Space Science Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Space Science explores the fundamental principles and current discoveries in the study of the universe beyond Earth's atmosphere. This course covers a broad range of topics including the formation and evolution of stars and galaxies, planetary systems, space exploration technology, and the search for extraterrestrial life. Emphasizing both observational and theoretical approaches, students will gain insights into the physics governing celestial bodies, satellite operations, and the broader implications of space phenomena on our understanding of the cosmos.
Recommended Textbook
Astronomy Today 8th Edition by Eric Chaisson
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28 Chapters
2941 Verified Questions
2941 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Charting the Heavens: The Foundations of Astronomy
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94 Verified Questions
94 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the significance of the zodiacal signs,and why can all twelve not be seen on a given night?
Answer: They are twelve constellations along the ecliptic,the apparent path of the Sun.Thus the Sun's glare will typically hide at least two of them at any given time.
Q2) Which statement about the length of a day is FALSE?
A) At the North Pole, the day lasts six months, then six months of night.
B) At the equator, every day is twelve hours long, then twelve hours of night.
C) For the United States, June 21st will be the longest day.
D) The solar day is four minutes longer than the sidereal one.
E) The sidereal day includes both the Earth's rotation and revolution around the Sun.
Answer: E
Q3) What are some observable consequences of the Earth's revolution around the Sun in relation to the zodiacal constellations?
Answer: Month by month,our revolution causes the Sun to appear to move eastward by about a degree per day,or through a new sign of the zodiac every month.
Q4) The Milky Way galaxy contains about ________ stars.
Answer: 100 billion
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Chapter 2: The Copernican Revolution: The Birth of Modern Science
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the distance between two asteroids is doubled,the gravitational force they exert on each other will:
A) also be doubled.
B) be half as great.
C) be one fourth as great.
D) be 1/16 as great.
E) be four times greater.
Answer: C
Q2) In what geometric way can we determine the absolute distances to the planets?
Answer: The parallax for some nearby planets can be directly measured,giving a precise knowledge of the A.U.This is now set from direct radar echo timings off the surface of the Sun and other planets.
Q3) It was the Chinese who provided critical ancient data on supernovae and comets.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) While both Ptolemy and Copernicus assumed all orbits were ________,Kepler's first law corrected this and made planetary motion predictable. Answer: circles
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Radiation: Information from the Cosmos
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The product of the wavelength times the frequency of a wave is its ________.
Answer: velocity
Q2) A blue star has a higher surface temperature than a red star.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Per unit area (such as a square centimeter),a B star whose surface temperature is 10,000 K will put out how much radiation compared to an O star whose surface temperature is 30,000 K?
A) 81 times as much
B) 9 times as much
C) 1/81 as much
D) 1/9 as much
E) 1/3 as much
Answer: C
Q4) According to Wein's law,the higher the surface temperature of a star,the redder its color.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Spectroscopy: The Inner Workings of Atoms
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94 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the photoelectric effect in order to release electrons from a solid,the light incident upon it must:
A) have a high intensity.
B) have a low intensity.
C) have a long wavelength.
D) have a short wavelength.
E) None of the above.
Q2) The ________ spitting of the spectral lines is due to a strong magnetic field present.
Q3) The Zeeman effect reveals the presence of strong magnetic fields by the splitting of spectral lines.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The radial velocity of a star's motion in space can also broaden its spectral lines.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A low-density,hot gas produces a continuous spectrum.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Telescopes: The Tools of Astronomy
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What problem do refractor telescopes have that reflectors don't?
A) diffraction limited resolution
B) light loss from secondary elements
C) chromatic aberration
D) spherical aberration
E) bad seeing
Q2) The convex secondary mirror in this design focuses light down through a hole cut in the concave primary mirror.
A) refractor
B) prime focus reflector
C) Newtonian reflector
D) Cassegrain reflector
E) interferometer
Q3) What is the resolution of a telescope?
A) its ability to see very faint objects
B) its ability to distinguish two adjacent objects close together in the sky
C) its ability to make distant objects appear much closer to us
D) its ability to separate light into its component colors for analysis
E) its ability to focus more than just visible light for imaging
Q4) What is a CCD,and how does it work? Why is it replacing film?
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Chapter 6: The Solar System: Comparative Planetology and Formation Models
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151 Verified Questions
151 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the goal of comparative planetology?
A) to use planetary positions to foretell the future
B) to find which planets will be most suitable for future colonization
C) to help plan future visits by unmanned probes, orbiters, and rovers
D) to determine the origin and evolution of the solar system
E) to find out how our own solar system compares with extrasolar ones
Q2) Our understanding of the solar system has come in a way that can best be described as:
A) constant since prehistoric times.
B) slow and steady since the discovery of the telescope by Galileo.
C) erratic, with spurts when new planets were found.
D) steady until the last decade, when the decline in the space program slowed it a great deal.
E) explosive, with us learning more in the past few decades than in all previous history.
Q3) Earth is nearly twice as large as Venus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Name the four principal types of solar system debris; pair them up in terms of composition.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Earth: Our Home in Space
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102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The critical part of the atmosphere for protecting life on the ground from excessive ultraviolet radiation is the:
A) hydrosphere.
B) troposphere.
C) ozone layer.
D) stratosphere.
E) ionosphere.
Q2) Note at least three surface features that are driven by plate tectonics.
Q3) The hydrosphere covers about 50% of the Earth's crust.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compared to the density of water,our Earth averages about:
A) the same density, similar to Saturn.
B) 3 times denser, much like our Moon.
C) 4 times denser, similar to Mars.
D) 5 times denser, like the Mercury and Venus.
E) 10 times denser, due to our core of iron and nickel.
Q5) How did Alfred Wegener first notice the possibility of plate tectonics? What lies in the gap he noted?
Page 9
Q6) Describe several features on the Earth's crust explained by plate tectonics.
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Chapter 8: The Moon and Mercury: Scorched and Battered Worlds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because of its high mean density and magnetic field,Mercury's large core must be made chiefly of ________.
Q2) The Moon's huge Mare Orientale basin has a twin on Mercury named:
A) Galileo.
B) Caloris.
C) Mare Marineris.
D) the weird terrain.
E) Valhalla.
Q3) Mercury's tenuous atmosphere of sodium,magnesium,and potassium comes from:
A) atoms that have been kicked off the surface by the solar wind.
B) volcanic outgassing.
C) residual gases from Mercury's formation.
D) impacts of asteroids or comets.
Q4) How does Mercury's magnetic field compare to our own?
A) Like Venus, Mercury has no detectable magnetic field.
B) Like Mars and the Earth, it too has undergone polarity reversals.
C) It is 1/100th as strong as ours, but does deflect the solar wind to some degree.
D) It is amazingly strong, comparable to our own.
E) It was predicted from Mercury's rapid rotation and molten core.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Venus: Earth's Sister Planet
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contrast the compositions and heights of the clouds of Earth and Venus.
Q2) Since its density is similar to ours,we think that Venus too has a core of ________.
Q3) Venus is brightest as seen from Earth:
A) at greatest eastern elongation, appearing half lit in the evening sky.
B) at greatest western elongation, appearing half lit in the morning sky.
C) 36 days before or after inferior conjunction, appearing as a large crescent.
D) at inferior conjunction, when closest to Earth and largest in apparent size.
E) at superior conjunction, and fully lit.
Q4) If Mars' atmosphere is mostly carbon dioxide,why isn't it as hot as Venus?
Q5) Venus orbits the Sun in 225 days.How long does it take to rotate on its axis?
A) 225 days, so it keeps the same face toward the Sun
B) 24 hours, 36 minutes, very similar to Earth and Mars
C) 243 days, even though the Earth's tidal pull is not involved
D) 36 days, for reasons unknown
E) 450 days, exactly at 2:1 spin-orbit resonance
Q6) No evidence of impact craters has been found on Venus.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Describe how conditions on Venus have produced a runaway Greenhouse Effect.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Mars: A Near Miss for Life?
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102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is Mars red?
A) Dust storms on the planet have blasted the planet so fiercely that the rocks have reddened.
B) The iron in the surface rocks have been oxidized over time.
C) Mercuric oxide is abundant and has a red tint.
D) Sulfuric acid rain etched a reddish color into iron-rich surface rocks.
E) The ancient volcanoes poured out vast plains of molten sulfur, much as on Io, which has now solidified and preserved the reddish color.
Q2) It used to be thought that both of Mars' moons were captured asteroids.Information from Mars Express and Mars Global Surveyor has led to the conclusion that Phobos may have formed by a different process.Briefly describe that process.
Q3) The seasonal polar caps on Mars,which grow and shrink over the year,are primarily carbon dioxide.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Running water played a major role in shaping Mars in ancient times.
A)True
B)False
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Jupiter: Giant of the Solar System
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101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast the magnetospheres of Earth and Jupiter.Discuss strength and reaction to solar winds.
Q2) Which of the Galilean moons is the densest and most geologically active?
A) Io
B) Europa
C) Ganymede
D) Callisto
E) Titan
Q3) Io's volcanoes contribute material to a(n)________ around the planet Jupiter's equator.
Q4) The particles making up the ring of Jupiter are composed of bright,reflective ice.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How was the rotation rate of Jupiter's core determined?
A) by observing the Great Red Spot
B) by watching Io move across the disk of Jupiter
C) by radio observations of Jupiter's rapidly spinning magnetosphere
D) by observing the fastest moving regions of Jupiter's equator
E) by measuring the oblateness of Jupiter's disk
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Chapter 12: Saturn: Spectacular Rings and Mysterious
Moons
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104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When Voyager 2 was routed to fly by Saturn,it was originally the plan to have the satellite fly through the Cassini gap.Why would this have been a bad idea?
A) That route would have taken Voyager 2 within the Roche Limit and the satellite would have been torn to pieces.
B) That route would have taken Voyager 2 inside Saturn's magnetic field causing the electronics on board to be destroyed.
C) The Cassini gap actually contains a large moon that orbits Saturn with a very high speed and Voyager 2 would have collided with that moon.
D) The gaps in Saturn's ring system (including the Cassini gap) are not actually empty space, rather they are an area of low density in the rings.
E) Voyager 2 would have encountered density waves which would have crushed the satellite.
Q2) Contrast the size,mass,and density of Jupiter and Saturn.
Q3) Saturn's orbital semi-major axis is almost twice Jupiter's.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Contrast the probes dispatched by Galileo and Cassini in destinations.
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Chapter 13: Uranus and Neptune: The Outer Worlds of the Solar System
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108 Verified Questions
108 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which three played a role in the finding of Neptune?
A) Herschel, Hubble, and Einstein
B) Newton, Einstein, and Tombaugh
C) Adams, Leverrier, and Galle
D) Bode, Herschel, and Fraunhofer
E) Shapley, Hubble, and Whipple
Q2) The Great Dark Spot on Neptune is probably as stable as Jupiter's famed Great Red Spot.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The magnetic field tilts of which two bodies are the most unusual?
A) Mercury and Earth
B) Jupiter and Saturn
C) Uranus and Neptune
D) Saturn and Venus
E) Mars and Saturn
Q4) ________ looked very bland in Voyager 2 photos in 1986,but as equinox approached in the 1990s,its disk showed belts,zones,and storms.
Page 15
Q5) Discuss the role that methane plays in the appearances of Neptune and Uranus.
Q6) Discuss the seasons of Uranus.
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Page 16
Chapter 14: Solar System Debris: Keys to Our Origin
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Sample Questions
Q1) We find that near perihelion,Pluto temporarily develops a(n)________.
Q2) Which of the following objects would be found on the Moon's surface?
A) sedimentary rocks
B) meteoroids
C) meteors
D) meteorites
E) asteroids
Q3) What arguments are cited for the existence of the Oort Cloud of comets?
Q4) Which of the following objects never collide with the Earth?
A) Apollo asteroids
B) Amor asteroids
C) Aten asteroids
D) long period comets
E) short period comets
Q5) From its orbit,we now recognize Pluto as one of the largest members of the: A) moons of Neptune.
B) asteroid belt.
C) Kuiper Belt.
D) Oort Cloud.
E) Zodiacal Belt.
17
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Chapter 15: Exoplanets: Planetary Systems Beyond Our Own
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74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these is NOT a consequence of resonance?
A) the Moon's periods of rotation and revolution are equal
B) the orbital periods of Neptune and Pluto
C) the Kirkwood Gaps in the asteroid belt
D) Venus' cloud and surface rotation rates
E) Mercury's rotation and revolution around the Sun
Q2) Some type of catastrophe is likely needed to explain the highly tilted rotation axis of Uranus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Kepler and CoRoT missions use which technique to detect planet candidates?
A) radial velocity measurements
B) direct imaging
C) measurements of transverse motion
D) planetary transits
Q4) The radial velocity method is less likely to detect low mass planets than high mass planets because low mass planets cause smaller ________ fluctuations.
Q5) Discuss the important features that allow space-based telescopes to search for transiting exoplanets.
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Chapter 16: The Sun: Our Parent Star
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using the observations of the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO)and Solar Dynamics Observatory (SDO),it may be possible to predict mass ejections from the Sun days in advance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The pattern of rising hot gas cells all over the photosphere is called:
A) filaments.
B) granulation.
C) sunspots.
D) convective projections.
E) prominences.
Q3) The Sun's density is about the same as Saturn's.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain what the granulation of the solar surface is related to.
Q5) What do sunspots tell us about the Sun's rotation rate?
Q6) The solar corona produces a lot more X-rays than it does visible light.
A)True
B)False
Q7) How does solar luminosity vary during the sunspot cycle?
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Chapter 17: The Stars: Giants,Dwarfs,and the Main Sequence
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107 Verified Questions
107 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a star is found by spectroscopic observations to be about 500 parsecs distant,its parallax is:
A) 0.2".
B) 0.5".
C) 0.02".
D) 0.002".
E) 0.005".
Q2) How might the most common occurring stars be described,based on our stellar neighborhood?
A) white dwarfs
B) K giants
C) G main sequence
D) A main sequence
E) M main sequence
Q3) First magnitude Spica appears 2.5 times brighter than second magnitude Polaris.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How is distance determined to the nearest stars? How far out can this technique be applied? How many stars can be measured in this way?
Page 20
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Chapter 18: The Interstellar Medium: Gas and Dust among the Stars
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Sample Questions
Q1) The "Local Bubble" was probably created by a nearby supernova in the distant past.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The overall dimming of starlight passing through dust clouds is called ________.
Q3) Most interstellar clouds are:
A) much bigger than our solar system.
B) about the size of Earth.
C) similar in size to clouds in Earth's atmosphere.
D) much smaller than the clouds in Earth's atmosphere.
E) about the size of a wavelength of light.
Q4) Interstellar matter is distributed very evenly through the galaxy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The compositions of dark clouds can be determined through absorption spectra.
A)True
B)False
Q6) We often find dark nebulae associated with bright H II regions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Star Formation: A Traumatic Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about the stages of starbirth is FALSE?
A) At stage 1, only the cloud exists.
B) By stage 3, the star has formed a photosphere.
C) Nuclear reactions begin in the core by stage 4.
D) The T-Tauri wind is prevalent in stage 5.
E) By stage 7, the star has reached the main sequence.
Q2) The birthplaces of stars correspond to the ________ clouds in the interstellar medium.
Q3) How are T Tauri stars characterized observationally?
A) by sudden changes in their brightness
B) by very high temperatures
C) by very high magnetic fields and large starspots
D) by very rapid rotation
E) They are newly-formed stars that are short period binaries.
Q4) Our Sun,along with most of the stars in our neighborhood,probably formed:
A) a few million years ago.
B) about 10 million years ago.
C) hundreds of millions of years ago.
D) billions of years ago.
E) at the beginning of the universe.
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Stellar Evolution: The Life and Death of a Star
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Sample Questions
Q1) The longest stage in the life cycle of a star is as a(n)________ star.
Q2) What can disrupt the evolutionary sequence of a star?
Q3) During various stages of evolution,low mass stars (like the Sun)differ significantly from high mass stars.How do they differ in terms of observational properties while Main Sequence stars?
Q4) What element are most white dwarfs primarily made of? Why?
Q5) What is a typical age for a globular cluster?
A) 10 million years
B) 200 million years
C) one billion years
D) 4.8 billion years
E) 12 billion years
Q6) Refer to the figure above.What is the name of the path between the points labeled 10 and 11?
A) planetary nebula
B) red giant branch
C) horizontal branch
D) asymptotic giant branch
E) white dwarf
Q7) Describe the helium flash and why it occurs.
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Chapter 21: Stellar Explosions: Novae,Supernovae,and the
Formation of the Elements
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Crab Nebula is a bright,long-lasting supernova remnant that was made by a ________ supernova.
Q2) Which of these is the likely progenitor of a type II supernova?
A) a mass-transfer binary, with the white dwarf already at 1.3 solar masses
B) a contact binary, with the neutron star at 2.3 solar masses
C) an evolved red giant which is just starting to make silicon in its core
D) two white dwarfs in a contact binary system
E) an evolved blue supergiant that is about to experience the helium flash
Q3) A recurrent nova could eventually build up to a:
A) planetary nebula.
B) type I supernova.
C) type II supernova.
D) hypernova.
E) quasar.
Q4) Unlike supernovae,novae can explode more than once,increasing their luminosity by thousands of times.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Can our Sun ever become a nova? Why?
Page 24
Q6) Why does iron formation cause a high mass star to "have a heart attack"?
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Chapter 22: Neutron Stars and Black Holes: Strange States of Matter
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Q1) Why do scientists describe the theory of gravity as "incomplete"?
A) It does not incorporate a description of matter on a very small scale.
B) It does not explain why light bends near a dense object.
C) It does not agree with the expansion of the universe.
D) The gravity waves it predicts have not been observed.
E) It does not explain the effects on time from a massive object.
Q2) In a neutron star,the core is:
A) made of compressed neutrons in contact with each other.
B) electrons and protons packed so tightly they are in contact.
C) constantly expanding and contracting.
D) primarily iron and silicon.
E) no longer rotating.
Q3) General relativity explains the observed precession of the orbit of:
A) Pluto.
B) Jupiter.
C) Earth.
D) Mercury.
E) Io.
Q4) Relate escape speed to event horizon for a black hole.
Page 26
Q5) Not all neutron stars can be observed as pulsars.Explain.
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Chapter 23: The Milky Way Galaxy: A Spiral in Space
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Sample Questions
Q1) Population I stars came billions of years before Population II stars.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A pulsating variable star with a period of 10 days would be a Cepheid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why is a variable star so convenient for measuring distances to very remote objects?
Q4) The radio source ________ is located in a place consistent with the center of our Galaxy.
A) Cygnus X-1
B) 3C 273
C) 47 Tucanae
D) M-8, the Lagoon Nebula
E) Sgr A
Q5) As Curtiss thought,our Milky Way is now known to be quite similar to the nearby Andromeda Galaxy,M-31.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe our location in the Milky Way.
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Chapter 24: Galaxies: Building Blocks of the Universe
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Large and Small Magellanic Clouds fall into Hubble's class:
A) SBc.
B) Pec.
C) E6.
D) Irr I.
E) E3.
Q2) Which of the following does the intensity of synchrotron radiation NOT depend on?
A) mass of the electron
B) temperature
C) speed of electrons
D) frequency of radiation
E) strength of the magnetic field
Q3) Why do astronomers speak in terms of redshifts rather than distances to faraway objects?
Q4) ________ galaxies seem to represent a transition between quasars and similar active nuclei compared to more normal spirals.
Q5) How can the size of a quasar be measured?
Q6) What are the Magellanic Clouds? What happened in the LMC in 1987?
Q7) What lines of evidence show that the Milky Way Galaxy is indeed a spiral galaxy?
Page 28
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Chapter 25: Galaxies and Dark Matter: The Large-Scale
Structure of the Cosmos
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Sample Questions
Q1) As we look at larger and larger scales in the universe,we find:
A) smaller and smaller masses.
B) almost exclusively visible matter.
C) a larger and larger percentage of the matter is visible.
D) a larger and larger percentage of the matter is dark.
E) an equal amount of visible and dark matter.
Q2) According to their rotation curves,most spiral galaxies:
A) rotate as a solid body.
B) rotate counterclockwise.
C) have decreasing rotational speeds with increasing distance.
D) contain dark matter.
E) contain dark energy.
Q3) An interaction between a large and a small elliptical galaxy that results in a large spiral and a small elliptical galaxy takes:
A) several thousand years.
B) several hundred thousand years.
C) several million years.
D) several hundred million years.
E) several billion years.
Q4) Why would spiral galaxies be less common now than in the early universe?
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Chapter 26: Cosmology: The Big Bang and the Fate of the Universe
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Q1) What was there just after the Big Bang?
A) nothing
B) the primeval fireball
C) a singularity
D) a black hole
E) everything was inside Earth
Q2) If the density of the universe is at the critical density,this means that:
A) the universe is expanding at a rate equal to the escape speed of the universe.
B) the universe is expanding at a rate less than the escape speed of the universe.
C) the universe is expanding at a rate greater than the escape speed of the universe.
D) the universe is expanding at a rate equal to the speed of light.
E) the universe is expanding at a rate greater than the speed of light.
Q3) ________ is the concept that the universe looks the same in all directions.
Q4) If the density of the universe is at the critical density,then the geometry of the universe would follow ordinary Euclidean geometry.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: The Early Universe: Toward the Beginning of Time
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19929
Sample Questions
Q1) Regular atoms did not show up in the universe until when?
Q2) The critical temperature above which pair production can occur is called the:
A) Chandrasekhar Limit.
B) Cosmological Constant.
C) fusion temperature.
D) threshold temperature.
E) event horizon.
Q3) Ripples in the Cosmic Microwave Background correspond to:
A) matter density fluctuations.
B) temperature fluctuations.
C) energy fluctuations.
D) fluctuations in both matter and radiation.
E) imperfections in measurement techniques or equipment.
Q4) The critical temperature for nucleosynthesis to begin was the:
A) triple alpha reaction at 100 million K.
B) deuterium bottleneck at about 900 million K.
C) proton-proton cycle at 10 million K.
D) iron production at 10 billion K.
E) formation of lithium at 50 million K.
Q5) Relate the inflationary theory to the GUTs.
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evidence gathered from observations of exoplanets indicates approximately what percentage of stars have planets?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 10
D) 100
E) It is not yet possible to make an estimate.
Q2) Of all the chemical elements,the one most crucial to the complexity of life is:
A) hydrogen.
B) oxygen.
C) sulfur.
D) carbon.
E) nitrogen.
Q3) Of the planetary systems that may exist in our galaxy,what fraction may contain a habitable planet?
A) almost all
B) about half
C) about a tenth
D) only 1 in 50
E) less than 1 in 100
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