIV-positive population.
Q3) Most patients with HIV are unmotivated to preserve their oral health.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Persons With Neurologic and Sensory Deficits
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23065
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements are true about Parkinson's disease except which one?
A) It is a chronic progressive disorder of the motor system.
B) Common onset is in the fourth decade.
C) The incidence is higher among whites than among African Americans.
D) Bradykinesia is common in patients.
E) Patients exhibit a soft, barely audible voice and monotony of speech.
Q2) The clinician may be able to control an asymmetric tonic neck reflex of a cerebral palsy patient by doing which of the following?
A) Bringing arms forward
B) Preventing foot from touching floor
C) Stabilizing head in midline position
D) Separating legs
E) Massaging shoulders
Q3) Oral self-care instructions for the client with Bell palsy should include which of the following?
A) Using a brushing pattern so no areas are missed
B) Rinsing with water after eating
C) Using an oral irrigator
D) All of the above
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Persons With Autoimmune Diseases
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23066
Sample Questions
Q1) Which autoimmune disease is characterized by well-demarcated erythematous patches with a silver-white scale on the lesions?
A) Pemphigus vulgaris
B) Cicatricial pemphigoid
C) Discoid lupus erythematosus
D) Psoriasis
E) Chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus
Q2) Which type of medications blocks the synthesis of prostaglandins and reduces inflammation?
A) DMARDs
B) NSAIDs
C) Penicillamine
D) Cyclosporine
E) Antimalarials
Q3) Which of the following represents an unusual oral side effect of DMARDs?
A) Gingival bleeding
B) Ecchymosis
C) Herpes zoster
D) Blue-black pigmentation
E) Delayed wound healing
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Chapter 49: Renal Disease and Organ Transplantation
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23067
Sample Questions
Q1) Clients diagnosed with renal disease have a _____ fold greater risk of cardiovascular disease.
A) 50 to 60
B) 10 to 100
C) 2
D) 5 to 6
Q2) All of the following are special precautions taken by the dental hygienist with persons on peritoneal dialysis except which one?
A) Receive medical clearance.
B) Never take blood pressure readings in the dialysis access arm.
C) Consider delaying or modifying therapy if heparin has been administered in the previous 24 hours.
D) Determine need for antibiotic premedication before invasive dental procedures.
Q3) The most prevalent cause of end-stage renal disease is which of the following?
A) Diabetes
B) Hypertension
C) Anemia
D) Hyperparathyroidism
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Chapter 50: Respiratory Diseases
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23068
Sample Questions
Q1) When treating a client with a history of asthma, the dental hygienist must be mindful of precipitating factors reported by the client and avoid the factors during professional care. To avoid decreased lung function, the client should be placed in a supine position.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Which of the following is the most common risk factor for COPD?
A) Air pollutants
B) Occupational irritants
C) Cigarette smoking
D) Underdeveloped lungs
Q3) Use of a rubber dam during dental procedures is contraindicated with COPD patients, because it may cause more breathing problems.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Cognitively and Developmentally Challenged
Persons
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23069
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are strategies for establishing a trusting relationship with ID clients except:
A) keep the first appointment short and nonthreatening.
B) explain instructions quickly.
C) reward positive behavior.
D) familiarize client with surroundings.
Q2) Individuals with Down syndrome have a high incidence of periodontal disease that can begin as early as age 6, and by adulthood nearly all people with Down syndrome are affected.
A) Both parts of the statement are true.
B) Both parts of the statement are false.
C) The first part of the statement is true, and the second part of the statement is false.
D) The first part of the statement is false, and the second part of the statement is true.
Q3) Most children with ASD avoid communicating with:
A) facial expressions.
B) eye contact.
C) nonverbal communication.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 52: Alcohol and Substance Abuse Problems
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23070
Sample Questions
Q1) According to the National Household Survey on Drug Abuse, the age reporting the highest drug use is:
A) 12 to 14.
B) 18 to 25.
C) 20 to 35.
D) 40 to 55.
E) 50 to 59.
Q2) If a chemically dependent client is not ready to change unwanted behavior, the dental hygienist should:
A) alert the police.
B) dismiss client from the practice.
C) refer to primary care physician.
D) refer to intervention treatment facility.
E) state concerns and modify dental treatment.
Q3) Localized gingival and alveolar necrosis adjacent to maxillary premolars is a sign of _____ use.
A) marijuana
B) cocaine
C) PCP
D) alcohol
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Chapter 53: Eating Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23071
Sample Questions
Q1) Of the following therapies for anorexia nervosa, which one of the interventions is likely a therapy included later in the client's recovery care plan?
A) Psychotherapy
B) Family counseling
C) Antidepressant medications
D) Physical fitness routine
E) Dental treatment
Q2) All clients with bulimia nervosa present with some evidence of perimylolysis; clients with binge-eating disorder sometimes present with perimylolysis.
A) The first part of the statement is true, and the second part of the statement is false.
B) The first part of the statement is false, and the second part of the statement is true.
C) Both parts of the statement are true.
D) Both parts of the statement are false.
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Chapter 54: Womens Health and the Health of Their
Children
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30 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23072
Sample Questions
Q1) Teratogens are harmful environmental risk factors that may include various drugs, _____, infections, and/or radiation.
A) vitamins
B) highly spiced foods
C) chemicals
D) allergens
Q2) New mothers should be informed of the potential _____ transmission of oral microorganisms from themselves to their infants.
A) vertical
B) horizontal
C) selective
D) nosocomial
Q3) Educate parents to continue assisting their children on proper brushing and flossing until the child is _____ years old.
A) 1 or 2
B) 3 or 4
C) 5 or 6
D) 7 or 8
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Chapter 55: The Older Adult
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23073
Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to gestures and sign language, adaptations necessary for older patients with hearing decline include which of the following?
A) Large print pamphlets
B) Increased repetition in verbal and written communication
C) Increased volume in speech
D) Waiting room TV presentations for educational topics
Q2) Access to dental care remains relatively high for older individuals, because all Medicare Plus plans include dental services.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q3) All of the following increase the risk for dental decay in older adults except one. Which is the one exception?
A) May perform less effective oral hygiene
B) May have more exposed root surfaces due to past disease
C) Have diminished chewing function
D) Consume fewer vitamins and minerals, specifically Vitamins A and D
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Page 57
Chapter 56: Persons With Fixed and Removable Dental
Prostheses
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24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23074
Sample Questions
Q1) Successful nutritional counseling with older adults can be accomplished if:
A) no major changes are made in food habits and preferences.
B) major changes are made in food habits and preferences.
C) food habits are broken.
D) preferences are ignored and only healthy foods are promoted.
Q2) To promote esthetics, control oral malodor, as well as to prevent and treat infections, persons with dentures need to:
A) visit their dentist annually.
B) ensure they have adequate nutrition.
C) use a mouth rinse daily.
D) maintain denture hygiene.
Q3) Alkaline peroxides are a type of _____ cleanser.
A) chemical
B) mechanical
C) ultrasonic
D) irradiation
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Chapter 57: Orofacial Clefts and Fractured Jaw
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29 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23075
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a symptom of a dislocated jaw?
A) Protrusion of the jaw
B) Malocclusion
C) Inability to close mouth
D) Hemorrhage from oral cavity
Q2) The most commonly fractured facial bone is the:
A) nasal bone.
B) mandible.
C) maxilla.
D) zygoma.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a sign of a fractured jow?
A) deformed, crooked or shifted mandible.
B) malocclusion of the dentition.
C) difficulty breathing.
D) numbness in the chin and lower lip.
Q4) Palate development progresses from the:
A) anterior to posterior.
B) posterior to anterior.
C) medial nasal process to maxillary process.
D) lateral palatine process to the medial nasal process.
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Chapter 58: Osseointegrated Dental Implants
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Q1) During an assessment, the dental hygienist should apply slight pressure to the crown of a dental implant as a method of evaluating the biologic seal. If salivary percolation is observed, it is an indication of a healthy biologic seal.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) A dental implant is made of which one of the following metals?
A) Copper
B) Tin
C) Silver
D) Titanium
Q3) All of the following are recommended devices for cleaning dental implants except one. Which one is the exception?
A) disclosants
B) intraoral mirror and penlight
C) Toothpick
D) Power brushes
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Chapter 59: Persons With Orthodontic Appliances
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Q1) Two principles important to growth modification therapy are which of the following?
A) Growth modification must be initiated after growth is completed to fully control the outcome of the case, and it must be conducted only in clients willing to attend more numerous orthodontic appointments than required for traditional orthodontic therapy.
B) Growth modification can be completed in clients of any age, and traditional orthodontic treatment after its completion will be less involved.
C) Growth modification must be completed in children at a very young age to correct skeletal discrepancies before they occur, and plaque control is even more critical during growth modification than in traditional orthodontics.
D) Growth modification must be carried out in clients who are actively growing, and it must continue until skeletal growth is complete.
Q2) Two types of spacing that are desirable in the primary dentition are:
A) posterior and distal spacing.
B) anterior and eruptive spacing.
C) primate and developmental spacing.
D) none of the above.
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Chapter 60: Abuse and Neglect
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Q1) Failure of dental hygienists and dentists to report suspected cases of child maltreatment has led in some cases to:
A) death of the child.
B) repeated maltreatment of the child.
C) loss of the dental professional's license.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following may be an indicator of human trafficking?
A) The victim is accompanied by someone who does not allow them to come alone.
B) The victim discloses or appears to be under control of another person.
C) The trafficker wants the best dental work for the victim and cost is no object.
D) The victim does not have any identification cards or papers.
E) All of the above are indicators.
Q3) Which of the following is a true statement regarding elderly and vulnerable adults?
A) All elderly adults are considered vulnerable adults.
B) All vulnerable adults are elderly.
C) Elder abuse is expected to increase.
D) Both a and c are true.
E) None of the above are true.
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Chapter 61: Palliative Oral Care
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Q1) What is the term for the period of time during which an individual copes with declining health from a terminal illness or from the frailties associated with advanced age, even if death is not clearly imminent?
A) Hospice
B) End-of-life
C) Long-term care
D) Acute care
Q2) Which oral complication is associated with a change in the consistency and volume of saliva?
A) Oral candidiasis
B) Mucositis
C) Drug-induced xerostomia
D) Ulcers
Q3) Which of the following types of oral candidiasis clinically presents as a cottage cheeselike mass that wipes off with red inflammation and bleeding underneath?
A) Pseudomembranous
B) Erythematous
C) Hyperplastic
D) Angular cheilitis
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Chapter 62: Practice Management
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Q1) A complete case presentation includes all of the following information except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Why the problem is occurring
B) Treatment options on how to fix the problem
C) Recommendations on various options
D) The option the provider wants you to choose
E) Outcomes if no treatment is completed
Q2) A practice's philosophies and objectives can be defined as the practice:
A) management.
B) product.
C) promotion.
D) marketing strategy.
Q3) Client information should be posted in the client's chart:
A) before starting treatment on the client.
B) right after treating the client.
C) at the end of the day.
D) at the end of the week.
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Chapter 63: Career Planning and Job Searching
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Q1) The process of allowing dental hygienists to initiate treatment based on their assessment of clients' needs without the specific authorization or presence of a dentist is termed:
A) direct access.
B) indirect access.
C) direct supervision.
D) independent access.
E) indirect notification.
Q2) What is the minimum amount of notice that should be given to the employer in the event of resignation?
A) 1 week
B) 7 work days
C) 2 weeks
D) 2 months
E) 6 months
Q3) Personal testimonies to a job candidate's competence and character is a(n):
A) mentor.
B) character witness.
C) reference.
D) advisor.
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Chapter 64: Legal and Ethical Decision Making
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Q1) In the scenario described, if a civil lawsuit were filed and a trial occurred, which of the following levels of proof would the jury or judge use in determining if the dental hygienist was guilty of negligence?
A) Substantial proof
B) Beyond a reasonable doubt
C) Preponderance of evidence
D) Proof of intent
Q2) The dentist-employer meets with the dental hygienist-employee at the end of the workday; the dentist informs the dental hygienist that his employment is terminated effective immediately, requests the hygienist's office keys, and states that a final paycheck will be mailed to him directly. Assuming that the employer's actions are legal, which of the following most accurately describes this situation?
A) The dental hygienist is an at-will employee, and the termination is appropriate.
B) The dental hygienist cannot be terminated without 2 weeks' notice.
C) The dental hygienist is a contractual employee and must receive 2 weeks' notice.
D) The dental hygienist is having his legal rights violated.
E) None of the above is correct.
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