Special Care Dentistry
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Special Care Dentistry focuses on the dental management and treatment of individuals with physical, intellectual, medical, emotional, or social conditions that require special consideration. The course explores the unique oral health needs of these diverse patient groups, including those with disabilities, chronic illnesses, or other complexities, and emphasizes the development of skills necessary to deliver safe, effective, and compassionate dental care. Students will learn about interdisciplinary collaboration, communication strategies, ethical and legal considerations, and the adaptation of clinical techniques to promote oral health and improve quality of life for patients with special needs.
Recommended Textbook
Little and Falaces Dental Management of the Medically Compromised Patient 8th Edition by James
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30 Chapters
347 Verified Questions
347 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1615 Page 2
Chapter 1: Patient Evaluation and Risk Assessment
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32075
Sample Questions
Q1) One consequence of chronic hepatitis (B or C)or cirrhosis of the liver is decreased ability of the body to _________ certain drugs,including local anesthetics and analgesics.
A) absorb
B) distribute
C) metabolize
D) excrete
Answer: C
Q2) A blood pressure cuff should be placed on the upper arm and inflated until _________.
A) the radial pulse disappears
B) the radial pulse disappears and then inflated an additional 20 to 30 mm Hg
C) two fingers cannot fit comfortably under the cuff
D) the pulse no longer can be heard with the stethoscope
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Infective Endocarditis
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where are Janeway lesions located?
A) the tricuspid valve
B) the palms of the hands and soles of the feet
C) the pulp of the digits
D) the nail beds
Answer: B
Q2) The American Heart Association currently recommends antibiotic prophylaxis before dental treatment to prevent endocarditis for patients with which of the following cardiac conditions?
A) mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation
B) rheumatic heart disease
C) prosthetic cardiac valve
D) a, b, and c
E) a and c
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Hypertension
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32077
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an adverse drug interaction that may occur if a dental anesthetic containing a vasoconstrictor is administered to a patient being treated for hypertension with a non-selective -adrenergic blocking agent?
A) hypotension
B) hypertension
C) respiratory alkalosis
D) respiratory acidosis
Answer: B
Q2) In prehypertension,diastolic pressure ranges from ________ mm Hg.
A) 80 to 89
B) 90 to 99
C) 100 to 109
D) 110 to 119
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is the most common cardiac condition in America?
A) congestive heart failure
B) cardiac arrhythmia
C) hypertension
D) angina
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Ischemic Heart Disease
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death?
A) ventricular fibrillation
B) myocardial infarction
C) coronary atherosclerosis
D) pulmonary embolism
Q2) Which of the following is the single most important modifiable risk factor for coronary heart disease?
A) diet high in cholesterol
B) failure to exercise
C) smoking cigarettes
D) smoking cigars
Q3) Which of the following is a serum enzyme determination used to establish the diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction (MI)and to determine the extent of infarction?
A) stress thallium-201 perfusion scintigraphy
B) 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-coenzyme A reductase (HMG-CoA)
C) troponin I and troponin T
D) streptokinase (SK)
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Chapter 5: Cardiac Arrhythmias
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an advantage of implantable cardioverter-defibrillators (ICDs)in contrast to pacemakers?
A) ICDs generally are smaller than pacemakers.
B) ICDs are capable of providing antitachycardia pacing (ATP) and ventricular bradycardia pacing, while pacemakers are not capable of providing such pacing.
C) ICDs have batteries that last much longer than pacemakers.
D) ICDs do not require antibiotic prophylaxis prior to dental treatment whereas pacemakers do.
Q2) Which of the following is classified as a significant arrhythmia according to the ACC/AHA guidelines?
A) pathologic Q waves
B) left bundle branch block
C) high-grade AV block
D) ST-T wave abnormalities
Q3) Which of the following is the most common type of persistent arrhythmia?
A) sinus arrhythmia
B) premature atrial complexes
C) atrial fibrillation
D) ventricular flutter and fibrillation
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Heart Failure or Congestive Heart Failure
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following categories of drugs is considered to be first-line therapy for the treatment of heart failure?
A) digitalis glycosides
B) -adrenergic blockers
C) angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
D) angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)
Q2) Most of the acquired disorders that lead to heart failure result in initial failure of the
A) bundle of His
B) mitral valve
C) right ventricle
D) left ventricle
Q3) The outstanding symptom of left ventricular heart failure is ________.
A) dyspnea
B) dysphagia
C) cyanosis
D) rales
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Chapter 7: Pulmonary Disease
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32081
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the drug of choice for relief of an acute asthma attack?
A) oral anticholinergic
B) inhalation corticosteroid
C) short-acting 2-adrenergic agonist
D) inhaled cromolyn sodium
Q2) The most important cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)in the world is ________.
A) occupational pollutants
B) environment pollutants
C) tobacco smoking
D) allergy
Q3) According to the World Health Organization (WHO),approximately what percentage of the world's population is infected with tuberculosis?
A) one-tenth
B) one-eighth
C) one-quarter
D) one-third
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Chapter 8: Smoking and Tobacco Use Cessation
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How long does it take nicotine blood levels to return to baseline after smoking a cigarette?
A) 1 minute
B) 25 to 30 minutes
C) 3 to 5 hours
D) 1 day
Q2) Which of the following causes the most deaths in the United States?
A) motor vehicle crashes
B) acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
C) smoking
D) alcohol abuse and illicit drug use
Q3) How long does it take nicotine to reach the brain following inhalation of cigarette smoke?
A) 10 seconds
B) 60 seconds
C) 5 minutes
D) 15 minutes
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Chapter 9: Sleep-Related Breathing Disorders
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most successful surgical treatment for OSA in children?
A) uvulopalatopharyngoplasty (UPPP)
B) radiofrequency volumetric tissue reduction (RVTR)
C) adenotonsillectomy
D) laser-assisted uvulopalatoplasty (LAUP)
Q2) Which of the following is true of tongue-retaining devices (TRDs)used to treat patients with sleep-related breathing disorders?
A) They typically are made of acrylic resin and are composed of two pieces that cover the upper and lower dental arches.
B) Over 70 different types of TRDs have been approved by the FDA for treatment of obstructive sleep apnea (OSA).
C) TRDs are capable of providing continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).
D) TRDs generally are made of silicone in the shape of a bulb or cavity.
Q3) Most people who snore do not have OSA,but almost all patients with OSA snore.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, the second statement is true.
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Chapter 10: Liver Disease
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) (A/An)_______________ syndrome develops during the preicteric phase in approximately 10% to 20% of patients with acute hepatitis.
A) chronic fatigue
B) irritable bowel
C) serum sickness-like
D) aspirin triad syndrome
Q2) Which of the following is the most common means of transmission of hepatitis C?
A) maternal-infant
B) sexual exposure
C) injection drug use
D) needlestick accidents
Q3) Chronic active hepatitis B is diagnosed by the presence of ______ in blood serum.
A) HBsAg
B) HBcAg
C) HBeAg
D) a, b, and c
E) a and c
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Gastrointestinal Disease
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common oral complication associated with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?
A) petechiae
B) vascular pools
C) sialadenitis
D) aphthous ulcer-like lesions
Q2) Which of the following is characteristic of gastric peptic ulcers rather than duodenal peptic ulcers?
A) epigastric pain that is long-standing
B) diffuse rather than localized epigastric pain
C) symptoms rapidly relieved in most cases by ingestion of food, milk, or antacids
D) pain that most commonly manifests 90 minutes to 3 hours after eating
Q3) Which of the following is the most common cause of peptic ulcer disease?
A) cytomegalovirus infection
B) acid hypersecretion
C) H. pylori infection
D) use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication
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Chapter 12: Chronic Kidney Disease and Dialysis
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do most dialysis patients in the United States receive hemodialysis?
A) continuous cyclic peritoneal dialysis (CCPD)
B) chronic ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)
C) through an arteriovenous graft, usually placed in the forearm
D) through a central catheter
Q2) Infective endocarditis occurs in 2% to 9% of patients receiving hemodialysis.The American Heart Association (AHA)2003 guidelines include a recommendation for prophylactic antibiotics before invasive dental procedures are performed on patients with intravascular access devices to prevent endarteritis or infective endocarditis.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, the second statement is true.
Q3) Failing kidneys are unable to concentrate and filter the intake of ________.
A) sodium
B) potassium
C) iron
D) phosphate
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Chapter 13: Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32087
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most frequently reported STD in the United States today?
A) syphilis
B) chlamydia
C) AIDS
D) gonorrhea
Q2) Which of the following is true of the syphilitic gumma?
A) Gummas are nontender.
B) Gummas are infectious.
C) The oral gumma most commonly involves the tongue and palate.
D) Gummas can occur during any stage of syphilis.
Q3) Which of the following is the recommended treatment regimen for gonococcal pharyngitis?
A) ceftriaxone 250 mg (intramuscularly [IM] in a single dose)
B) oral cefixime 400 mg in a single dose
C) IM cefixime 250 mg plus azithromycin 1 g single oral dose
D) a single dose of injectable cephalosporin plus azithromycin 1 g orally
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Chapter 14: Diabetes Mellitus
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32088
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications is an incretin?
A) nateglinide (Starlix)
B) exenatide (Byetta)
C) metformin (Glucophage)
D) acarbose (Precose)
Q2) Sulfonylurea drugs are members of which of the following classes of drugs used to treat type 2 diabetes?
A) insulin sensitizer
B) insulin secretagogue
C) drugs that slow the absorption of carbohydrates in the gut
D) incretins
Q3) What are recommendations for preventing insulin shock for the dental patient who is going to have intravenous sedation for a dental procedure?
A) Maintain their usual insulin dose prior to the appointment.
B) Supplement with intravenous glucose during the procedure.
C) Skip their normal meal (fast) prior to the appointment.
D) a and b
E) b and c
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Chapter 15: Adrenal Insufficiency
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to current recommendations,which of the following groups of patients should receive additional (supplemental)corticosteroids to prevent adrenal crisis during and after surgery?
A) Patients with either primary adrenal insufficiency or secondary adrenal insufficiency should receive additional corticosteroids.
B) Patients with primary adrenal insufficiency, but not patients with secondary adrenal insufficiency, should receive additional corticosteroids.
C) Patients with secondary adrenal insufficiency, but not patients with primary adrenal insufficiency, should receive additional corticosteroids.
D) Neither patients with primary adrenal insufficiency nor patients with secondary adrenal insufficiency should receive additional corticosteroids.
Q2) Which of the following is the most reliable and most commonly used laboratory test to determine adrenal insufficiency?
A) dexamethasone suppression test
B) CRH test
C) synthetic ACTH (cosyntropin) stimulation test
D) insulin tolerance test
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Chapter 16: Thyroid Diseases
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true regarding the incidence and prevalence of thyroid diseases?
A) Graves' disease is usually detected prior to adolescence.
B) During the past 10 years or so, the incidence of thyroid cancer has increased at a rate of about 5% per year.
C) Postpartum thyroiditis is a form of subacute painful thyroiditis.
D) Riedel's thyroiditis is a form of congenital hypothyroidism present in about 1 in 4,000 newborns.
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of hypothyroidism in older children and adults?
A) warm, moist skin
B) alopecia of the outer third of the eyebrows
C) increased size of the tongue
D) a and b
E) b and c
Q3) Which of the following is a form of thyroid hyperfunction?
A) myxedema
B) cretinism
C) thyrotoxicosis
D) Hashimoto's thyroiditis
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Chapter 17: Pregnancy and Breast Feeding
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The gonadal/fetal dose incurred with two periapical dental films (when a lead apron is used)is __________ that for 1 day of average exposure to natural background radiation in the United States.
A) 700 times less than
B) 7 times less than
C) equal to
D) 7 times more than
Q2) Supine hypotensive syndrome during late pregnancy is due to __________.
A) an increase in blood volume
B) compression of the inferior vena cava by the gravid uterus
C) a fall in maternal hematocrit
D) a benign systolic ejection murmur
Q3) Which of the following is the analgesic of choice during pregnancy?
A) aspirin
B) acetaminophen
C) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory
D) codeine
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Chapter 18: Aids, HIV Infection, and Related Conditions
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of gingival erythema is associated with the HIV positive patient?
A) papillary gingivitis
B) diffuse gingivitis
C) linear gingival erythema
D) desquamative gingivitis
Q2) A person is defined as having AIDS when the CD4+ count is less than ____ cells/µL.
A) 400
B) 200
C) 100
D) 0
Q3) Which of the following should be a major consideration when planning dental treatment for the patient with HIV infection/AIDS?
A) current CD4+ lymphocyte count
B) immunosuppression level
C) level of viral load
D) all of the above
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Chapter 19: Allergy
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following local anesthetics is associated with the highest incidence of allergic reactions?
A) articaine (Septocaine)
B) procaine (Novocain)
C) lidocaine (Xylocaine)
D) prilocaine (Citanest)
Q2) Which of the following types of hypersensitivity reactions involves the cellular immune system?
A) type I
B) type II
C) type III
D) type IV
Q3) Which of the following is a clinical example of a type III hypersensitivity reaction?
A) anaphylaxis due to penicillin allergy
B) transfusion reaction caused by mismatched blood
C) systemic lupus erythematosus
D) contact dermatitis
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Chapter 20: Rheumatologic and Connective Tissue Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common form of arthritis?
A) rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
B) osteoarthritis (OA)
C) juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (jRA)
D) psoriatic rheumatoid arthritis (pRA)
Q2) Which of the following is the most significant oral complication of rheumatoid arthritis?
A) salivary gland dysfunction (xerostomia)
B) burning tongue syndrome (glossodynia)
C) TMJ involvement
D) vesiculobullous lesions
Q3) Giant cell arteritis (GCA)most commonly affects branches of the ___________ artery.
A) maxillary
B) carotid
C) superior thyroid
D) inferior thyroid
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Organ and Bone Marrow Transplantation
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)as a consequence of allogenic bone marrow transplantation?
A) It is treated by increasing the dosage of immunosuppressive agents and is rarely fatal.
B) Acute GVHD will appear within 7 to 10 days following the transplant.
C) Acute GVHD is characterized by mucosal, skin, liver, and gastrointestinal tract involvement.
D) Chronic GVHD occurs within the first 3 months after transplantation.
Q2) Which of the following types of transplant recipients has the highest reported 1-year patient survival rate?
A) liver
B) intestine
C) kidney
D) lung
Q3) Which of the following types of organ transplants has the best chance for success?
A) allogeneic
B) syngeneic
C) xenograft
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23
Chapter 22: Disorders of Red Blood Cells
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following serves as the primary sensor in the body for determining oxygenation of the blood?
A) gastrointestinal tract
B) lungs
C) kidney
D) liver
Q2) Which of the following is the most common type of anemia among persons in the United States?
A) hemolytic anemia
B) iron deficiency anemia
C) folate deficiency anemia
D) sickle cell anemia
Q3) What is the most common therapy for aplastic anemia?
A) long-term use of erythropoietin
B) cyanocobalamin injections
C) immunosuppression with antithymocyte globulin (ATG) alone or with cyclosporine
D) iron supplements
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Chapter 23: Disorders of White Blood Cells
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)?
A) AML is a neoplasm of mature myeloid WBCs.
B) AML has a sudden onset.
C) The Philadelphia chromosome is present in more than 90% of cases of AML.
D) a and b
E) b and c
Q2) Immunoglobulins are created by which of the following types of cells?
A) T lymphocytes
B) B lymphocytes
C) basophils
D) eosinophils
Q3) What are Reed-Sternberg cells?
A) B lymphocytes
B) T lymphocytes
C) Natural killer (NK) T lymphocytes
D) T suppressor lymphocytes
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Chapter 24: Acquired Bleeding and Hypercoagulable Disorders
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vitamin K is needed by the liver to produce factor ___.
A) II
B) V
C) VIII
D) XI
Q2) Tissue-type plasminogen activator (tPA)is released by _________ cells at the site of injury.
A) endothelial
B) mesenchymal
C) plasma
D) polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs)
Q3) Routine dental treatment involving minor tissue injury should be delayed if the platelet count is below _______/µL.
A) 10,000
B) 30,000
C) 50,000
D) 70,000
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Congenital Bleeding and Hypercoagulable Disorders
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following dental treatments for a patient with severe hemophilia A will usually require factor VIII replacement therapy?
A) infiltration anesthesia
B) block anesthesia
C) simple restorative procedures
D) conservative periodontal procedures
Q2) What percentage of adults with hemophilia A is HIV positive?
A) 15
B) 35
C) 55
D) 75
Q3) What is a telangiectasia?
A) a bruise
B) a focal dilation of postcapillary venules with connections to dilated arterioles
C) a vesiculobullous lesion
D) a hyperkeratotic lesion with some dystrophic changes
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Chapter 26: Cancer and Oral Care of the Cancer Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the leading cause of cancer deaths in the United States?
A) colon cancer
B) breast cancer
C) lung cancer
D) bone cancer
Q2) The risk for a second oral cancer in smokers whose habits remain unchanged is about __%,as compared with 13% for those who quit smoking.
A) 15
B) 20
C) 25
D) 30
Q3) Which of the following is true regarding the incidence of cancer in the United States?
A) Cancer is second only to heart disease as the leading cause of death in the United States.
B) The incidence of cancer has decreased over the past 50 years.
C) The death rate from all cancers combined has increased in the past 10 years.
D) a, b, c
E) a and c
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Chapter 27: Neurologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most important risk factor for intracerebral hemorrhagic stroke?
A) high-cholesterol diet
B) hypertension
C) type II diabetes
D) cytomegalovirus
Q2) Status epilepticus is __________________.
A) the diagnosis of the particular form of epilepsy based on the presence of abnormalities on electroencephalogram (EEG)
B) repeated seizures over a short time without a recovery period
C) the analysis of the response of motor cortex neurons to long-term drug therapy
D) a determination of whether the seizure is partial or generalized
Q3) Which of the following is/are true of the epidemiology of epileptic seizures?
A) Seizures are most common in adolescents and young adults.
B) The incidence of seizures in males is higher at every age.
C) Approximately 10% of the population will have at least one epileptic seizure in a lifetime.
D) a and b
E) b and c
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Anxiety, eating Disorders, and Behavioral
Reactions to Illness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of medications are the standard agents for antianxiety therapy?
A) sedative-hypnotics
B) antihistamines
C) beta blockers
D) benzodiazepines
Q2) The erosive process of perimylolysis primarily involves which of the following surfaces of the teeth?
A) facial and buccal surfaces of maxillary teeth
B) lingual surfaces of maxillary teeth
C) facial and buccal surfaces of mandibular teeth
D) lingual surfaces of mandibular teeth
Q3) Which of the following is/are true of anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa?
A) Induced vomiting is associated with bulimia nervosa.
B) Anorexia nervosa is characterized by the medical sequelae of starvation.
C) Anorexia nervosa is more common than bulimia nervosa.
D) a and b
E) b and c
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Chapter 29: Psychiatric Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most widely used mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder?
A) tranylcypromine (Parnate)
B) fluvoxamine (Luvox)
C) lithium carbonate
D) carbamazepine
Q2) Many over-the-counter (OTC)cold remedies should not be prescribed for patients taking monoamine oxidase (MAO)inhibitors because the cold remedies contain
A) phenylephrine
B) tyramine
C) allopurinol
D) epinephrine
Q3) It is suggested that no more than _____ cartridges of dental local anesthetic containing (1:100,000)epinephrine be used during an appointment when a patient is taking tricyclic antidepressants.
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Drug and Alcohol Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Naloxone is used for emergency treatment of an overdose of _________.
A) amphetamine
B) cocaine
C) opioids
D) sedative-hypnotics
Q2) Gingival recession and erosion of the facial aspects of the maxillary teeth can occur with intraoral use of _________ due to persistent rubbing of the powder over these surfaces.
A) pseudoephedrine
B) benzodiazepine
C) cocaine
D) ecstasy
Q3) How long should a dentist wait before administering dental local anesthetic containing epinephrine to a patient who is "high" on cocaine?
A) 3 hours
B) 6 hours
C) 12 hours
D) 24 hours
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