Sonographic Cross-Sectional Anatomy Question Bank
Course Introduction
Sonographic Cross-Sectional Anatomy introduces students to the visualization and interpretation of anatomical structures as seen in cross-sectional imaging, with a specific focus on sonography (ultrasound). The course emphasizes the identification of normal anatomical landmarks and their relationships in transverse, sagittal, and coronal planes, providing the foundational knowledge necessary for accurate ultrasound examination and diagnosis. Through lectures, laboratory sessions, and practical case studies, students develop the skills to correlate two-dimensional ultrasound images with three-dimensional anatomical structures, preparing them for advanced topics in diagnostic medical sonography.
Recommended Textbook
Sonography Introduction to Normal Structure and Function 3rd Edition by Reva Arnez Curry
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31 Chapters
845 Verified Questions
845 Flashcards
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2
Chapter 1: Before and After the Ultrasound Examination
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22040
Sample Questions
Q1) Homogeneous liver texture ____
Answer: TO
A description of the ultrasound findings based on the echo pattern and size is a technical observation.
Q2) A living will can be found in the patient's chart. ____
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Using self-sheathing needles is a strategy for reducing exposure to blood-borne pathogens. ____
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The sonographer should always review the ultrasound request form. _____
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) Fever and chills ´ 3 days ____
Answer: CH
"Fever and chills ´ 3 days" describes clinical symptoms (clinical history).
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Ultrasound Instrumentation: Knobology, Imaging Processing, and Storage
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why it is important to learn the knobology of the ultrasound system.
Answer: The sonographer's knowledge of knobology allows for optimum manipulation of system controls to produce images of diagnostic quality. Sonographers must master the ultrasound system controls to produce these optimum images and to retrieve diagnostic information from the ultrasound examination.
Q2) The advantages of the Radiology Information System include appointment scheduling and the use of work lists. ____
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Sonographers must learn to use a wide range of technologic tools to ensure optimum imaging and to facilitate sonologist reporting. ____
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: General Patient Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients have been known to answer to the wrong name; therefore, the sonographer should always _____________________________________________.
Answer: check the patient's identification bracelet (or identification number) against the patient chart; or, ask outpatients to repeat their name back to the sonographer Prior to an exam, sonographers must make sure they have the correct patient. Patients have been known to answer to the wrong name. The sonographer should check the patient's identification bracelet or number against the patient chart and request form; they should ask outpatients to repeat back their names.
Q2) What action conveys a sense of genuine interest in the patient?
A) Making small talk
B) Adjusting the tone and expression of your voice
C) Obtaining a medical history
D) Discussing your opinion of the ultrasound findings
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: First Scanning Experience
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sagittal and coronal scanning plane images show only longitudinal sections of structures. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which task is NOT within the sonographer's scope of practice?
A) Collecting clinical information from a patient or from the person's chart
B) Describing areas of pathology in sonographic terms
C) Interpreting sonographic images and reporting a diagnosis to the referring clinician or the patient
D) Differentiating normal from abnormal sonographic patterns and relating findings to the sonologist
Q3) Which term refers to decreased echogenicity as compared with other body structures?
A) Anechoic
B) Isoechoic
C) Hyperechoic
D) Hypoechoic
Q4) Coronal planes divide the body into unequal ________ and ________ sections.
Q5) Sagittal planes divide the body into unequal _________ and _________ sections.
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Q6) The normal echo texture appearance of soft tissues is characterized as ________.
Chapter 5: Interdependent Body Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the bone marrow in the musculoskeletal system cannot replace dying red blood cells, the urinary system steps in and produces new red blood cells.____
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which body system does nothing directly to contribute to the survival of the human body?
A) Central nervous system
B) Endocrine system
C) Reproductive system
D) Digestive system
Q3) Fertilization typically occurs in the A) uterus.
B) ovary.
C) fallopian tube.
D) cervix.
Q4) Hormones cause a chemical breakdown of bone when minerals are needed throughout the body. ____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Anatomy Layering and Sectional Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The greater sac
A) extends from the diaphragm to the pelvis and covers the width of the abdomen.
B) is the omental bursa.
C) is a double layer of peritoneum that extends from the stomach to adjacent abdominal organs.
D) is a diverticulum of the mesentery located posterior to the stomach.
Q2) Intraperitoneal structures are connected to the cavity wall by the A) omentum.
B) greater sac.
C) lesser sac.
D) mesentery.
Q3) Which structure is NOT oriented vertically in the body?
A) Abdominal aorta
B) Superior mesenteric vein
C) Right renal artery
D) Superior mesenteric artery
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Chapter 7: Embryology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The IVC is formed in week 3 of gestation. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) Embryonic kidneys function by the end of week 5. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) The celiac axis and superior and inferior mesenteric arteries are derived from the vitelline artery complex. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) Normal formation of the GI tract is complete at
A) 12 weeks.
B) 11 weeks.
C) 7 weeks.
D) 20 weeks.
Q5) Swallowing begins at
A) 12 weeks.
B) 11 weeks.
C) 7 weeks.
D) 20 weeks.
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Chapter 8: The Abdominal Aorta
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Sample Questions
Q1) Angiotensin II is a hormone that causes
A) the release of renin.
B) vasodilatation.
C) vasoconstriction.
D) bleeding.
Q2) Pylorus of the stomach ____
Q3) The common hepatic artery (CHA) can be seen with reasonable consistency on ultrasound. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) Spine ____
Q5) The common iliac arteries can be seen with reasonable consistency on ultrasound.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The aorta becomes the abdominal aorta
A) when it leaves the left ventricular outflow tract.
B) when it follows a candy cane-shaped loop down into the thoracic cavity.
C) before it reaches the aortic hiatus on the diaphragm.
Page 10
D) after it reaches the aortic hiatus on the diaphragm.
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Chapter 9: The Inferior Vena Cava
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Sample Questions
Q1) Body of the liver ____
Q2) The IVC can be divided into the following sections:
A) Suprahepatic, infrahepatic, and midhepatic
B) Hepatic, prerenal, renal, and postrenal
C) Hepatic, lumbar, renal, and gonadal
D) All of the above
Q3) Hepatic veins ____
Q4) The inferior phrenic veins are located
A) at the same level as the hepatic veins.
B) superior to the hepatic veins.
C) inferior to the hepatic veins.
D) inferior to the middle hepatic vein only.
Q5) The left common iliac vein is easily seen on ultrasound. ____
A)True
B)False
Q6) In a sagittal scanning plane, the right renal artery can be seen as a(n)
A) longitudinal, curvilinear structure anterior to the axial IVC.
B) straight structure posterior to the AO.
C) round, short axis structure posterior to the longitudinal IVC.
Page 11
D) oval structure anterior to the longitudinal IVC.
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Chapter 10: The Portal Venous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medial branch of the left portal vein is easier to visualize than the lateral branch.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Superior mesenteric vein walls ____
Q3) What happens to the right and left portal vein branches?
A) The right branches into medial and lateral segments, and the left branches into anterior and posterior segments.
B) The right branches into superior and inferior segments, and the left branches into anterior and posterior segments.
C) The right branches into anterior and posterior segments, and the left branches into medial and lateral segments.
D) The right branches into anterior and posterior segments, and the left branches into superior and inferior segments.
Q4) Portal venous walls ____
Q5) Normal liver ____
Q6) Hepatic artery lumen ____
Q7) Head of the pancreas ____
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Chapter 11: Abdominal Vasculature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is NOT a tributary of the inferior vena cava?
A) Hepatic vein
B) Portal vein
C) Renal vein
D) Right suprarenal vein
Q2) Which of the following best describes the blood flow pattern in the superior mesenteric artery after ingestion of a meal?
A) Peak systolic velocity greater than 200 cm/sec with low diastolic flow and systolic flow reversal
B) Peak systolic velocity less than 200 cm/sec with low diastolic flow
C) Peak systolic velocity greater than 200 cm/sec with high diastolic flow
D) Peak systolic velocity greater than 200 cm/sec, systolic flow reversal, and high diastolic forward flow
Q3) Normally, flow patterns in the portal vein and its branches are characterized by
A) continuous, minimally phasic, disordered flow with high mean velocities.
B) pulsatile, biphasic, disordered flow with low mean velocities.
C) continuous or minimally phasic disordered flow with low peak and mean velocities.
D) phasic flow with low peak and mean velocities.
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13
Chapter 12: The Liver
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Sample Questions
Q1) The left hepatic vein and the left hepatic lobe are separated from the caudate lobe by the
A) intrasegmental fissure.
B) intersegmental fissure.
C) fissure for the ligamentum venosum.
D) bare area of the liver.
Q2) The right and left lobes of the liver are related to the _______ of the diaphragm.
A) anterior surface
B) superior surface
C) posterior surface
D) undersurface
Q3) The hepatic arteries and common bile duct course ______________ to the portal veins at the level of the porta hepatis.
A) lateral
B) medial
C) anterior
D) posterior
Q4) Cholesterol ______
Q5) Ketones ______
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Chapter 13: The Biliary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The layers of the gallbladder wall are the ______________, _____________, and __________.
Q2) A normal gallbladder appears round on the longitudinal view. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) CCK is a peptide hormone that increases hepatic production of bile. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) The common bile duct is routinely seen on ultrasound. ____ A)True
B)False
Q5) Length of the common hepatic duct ____
Q6) The common bile duct is formed by the union of the common hepatic duct and the cystic duct. ____
A)True
B)False
Q7) Length of the right and left hepatic ducts ____
Q8) The right hepatic duct is routinely seen on ultrasound. ____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: The Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) A small part of the ______ of the pancreas is enclosed in peritoneum.
A) tail
B) body
C) neck
D) head
Q2) Hormones that stimulate the formation of pancreatic juice are triggered by chyme.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The acini cells produce the hormones insulin, glucagon, and somastatin. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) The contour of the pancreas cannot be observed on ultrasound. ____
A)True
B)False
Q5) A water-filled stomach makes the pancreas more difficult to visualize. ____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The kidneys are composed mainly of two distinct areas: the
A) corpuscle and proximal and distal convoluted tubules.
B) parenchyma and sinus.
C) renal loops and medulla.
D) medullary and renal pyramids.
Q2) The process of nephron function, in correct order, is:
A) Filtration, tubular secretion, and tubular reabsorption
B) Filtration, tubular reabsorption, and tubular secretion
C) Tubular reabsorption, filtration, and tubular secretion
D) Tubular secretion, filtration, and tubular reabsorption
Q3) Where is aldosterone produced?
A) Adrenal cortex
B) Kidney
C) Juxtaglomerular apparatus
D) Posterior pituitary gland
Q4) The adult male and female urethras measure, respectively,
A) 10 cm and 2.5 cm.
B) 20 cm and 3.5 cm.
C) 15 cm and 2.5 cm.
D) 20 cm and 5.5 cm.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Spleen
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Sample Questions
Q1) The spleen is a retroperitoneal organ. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) Liver ____
Q3) The spleen is posterolateral to the pancreatic tail and part of the large intestine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) At the hilum, the splenic artery branches into
A) two to four lobular arteries.
B) four to six lobular arteries.
C) two to four lobar arteries.
D) four to six lobar arteries.
Q5) Splenic artery lumen ____
Q6) The splenic artery arises from the
A) superior mesenteric artery.
B) common hepatic artery.
C) celiac artery.
D) proper hepatic artery.
Q7) Spleen ____
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Chapter 17: The Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ascending colon is anterolateral to the
A) tail of the pancreas.
B) neck of the gallbladder.
C) left iliac crest.
D) lower pole of the right kidney.
Q2) The first portion of the large intestine would be visualized in the ____ region.
A) right inguinal
B) left hypogastric
C) right hypochondrium
D) umbilical
Q3) The bulb of the duodenum is found _____ to the common bile duct.
A) posterior
B) medial
C) lateral
D) anterior
Q4) Which surface is NOT related to the posterior surface of the stomach?
A) Diaphragm
B) Left lobe of the liver
C) Anterior surface of the pancreas
D) Gastric surface of the spleen
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Chapter 18: The Prostate Gland and Seminal Vesicles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Denonvilliers' fascia
A) is an interior covering for the prostate gland.
B) is the external coating for the seminal vesicles.
C) lies between the prostate and the rectum.
D) lines the external wall of the urinary bladder.
Q2) When imaging or describing the glandular prostate, the best technique to describe the prostate is to use A) regions.
B) zones.
C) anterior and posterior terminology.
D) medial and lateral terminology.
Q3) In a scan of the prostate and seminal vesicles, the prostate appears
A) hypoechoic to the seminal vesicles.
B) isoechoic to the seminal vesicles.
C) hyperechoic to the seminal vesicles.
D) anechoic to the seminal vesicles.
Q4) Only alkaline fluid is produced by the seminal vesicles. ____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: The Female Pelvis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fibrous tissue mass that remains in the ovarian cortex after ovulation and regression of the corpus luteum is called the
A) corpus albicans.
B) graafian follicle.
C) linea alba.
D) granulosa luteal cells.
Q2) "A thin, reflective, midline stripe in the uterus" describes the sonographic appearance of the
A) endometrial canal.
B) basal layer of the endometrium.
C) inner layer of the myometrium.
D) functional zone of the endometrium.
Q3) Which support structure extends from the uterine cornu, passes over the pelvic brim, through the inguinal canal, and is secured at the labia majora?
A) Round ligament
B) Broad ligament
C) Cardinal ligament
D) Uterosacral ligament
Q4) The two descriptive compartments of the pelvis are the ________ and ________.
21
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Chapter 20: First Trimester Obstetrics 0 to 12 Weeks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is secreted by the developing:
A) ovary.
B) oviduct.
C) zygote.
D) placenta.
Q2) The embryonic gut herniates
A) into the small bowel.
B) at 5 to 6 weeks GA.
C) into the base of the umbilical cord.
D) into the amnion.
Q3) An anechoic area identified sonographically in the embryonic skull at 8 weeks is A) abnormal.
B) the vitelline duct.
C) the hindbrain.
D) the midbrain.
Q4) What is the corpus luteum?
A) The outermost tissues of the developing embryo
B) The part of early development that surrounds the amniotic cavity
C) The trophoblast layer of the blastocyst
D) What remains of the ovarian follicle after ovulation
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Chapter 21: Second and Third Trimester Obstetrics 13 to 42
Weeks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anechoic, tubular structures on the uterine surface of the placenta are called A) lacunae.
B) maternal marginal veins.
C) fetal marginal veins.
D) venous lakes.
Q2) The three causes of placenta previa are ________________, _______________, and _______________________.
Q3) A grade III placenta may have A) anechoic areas.
B) calcifications.
C) indentations in the chorionic plate.
D) all of the above
Q4) The anechoic areas between the bright subcutaneous and peritoneal fat are the ____________________ and __________________________.
Q5) A grade I placenta may have
A) anechoic areas.
B) calcifications.
C) individual segments.
D) calcified basal layer.
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Chapter 22: High-Risk Obstetric Sonography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Twin gestations result from fertilization of either _______ or a _______.
Q2) Fetal intravascular transfusion is recommended in fetuses with A) severe hydrops.
B) polyhydramnios.
C) oligohydramnios.
D) chromosomal abnormalities.
Q3) Which component of amniotic fluid increases beyond normal limits when certain fetal defects are present?
A) Progesterone
B) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
C) Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
D) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Q4) When it must be determined whether a fetus is in distress, a(an) _________ may be performed.
A) amniocentesis
B) ultrasound exam
C) chorionic villus sampling
D) biophysical profile
Q5) __________________________ measures the degree of fetal lung development.
24
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Chapter 23: The Thyroid and Parathyroid Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sonographic appearance of the normal thyroid gland is uniformly
A) echogenic with medium level echoes, similar to the testes and liver.
B) heterogeneous with medium to high level echoes.
C) hyperechoic with high level echoes.
D) hypoechoic with medium level echoes.
Q2) The major neurovascular bundle is located posterolateral to the thyroid gland and consists of the common carotid artery, internal jugular vein, and vagus nerve. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) The thyroid gland is composed of follicles filled with a substance called A) thyrotropin.
B) parafollicular cells (C cells).
C) colloid.
D) none of the above
Q4) Which neck muscle(s) is/are located posterior to the thyroid gland?
A) Longus colli muscle
B) Omohyoid and thyrohyoid muscles
C) Sternocleidomastoid muscle
D) Sternothyroid and sternohyoid muscles
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Chapter 24: Breast Sonography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glandular breast tissue actually is found in the lobules. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the sonographic appearance of breast fat?
A) Hypoechoic
B) Bright linear echoes
C) Low to medium level echoes
D) Anechoic tubular structures
Q3) Breast computer-aided detection (B-CAD) automatically selects a region of interest for computer-aided assessment of the breast. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the sonographic appearance of Cooper's ligaments?
A) Hypoechoic
B) Bright linear echoes
C) Low to medium level echoes
D) Anechoic tubular structures
Q5) Suspensory ligaments for the breast traverse all three breast layers. ____
A)True
B)False
26
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Chapter 25: Penile and Scrotal Ultrasound
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Q1) Spermatozoa exit the testis through the A) tail of the epididymis.
B) efferent ducts.
C) body of the epididymis.
D) head of the epididymis.
Q2) In an adult, testicular volume is _____, and testicular weight is _____.
A) 5 ml; 2 to 3 g
B) 10 ml; 4 to 5 g
C) 15 ml; 8 to 10 g
D) 25 ml; 10 to 15 g
Q3) The scrotum consists of the
A) testicles
B) testicles and epididymus
C) testicles, epididymis, and distal vas deferens
D) testicles, epididymis, and proximal vas deferens
Q4) What is the echogenicity of the mediastinum testis?
A) Low level echoes
B) Medium level echoes
C) High echogenicity
D) It cannot be identified on ultrasound.
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Chapter 26: The Neonatal Brain
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Q1) The diencephalon rests superior to the brain stem. It consists of
A) the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus.
B) the pons, midbrain, and medulla oblongata.
C) none of the above
D) all of the above
Q2) What is the echogenicity of the posterior periventricular white matter?
A) Echogenic
B) Moderately echogenic
C) Low level echoes
D) Hypoechoic
Q3) The transverse fissure separates the
A) temporal lobes from the parietal lobes.
B) temporal lobes from the frontal lobes.
C) parietal lobes from the occipital lobes.
D) cerebrum from the cerebellum.
Q4) The central fissure separates the
A) temporal lobes from the parietal lobes.
B) temporal lobes from the frontal lobes.
C) parietal and frontal lobes.
D) cerebrum from the cerebellum.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Pediatric Echocardiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the long axis of the aortic arch (suprasternal notch view), using blood direction, in what sequence will you encounter the normal head/neck vessels?
A) left common carotid, left subclavian, innominate artery
B) innominate, left common carotid, left subclavian artery
C) right subclavian, right common carotid, innominate artery
D) innominate, left subclavian, left common carotid artery
Q2) On 2D, the heart has a soft, homogeneous, even textured appearance ranging from medium to low intensity. ____
A)True
B)False
Q3) The oxygen content and intracardiac pressures are higher on the right side of the heart than on the left. _____
A)True
B)False
Q4) The M-mode tracings of the mitral valve should be taken at the tips of the leaflets when in the parasternal view. ____
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Adult Echocardiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood with a high oxygen content entering the heart comes from the pulmonary veins. ____
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which statement is NOT true about the evaluation of prosthetic valves?
A) TTE is better suited to evaluate prosthetic mitral valve dysfunction than TEE.
B) TEE is more sensitive than TTE for detecting paravalvular leaks.
C) TTE may be better suited to evaluate Doppler information than TEE.
D) TEE is more sensitive than TTE in detecting prosthetic valve endocarditis.
Q3) The bundle of His and the Purkinje fibers cannot function as pacemakers. ____
A)True
B)False
Q4) M-mode echocardiography
A) is no longer needed, having been replaced by TEE, TTE, and 3D echocardiography.
B) provides measurements of cardiac structures for quantitative assessment.
C) performs the same function as Doppler assessment.
D) none of the above
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Chapter 29: Vascular Technology
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Doppler spectral waveform from the normal common carotid artery is characterized by all of the following except
A) rapid systolic deceleration.
B) systolic window.
C) spectral broadening.
D) constant forward diastolic flow.
Q2) Which is NOT a component of the Doppler equation?
A) Doppler peak diastolic frequency
B) Angle of the Doppler beam with respect to the path of blood flow
C) Speed of sound in soft tissue
D) Velocity of blood flow
Q3) The Doppler spectral waveform from the low-resistance internal carotid artery can be characterized by
A) high peak systolic velocity and low diastolic flow.
B) rapid systolic upstroke and rapid deceleration to low diastolic flow.
C) slow systolic rise time, rapid deceleration, flow reversal in late systole, and low diastolic flow.
D) cephalad flow throughout the cardiac cycle.
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Chapter 30: Three-Dimensional Ultrasound
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32 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Spatiotemporal image correlation (STIC) is most useful for evaluating the A) neonatal brain.
B) gravid uterus.
C) prostate.
D) fetal heart.
Q2) The acquisition of patient anatomy using 3D is called acquiring A) a volume data set.
B) a flat screen image.
C) algorithms.
D) measurements.
Q3) For a multiplanar format, data must be achieved from the A) original acquisition plane.
B) three orthogonal planes.
C) fourth acquisition plane.
D) none of the above
Q4) The most important step in acquiring 3D ultrasound images is A) volume acquisition.
B) reconstruction.
C) rendering.
D) movement of the transducer.
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Chapter 31: Interventional and Intraoperative Ultrasound
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ultrasound-guided biopsies assist needle placement for A) fluid sampling.
B) small organ or stone extraction.
C) amniocentesis.
D) tissue sampling.
Q2) Laparoscopic ultrasound is used to:
a. ________________________________
b. ________________________________
c. ________________________________
Q3) Chorionic villus sampling is
A) a percutaneous biopsy.
B) collected during amniocentesis.
C) limited to intraoperative surgical procedures.
D) collected during a nephrostomy.
Q4) During intraoperative ultrasound procedures, sterile gel is A) not used.
B) used as a scanning couplant.
C) used as a couplant between the transducer and the probe cover.
D) used in place of sterile sheaths.
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