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Soil and Water Management explores the principles and practices involved in the sustainable use and conservation of soil and water resources within agricultural and environmental contexts. The course covers topics such as soil properties and classification, factors influencing soil fertility, water resource availability, irrigation methods, drainage systems, erosion control, and the impact of land use on watershed health. Students also learn about soil and water sampling, data analysis, and the implementation of management strategies designed to enhance productivity while minimizing environmental degradation. Practical case studies and fieldwork are used to develop skills in problem-solving and the evaluation of integrated resource management approaches.
Recommended Textbook
The Nature and Properties of Soils 14th Edition by Nyle C. Brady
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Q1) The amount of different sizes of mineral particles in a soil defines the soil ________.
A)structure
B)texture
C)pore space
D)solution
E)profile Answer: B
Q2) A, B, C, and E horizons can be found in any true soil.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q3) Subsoil is typically equivalent to the O horizon.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q4) Plants can be grown without any soil.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
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Q1) The mixed angular gravel, rock, and soil found at the foot of a slope is typical of what type of parent material?
A)eolian
B)colluvial
C)fluvial
D)glacial
E)lacustrine
Answer: B
Q2) Glacial till can be recognized by the distinct layering of different kinds of particles.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) "Biotite-->clay-->iron oxide" represents a ________.
A)catena
B)weathering sequence
C)silicate mineral sequence
D)both A and B
E)none of the above
Answer: B
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Q1) Oxisols are more highly weathered than are the soils of any other order.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following subsurface diagnostic horizons would you expect to find in a highly weathered soil of the humid tropics?
A)cambic
B)oxic
C)natric
D)salic
E)spodic
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following soil temperature regimes would provide the warmest and least variable soil temperatures?
A)Thermic
B)Mesic
C)Isomeric
D)Isohyperthermic
E)Hyperthermic
Answer: D
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Q1) Which type of structure is typically found in sodium-rich sub-surface horizons?
A)platy
B)sub-angular blocky
C)prismatic
D)columnar
E)granular
Q2) Practices that add organic matter and reduce tillage can be expected to most significantly increase the _____ in a soil.
A)macropores
B)total porosity
C)bulk density
D)fineness of texture
Q3) Flocculation is the process by which certain chemicals in the soil stabilize large soil aggregates.
A)True
B)False
Q4) For any soil, the bulk density is always lower than the particle density.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Water will move from one site in a soil with a water potential of -5 kPa to an adjacent site with a water potential of -40 kPa.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Hysteresis is the phenomenon whereby a soil has the same water content/potential relationship when it is being dried as when it is being wetted.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In which of the following "forms" of soil water are pesticides, excess plant nutrients and waste chemicals most apt to move through soils?
A)gravitational
B)unsaturated
C)available
D)hygroscopic
E)capillary
Q4) The adsorption of water on soil surfaces encourages capillarity.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) If you dug a deep hole in your back yard and water started to seep into the hole it would fill the hole up to ________.
A)the infiltration rate
B)the percolation rate
C)field capacity
D)the water Table
E)the liquid limit
Q2) The evapotranspiration (ET) from a pine forest was found to be 50 cm during a growing season.If the evaporation from the soil surface during this period of time was 5 cm, what is the level of loss from leaf surfaces?
A)55 cm
B)45 cm
C)50.0 cm
D)10 cm
E)Impossible to calculate from the data given
Q3) Drip irrigation would more likely be used in the production of apples or peaches than in the production of wheat.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A well aerated soil is characterized by a relative abundance of _____.
A)micropores
B)Fe<sup>2+</sup>ions
C)NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup> ions
D)NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup> ions
E)methane gas
Q2) If the CO<sub>2</sub> content of soil air is 3.5%, it is 100 times higher than that of the atmosphere.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Conservation tillage is not practical in some areas of the Northern part of the United States because the practice lowers the surface soil temperature in the spring of the year.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Anaerobic conditions commonly prevail in liberally watered flower pots with mineral soil as the growing medium even though the containers have holes for drainage in the bottom of the pot.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Humus is an important soil colloid.It differs from 2:1 type minerals in all but one of the following characteristics (select the one).
A)structural framework of the particles
B)CEC dependence on soil pH
C)influence of isomorphous substitution
D)capable of adsorbing cations
E)influence on soil aggregate stability
Q2) The electronegative charge on 2:1 type silicate clays is due primarily to _____.
A)ionization of surface OH groups
B)substitution of one metallic atom for another in the crystal structure of the clay
C)extremely small size of the individual colloid particles
D)the effect of pH on the presence of H<sup>+</sup> ions in the exchange complex
E)the preponderance of tetrahedral sheets compared to octahedral sheets
Q3) The cation exchange capacity of a soil is determined primarily by the amount and kind of colloids in the soil and by the pH.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Poor plant growth in a well-drained irrigated soil in an arid region (pH=8.0) is most likely due to ________.
A)manganese toxicity
B)iron deficiency
C)phosphate toxicity
D)calcium toxicity
E)molybdenum deficiency
Q2) Under which of the following conditions would you favor a finely ground dolomitic limestone as your choice of a liming material?
A)need for a rapid reaction with the soil
B)need to provide magnesium in addition to calcium
C)need for a material with a low shipping cost
D)need to obtain a high soil pH
E)need to significantly reduce the exchangeable Al<sup>3+</sup> level in the soil
Q3) The higher the cation exchange capacity of a soil, the greater is its buffer capacity.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Phosphate availability is constrained in alkaline soils by the presence of iron and aluminum oxides.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sodic soils are sometimes referred to as white alkalis because of the white salt crusts that appear on the surface.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Normal alkaline soils often exhibit deficiencies of available iron and manganese.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Some irrigation systems have stimulated the formation of saline and saline-sodic soils.Which of the following contributes to this process?
A)the low sodium adsorption ratio in the irrigation water
B)high Ca and Mg contents in the irrigation water
C)inadequate drainage systems to remove soluble salts
D)high contents of sulfates and chlorides in the irrigation water
E)low pH of the irrigation water

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Q1) Which of the following groups of organisms are responsible for greatest amount of organic matter decomposition in soils?
A)macrofauna
B)microfauna
C)mesofauna
D)microflora
E)autotrophs
Q2) Of all the groups of soil organisms, bacteria have the most diverse metabolic capabilities.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Soil microorganisms often compete with higher plants for mineral nutrients, such as nitrogen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Plant roots are an important source of carbon for many soil organisms which are beneficial to plants.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Mineralization of soil organic matter results in the addition of inorganic nutrient ions to the soil solution.
A)True
B)False
Q2) To avoid a nitrate depression period when it is added to a garden soil, about how many kg of nitrogen must be added to a load of grass clippings that contains 1000 kg of C and 25 kg of N?
A)15
B)35
C)50
D)75
E)100
Q3) The cation capacity of soil humus is two to three times greater than that of an equal volume of high CEC silicate clays.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sandy soils generally are higher in organic matter than fine textured soils.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Grass clippings from a healthy lawn can be expected to contain approximately ___% N (on a dry weight basis).
A)0.01
B)0.2
C)0.5
D)3.0
E)7.5
Q2) In most temperate, humid regions, the period of greatest potential for nitrate leaching is during the summer when nitrogen fertilizer is applied to crops.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The principal form of sulfur taken up by plants is ____.
A)sulfate
B)sulfur esters
C)sulfides
D)elemental sulfur
E)gypsum
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Q1) The amount of P lost from agricultural soils by the process(s) of _____ is generally considerably greater than the corresponding losses of potassium.
A)leaching
B)harvest removal
C)gaseous evolution
D)both b and c are correct
E)none of the above are correct
Q2) A soil with a very low equilibrium phosphorus concentration (EPC) is likely to be characterized by a very low potential buffering capacity (PBC).
A)True
B)False
Q3) Although only about 2 to 5 percent of the total P in most surface soils is in organic form, this form supplies nearly all the P taken up by plants.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most soils with a high phosphorus fixing capacity are inherently fertile. A)True
B)False
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Q1) Molybdenum toxicity is most likely to occur under which soil conditions?
A)soil with pH 4.3 and subject to frequent flooding
B)well drained calcareous soil with pH 8.0
C)excessively well drained humid region loamy sand with pH 5.0
D)muck soil (Saprist) with pH 5.5
E)poorly drained calcareous soil with pH 8.0
Q2) It is common for some plants growing on a particular soil to suffer from a micronutrient deficiency while other plants growing on the same soil are well supplied with the nutrient in question.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Interveinal yellowing of the oldest leaves on a plant is a symptom that suggest a deficiency of Mn or Fe.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Application of FeSO<sub>4</sub> or ZnSO<sub>4</sub> to many soils is much less effective than the addition of the same amount of micronutrient in the form of a chelate.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Well-vegetated buffer strips 10 to 20 meters wide can be expected to reduce the total N content of runoff water by about ______.
A)10%
B)20%
C)40%
D)60%
E)90%
Q2) Many years of research have confirmed that the quadratic (parabolic curve) model is the best method of making fertilizer recommendations based on response curves, especially if environmental quality is a high priority.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The forestry industry uses fertilizers most often to treat old growth stands that will produce valuable lumber
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most chemical fertilizers are inorganic salts.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The T values are the maximum losses of soil by erosion that can be tolerated without a reduction in the soil's long term productivity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The effects of conservation tillage on soil erosion would be more pronounced in fields cropped continuously to corn than in fields cropped to soybean.
A)True B)False
Q3) Soils in Land Capability Class VIII areas are less subject to erosion than any other class.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The soil erodibility factor in the Universal soil-loss equation (USLE) relates primarily to the soil's infiltration capacity and structural stability.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group of organic insecticides is most damaging to earthworms in soils?
A)carbamates
B)organo phosphates
C)chlorinated hydrocarbons
Q2) Anaerobic decomposition of organic wastes in landfills results in the production of ______ gas which is often recovered and used.
A)ethylene
B)oxygen
C)ozone
D)methane
E)all of the above
Q3) In the design of a _______ type landfill, evapotranspiration by cover vegetation should be maximized.
A)natural attenuation
B)containment
C)both A and B
D)neither A nor B
Q4) The radionuclide Cesium-137 behaves in soils much like the element potassium.
A)True
B)False

Page 20
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Q1) In which of the following systems are space satellites used to collect geographic information about soils?
A)geo-positioning
B)laser mapping
C)multi-spectral imagery
D)profile description
E)both A and C
Q2) A soil association is a group of soils found together in a landscape that may differ in minor ways, but must all belong to the same soil order.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A stereo pair of air photos is particularly useful in studying _______ landscape features.
A)plant stress induced
B)salt-affected
C)human-made
D)parent material
E)topographic
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Q1) Which of the following was NOT an element of the Green Revolution of the 1970's and 1980's?
A)Integrated pest management to reduce the need for chemical pesticides
B)High yielding cereal varieties that responded well to fertilizers and irrigation
C)Greatly expanded use of irrigation water and chemical fertilizers
D)Monocultural systems that maximized the effects of the new varieties and technologies
E)Integration of the scientific efforts of plant breeders, soil scientists, agronomists and pest management specialists
Q2) The quality of a soil is most directly related to___.
A)its capacity to perform the functions you want it to.
B)its acidity or alkalinity of the soil
C)its resistance to soil erosion
D)its capacity to regain lost organic matter
E)its texture.
Q3) Slash-and-burn agriculture is primarily a system of water conservation and cycling.
A)True
B)False
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