Social Psychology and the Law
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores the intersection of social psychology and legal processes, examining how psychological theories and research inform our understanding of legal systems and behaviors. Topics include jury decision-making, eyewitness testimony, police interrogations, prejudice and discrimination in legal settings, the psychology of criminal behavior, and the impact of social influence and group dynamics on legal outcomes. Through case studies and empirical research, students will analyze the ways in which human cognition, emotion, and social interaction shape and are shaped by laws, legal institutions, and justice practices.
Recommended Textbook
Forensic and Legal Psychology Psychological Science Applied to Law 2nd Edition by Mark Costanzo
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Section 1: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance
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Q1) Compare and contrast the approaches of psychology and law. Which system is more open to change?
Answer: Main points:
Psychology and law represent two different cultures. They differ in goals (truth vs. justice), methods (data vs. rulings), and styles of inquiry (objectivity vs. advocacy).
Psychology as a science is based on relativism (of knowledge and theories).
Law as a system is rooted in the past (rulings, precedents).
Psychology is more egalitarian, law is a more hierarchical system.
Psychology is more open to change since science implies skepticism and new discoveries while law abides by past decisions (precedents).
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3
Chapter 1: Section 2: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance
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Q1) According to the textbook, when writing amicus curiae briefs, it may be hard for psychologists to balance the goals of:
A) science translation and advocacy.
B) authoritativeness and leniency.
C) speculation and deliberation.
D) reflectivity and action orientation.
Answer: A
Q2) Legal realists:
A) thought judicial decisions reflected principles found in nature.
B) felt judges used careful logic to arrive at a single correct decision in a particular case.
C) believed judges constructed the law through their interpretations of evidence and precedent.
D) showed little interest in applying social science research to the legal system.
Answer: C
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Chapter 1: Section 3: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance
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Q1) Research presented in Chapter 1 suggests that most state court judges _____ their gatekeeping role established in Daubert _____ adequately define the four guidelines for admissibility.
A) do not support; because they cannot B) support; and they can C) do not support; though they can D) support; whereas they cannot
Answer: D
Q2) The style of inquiry in the U.S. legal system is _____, whereas in psychology it is _____.
A) advocacy; objectivity
B) objectivity; empiricism
C) empiricism; authority
D) authority; objectivity
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 2: Section 1: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) Describe some common types of false confessions, reasons behind them, and police tactics that lead to a higher incidence of false confessions.
Q2) What are some possible reforms that can be implemented in police interrogation procedures to reduce the risk of false confessions?
Q3) What has been the U.S. Supreme Court's position on the use of deception by police during interrogations? How does the use of this technique compare with the use of deception during interrogations in other countries, such as England and Wales? What are some worrisome moral implications of the use of deception by police during interrogations?
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Chapter 2: Section 2: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) False confessions may occur as a result of:
A) intimidation.
B) deception.
C) fatigue.
D) All of these may lead to false confessions.
Q2) In the United Kingdom, Police and Criminal Evidence Act (PACE) was enacted to make it illegal to trick suspects or to lie for the purpose of coercing suspects to confess. Studies show that _____, suspects are _____ likely to admit guilt.
A) along with the decline of pressure tactics and trickery; less B) despite the decline of pressure tactics and trickery; just as C) despite the decline of pressure tactics and trickery; more D) along with the increase of pressure tactics and trickery; just as
Q3) As a result of a long, drawn out interrogation process, Kathryn confessed to a crime knowing that she did not commit it. This type of confession is called an:
A) authentic-voluntary confession.
B) instrumental-coerced confession.
C) authentic-coerced confession.
D) instrumental-voluntary confession.
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Chapter 2: Section 3: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) The fundamental attribution error, or the tendency to attribute other people's behavior to dispositional forces rather than situational pressures, is evident in the following scenario:
A) Colin often lies and so it is surprising that he told the truth about stealing the bicycle.
B) The weather was terrible and so the burglar decided not to use the fire escape.
C) Matthias was very tired and that is why he has quit the competition mid-way through.
D) The robber stumbled because he was clumsy and not because the road was slippery.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT presented in Chapter 2 as a potential solution to the problem of false confessions?
A) Video recording of interrogations.
B) Retraining police departments on interrogation procedures.
C) Setting time limits on interrogations.
D) Having expert testimony on interrogations and confessions.
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Chapter 3: Section 1: Lie Detection
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Q1) Compare and contrast the relevant-irrelevant test (RIT), the comparison question test (CQT), and the guilty knowledge test (GKT).
Q2) Discuss the limitations of fMRI studies in the detection of deception.
Q3) Discuss the scientific validity of the polygraph.
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Chapter 3: Section 2: Lie Detection
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Q1) Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A) Lying is very common and wide-spread.
B) Deception makes social interactions go more smoothly.
C) The vast majority of people never tell lies.
D) There are a lot of different types of lies and reasons for lying.
Q2) _____ measures almost imperceptible changes in the heat of the human face.
A) Criteria-based content analysis
B) High-definition infrared thermal imaging
C) The electroencephlogram (EEG)
D) Laser doppler vibrometry (LDV)
Q3) Some promising low-tech methods of lie detection include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) asking the suspects to tell their stories backwards.
B) insisting that suspects maintain eye contact with the interrogator.
C) asking suspects to draw a picture.
D) making suspects listen to their own story recorded.
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Chapter 3: Section 3: Lie Detection
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Q1) All of the following are described in the text as promising lie-detection technologies being developed currently EXCEPT:
A) criteria-based content analysis (CBCA).
B) hand micromovement tracing.
C) electroencephalogram (EEG).
D) high-definition infrared thermal imaging.
Q2) Liar's stereotype is a very common but mistaken belief that when lying, people tend to:
A) squirm, stutter, and avoid eye contact.
B) talk a lot and be generally chatty.
C) be shy and use very few words.
D) move very little and try to stay still.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a limitation of the fMRI technology as it currently exists?
A) It is expensive.
B) It is highly portable.
C) It requires a person to lie motionless inside the fMRI machine.
D) It requires a person to stay silent inside the fMRI machine.
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Q1) How does reliability differ from validity? Use examples to illustrate both.
Q2) What type of influence do the CSI TV dramas have on jurors?
Q3) How can error rate be reduced in forensic investigations?
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Chapter 4: Section 2: The Psychology of Forensic
Identification: Dna, Fingerprints, and Physical Trace
Evidence
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Q1) Physical evidence may include:
A) fingerprints, fabric threads, and tire prints.
B) tire prints, shoe prints, and saliva.
C) marks for a tool, fingerprints, and skin cells.
D) bite marks, semen, and blood.
Q2) Nicholas was brought in for questioning as a result of detailed police work and asked to provide his fingerprints. Based on fingerprint evidence, he was excluded as a suspect. This means that the latent prints were:
A) too smudged to prove to be his.
B) incomplete and could not be matched.
C) found to be from someone else.
D) inconclusive.
Q3) Temporal consistency is sometimes referred to as:
A) test-retest reliability.
B) inter-rater reliability.
C) measure of validity.
D) inter-observer agreement.
13
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Chapter 4: Section 3: The Psychology of Forensic
Identification: Dna, Fingerprints, and Physical Trace Evidence
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Q1) The tendency to search out evidence that confirms our beliefs and to ignore evidence that contradicts our beliefs is known as:
A) confirmation bias.
B) contextual bias.
C) self-serving prophecy.
D) the fundamental attribution error.
Q2) The process of linking a piece of physical trace evidence to an individual (suspect) is called:
A) anthropometry.
B) biometrics.
C) forensic identification.
D) iris scanning.
Q3) The largest DNA database system in the world is maintained by the:
A) INTERPOL.
B) FBI.
C) CIA.
D) Secret Service.
Page 14
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Chapter 5: Section 1: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) What is the purpose of a psychological autopsy and when would it be used?
Q2) How is profiling used in criminal investigations? Is it effective?
Q3) Compare and contrast criminal profiling, geographic profiling, and behavioral investigative advice (BIA).
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Chapter 5: Section 2: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) Which of the following is a correct statement?
A) Profiling has been extensively tested in scientific studies.
B) Research on profiling seems to prove its effectiveness.
C) Stories and case studies found profiling helpful to investigators.
D) There is very little systematic research on profiling.
Q2) Psychological profiling mostly relies on _____ of a particular profiler.
A) psychological education
B) clinical experience
C) intuition
D) psychic abilities
Q3) The characteristics of serial killers seem to have _____ though there _____ common to all serial killers.
A) little similarity; are a few traits
B) some recurring patterns; are only two characteristics
C) a lot of similarities; are only two characteristics
D) some recurring patterns; are no characteristics
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Page 16
Chapter 5: Section 3: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of an organized murderer as hypothesized by the organized/disorganized distinction?
A) Average or above average intelligence.
B) Sexually incompetent.
C) Controlled mood during crime.
D) Geographic mobility.
Q2) Which of the following types of serial killers is most likely to be psychotic, as hypothesized by Holmes and Holmes (2010)?
A) Hedonistic
B) Power-oriented
C) Mission-oriented
D) Visionary
Q3) The hypothesized 4 categories of serial killers suggested by Holmes and Holmes (2010) are _____, and most serial killers _____.
A) overlapping; do not fit neatly into the categories
B) very telling; belong to the power-oriented type
C) useful in crime investigations; are apprehended as a result of being categorized correctly
D) above testing; do not agree to provide data for scientific studies
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Chapter 6: Section 1: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) How effective is scientific jury selection?
Q2) Explain the voir dire process.
Q3) Explain how the role of money in trial consulting may affect trial outcomes. Are there any possible solutions to the problems you have identified?
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Chapter 6: Section 2: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) The Sixth and Seventh Amendments guarantee the right to a trial by jury in criminal and civil cases. The jury is supposed to be:
A) an impartial group representing community values.
B) a group of a defendant's neighbors and acquaintances.
C) an unbiased group of people who know a defendant's reputation.
D) a group of people representing different parts of the country.
Q2) Cognizable refers to potential jurors being:
A) acknowledged as sharing a particular characteristic setting them apart from other jurors.
B) selected based on race even if their racial characteristics are not clearly distinguishable.
C) selected based on race only when their racial characteristics are clearly visible.
D) excluded based on gender, race, religion or personality assessment.
Q3) According to the text, a jury of 12 or fewer is likely to:
A) share all cognizable characteristics.
B) represent fully the views of all similar individuals.
C) not be fully representative of a larger community.
D) be diverse enough to reflect all possible views.
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Chapter 6: Section 3: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) Iris works as a trial consultant. The majority of cases she is likely to be hired for are:
A) criminal trials.
B) civil trials.
C) capital trials.
D) cases involving the government.
Q2) Just like early juries, modern juries are intended to be _____; unlike early juries, modern juries are intended to be _____.
A) impartial; equal
B) equal; representative
C) representative; impartial
D) impartial; exclusive
Q3) Compensatory damages are meant to:
A) compensate the defendant for losses.
B) compensate the plaintiff for losses.
C) punish the defendant for irresponsible or malicious conduct.
D) punish the plaintiff for irresponsible or malicious conduct.
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Chapter 7: Section 1: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) How does human memory operate? How is it different from a video recording? If people are sure they remember the situation well, does it mean their memories are more accurate than memories of those who are not as sure?
Q2) Describe the post-identification feedback effect and give an example. What is the role of cognitive dissonance in this process?
Q3) Describe three research findings regarding improving eyewitness accuracy.
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Chapter 7: Section 2: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) When presented with a lineup, Alexis was able to identify the perpetrator of a robbery she had witnessed. She was not sure of her identification at first, but when the investigator mentioned that another witness had also chosen the same suspect, her confidence that she remembered the perpetrator well grew close to 100%. This is an illustration of:
A) scripts.
B) unconscious transference.
C) post-identification feedback effect.
D) bias-reducing instructions.
Q2) Eyewitness testimony is very important in the court trials. It has been a subject of multiple research studies. Psychological studies find that eyewitness testimony is:
A) more reliable than most people think.
B) more fallible that one would suppose.
C) only reliable if preceded by expert testimony.
D) more reliable in court than in police settings.
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Chapter 7: Section 3: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) To improve eyewitness accuracy, social scientists can assist the legal system in improving _____ variables.
A) dependent
B) system
C) predictor
D) estimator
Q2) Cutler, Penrod, and Dexter (1990) conducted several experiments exposing mock jurors to expert testimony about the accuracy of eyewitnesses. The authors of this study found that participants who were NOT exposed to the expert testimony:
A) underestimated the accuracy of eyewitnesses.
B) tended to side with the prosecution.
C) overestimated the accuracy of eyewitnesses.
D) tended to side with the defense.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a system variable in eyewitness identification?
A) How a witness is questioned.
B) How lineups are administered.
C) The order of questions asked by the police.
D) The race of the victim.
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Chapter 8: Section 1: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) What does research show about the competencies of children and adolescents? Should there be specific requirements for competency to stand trial for juveniles as different from the ones for adults?
Q2) Explain what is malingering and why some defendants might be compelled to resort to it. Would it be in their best interests? Why or why not?
Q3) Explain why competency to stand trial (CST) is a legal and not a psychological term. What are the key elements of CST?
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Chapter 8: Section 2: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) Which legal actors are ethically bound to assure that a defendant is competent to stand trial?
A) Defense attorney only.
B) Judge and the defense attorney.
C) Prosecuting attorney and the defense attorney.
D) Defense attorney, the judge and the prosecuting attorney.
Q2) If a defendant is found incompetent to be executed, proceedings are initiated to_____ so that he or she can be _____.
A) restore him or her to competency; executed
B) dismiss the charges; restored to competency and retried
C) suspend the execution; reevaluated to prove to the state his insanity
D) replace the execution with life imprisonment; involuntarily committed
Q3) A person accused of a crime has the right to plead guilty and relinquish his or her right to an attorney. However, according to the Supreme Court (Johnson v. Zerbst), a guilty plea must be:
A) knowing and voluntary.
B) voluntary, knowing, and definitive.
C) knowing and intelligent.
D) knowing, intelligent, and voluntary.
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Page 25
Chapter 8: Section 3: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) According to the textbook, all of the following are common mental health problems diagnosed in defendants found to be incompetent to stand trial EXCEPT:
A) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
B) bipolar disorder.
C) schizophrenia.
D) intellectual disability.
Q2) CST refers to several types of functions a defendant should be able to perform. Which of the following is NOT one of these functions?
A) Understanding the charges against you.
B) Acting appropriately during the trial.
C) Ability to trust your prosecutor.
D) Ability to trust and communicate with your defense counsel.
Q3) Most states limit the period of confinement for defendants found to be incompetent to somewhere between:
A) 4 and 18 months.
B) 2 and 3 years.
C) 30 and 90 days.
D) 40% to 50% of the sentence if the defendant were to be convicted.
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Chapter 9: Section 1: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) What major changes were instituted to the insanity defense after the trial of John Hinckley?
Q2) Why is it difficult to evaluate insanity? What factors make it different from the evaluation of competency to stand trial?
Q3) How do jurors view the insanity defense?
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Chapter 9: Section 2: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) The concept that individuals with issues relating to impaired cognitive understanding should not be held culpable was used as early as the Roman Empire. Roman law classified those individuals to be non compos mentis, or:
A) not quite all there.
B) mentally competent.
C) without mastery of mind.
D) mens rea.
Q2) The guilty but mentally ill (GBMI) verdict assumes that people who are found guilty of a criminal act should receive _____ but most offenders go _____.
A) mental health treatment; to prison rather than mental institution
B) medication; free
C) counseling; to a psychiatric facility and not prison
D) mental health treatment; on without treatment because they are released shortly
Q3) According to the text, insanity:
A) refers to the defendant's state of mind at the time of the trial.
B) affirms the psychiatric diagnosis according to the legal standards.
C) refers to the criminal's state of mind at the time the crime was committed.
D) confirms the defendant's moral responsibility.
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Chapter 9: Section 3: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) Which of the following was NOT a major change instituted by the Insanity Defense Reform Act of 1984?
A) Defendants must prove their insanity by clear and convincing evidence.
B) The volitional prong was dropped from the definition of insanity.
C) Experts were barred from giving ultimate issue testimony.
D) It made the Durham test of insanity standard for federal cases.
Q2) What definition of insanity is used in most states currently?
A) the Durham test.
B) the ALI standard.
C) the M'Naghten rule.
D) the "wild beast" test.
Q3) Which definition of insanity includes both a cognitive prong and a volitional prong?
A) Durham test
B) "wild beast" test
C) M'Naghten rule
D) ALI standard
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Chapter 10: Section 1: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) What are the disadvantages of using PTSD over RTS and BWS in court?
Q2) What are rape shield laws and when do they not apply in court? Can expert testimony be problematic in this regard?
Q3) What are the advantages of using PTSD over RTS and BWS in court?
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Chapter 10: Section 2: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) Rape shield laws were put in place to prevent lawyers from delving into the sexual histories of _____ during the trial.
A) the defendant
B) the alleged victim
C) the alleged perpetrator
D) all parties involved
Q2) According to the text, jurors appear to be _____ inclined toward women who kill their partners _____.
A) positively; after years of abuse
B) negatively; despite the evidence of abuse
C) negatively; but only if the woman killed her husband while he slept
D) especially positively; because they sympathize with abused women
Q3) Judicial nullification instruction can best be described as an instruction that lets jurors know that they can _____ a strict interpretation of the law if that legal interpretation would result in an unjust verdict.
A) only follow
B) disregard
C) pursue
D) summarize
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Chapter 10: Section 3: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) According to responses to the National Crime Victimization Survey, intimate partner violence has been _____ in the last 15 to 20 years.
A) increasing
B) staying the same
C) decreasing
D) fluctuating (going up and down)
Q2) Burgess and Holmstrom (1979) found that _____ of rape victims had returned to normal functioning 5 years after the rape.
A) only 5%
B) about half
C) about three quarters
D) over 95%
Q3) According to the text, serious violence is much more likely to occur when:
A) males assault their female partners.
B) females assault their male partners.
C) females assault their female rivals.
D) males assault their male intimate partners.
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Chapter 11: Section 1: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) Should anatomically detailed dolls be admissible in court? Why or why not?
Q2) How are child witnesses perceived by jurors? What kind of measures do the courts take to protect child witnesses?
Q3) Which allegations of recovered memories should be suspect?
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Chapter 11: Section 2: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) In some cases, so-called memories of past abuse have "surfaced" as a result of the _____ of the alleged victim while under hypnosis or guided imagery.
A) corroboration
B) suggestibility
C) anger
D) frustration
Q2) According to the text, children who recant previous allegations of sexual abuse are likely to have been abused by a:
A) stranger.
B) parental figure.
C) peer.
D) priest.
Q3) Testifying about what someone else said outside of court is called:
A) unsubstantiated rumor.
B) hearsay testimony.
C) always non-admissible evidence.
D) admissible evidence.
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Page 34
Chapter 11: Section 3: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) Substantial research now shows that the interviewers in many of the preschool cases ____, and this made the interviewers question children more _____ to confirm their preexisting suspicions.
A) strongly believed that children were sexually abused; coercively
B) strongly believed that children were sexually abused; gently
C) did not believe that children were sexually abused; gently
D) did not believe that children were sexually abused; coercively
Q2) One should be especially skeptical about claims of recovered memories in all of the following cases EXCEPT:
A) abuse involving satanic rituals.
B) abuse that occurred before the age of 3.
C) memories of abuse that began as vague impressions.
D) abuse that began in adolescence.
Q3) All of the following are the reasons for underreporting of child sexual abuse EXCEPT:
A) very young children may not be able to talk and explain what happened.
B) young children may not interpret what's happening as sexual abuse.
C) children's allegations of sexual abuse are not taken seriously.
D) children may fear retaliation of the abuser.
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Q1) How does legal custody differ from physical custody? Which custody arrangement are common and which are not?
Q2) What are the advantages of mediation over litigation? Who is more likely to seek litigation?
Q3) How do the best interest of the child standard (BICS) and the tender years doctrine differ?
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Chapter 12: Section 2: Juries and Judges As Decision
Makers
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Q1) The tender years doctrine once prevailed as the standard for deciding child custody. This rule dictated that:
A) young children were to stay with the father.
B) all female children were placed with the father.
C) young children and all male children were placed with the father.
D) young children and all female children were placed with the mother.
Q2) The goal of the approximation rule is to:
A) maintain as much stability for the child as possible.
B) make sure the right parent has custody.
C) keep the preferred custody arrangement set in place by the court previously.
D) uphold judicial rights in determining custody.
Q3) The rights and responsibilities of parents in the determination of custody are called:
A) legal custody.
B) physical custody.
C) child custody.
D) parental competence.
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Chapter 12: Section 3 Juries and Judges As Decision Makers
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Q1) In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that "custody decisions cannot turn on racial considerations?"
A) Painter v. Bannister
B) Palmore v. Sidoti
C) Myers v. Otto
D) Boswell v. Boswell
Q2) Which response style is more common in child custody evaluations?
A) Faking good.
B) Acquiescence.
C) Malingering.
D) Learned helplessness.
Q3) One commonly used test in custody evaluations is the Rorschach Inkblot Test. The reason why it is not advisable to use this test is that it:
A) lacks validity and reliability in forensic evaluations.
B) has the potential to cause psychological distress to the subject.
C) is extremely complex to interpret and requires years of practice on the part of the evaluator.
D) is intimate in nature, which puts the subject in an uncomfortable position.
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Chapter 13: Section 1: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) What kind of reforms would you suggest to improve the jury trial process?
Q2) How does inadmissible evidence influence juror decision making?
Q3) How does the mathematical model of jury decision making differ from the story model of jury decision making?
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Chapter 13: Section 2: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) Evidence has shown that judges are susceptible to the same interferences with impartiality as are jurors. According to the text, researchers discovered that judges accepted the recommendation of the parole officer about _____ of the time.
A) 50%
B) 70%
C) 85%
D) 95%
Q2) Contrary to popular opinion, a survey administered to jurors after a verdict was reached, revealed that _____ agreed that the deliberation process was rigorous and demonstrated both equality and mutual respect.
A) only 50%
B) about 75%
C) over 90%
D) less than 25%
Q3) _____ occurs when group pressure results in holdout jurors changing their votes.
A) Open conflict
B) Informational influence
C) Normative influence
D) Reactance influence
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Page 40
Chapter 13: Section 3: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) Which of the following states requires judges to pre-instruct juries?
A) Arizona.
B) California.
C) New Mexico.
D) New York.
Q2) Which of the following represents the leniency bias in jury decision making?
A) All-female juries are more lenient.
B) All-minority juries are more lenient.
C) More diverse juries are likely to acquit.
D) Evenly split juries are more likely to acquit.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a stage in the deliberation process?
A) Closed conflict.
B) Orientation.
C) Reconciliation.
D) Open conflict.
Q4) Research on inadmissible evidence indicates that:
A) judges are able to disregard inadmissible evidence better than are jurors.
B) jurors are able to disregard inadmissible evidence better than are judges.
C) both judges and jurors are able to disregard inadmissible evidence.
D) neither judges nor jurors are able to disregard inadmissible evidence.
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Chapter
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Q1) How does clinical risk assessment differ from actuarial risk assessment?
Q2) What are the ethical issues involved in risk assessment?
Q3) What criteria must an individual meet to be involuntarily civilly committed? Do these criteria differ for sexually violent predators?
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Chapter 14: Section 2: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Q1) According to the text, as of 2013, _____ states and the federal government adopted sexually violent predator civil commitment laws (SVP laws).
A)10
B)20
C)40
D)all 50
Q2) There are two aspects of the sexually violent predator civil commitment laws (SVP laws). One is the state's authority to protect the citizenry, also referred to as _____. The second component is the state's duty to protect those who cannot protect themselves, sometimes referred to as _____.
A) police power; parens patriae power
B) parens patriae power; police power
C) police state; parental control
D) coercive power; vulnerable self
Q3) Static markers of future violent behavior are also called:
A) dynamic markers.
B) risk management markers.
C) historical markers.
D) case markers.
43
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Chapter 14: Section 3: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Q1) In Kansas v Crane (2002), the Supreme Court has clarified the Hendricks conditions for involuntary civil commitment of sexually violent predators. In addition to the mental illness and future danger requirements, the following condition was added:
A) family turmoil and lack of stable living arrangements.
B) serious difficulty controlling his or her urges.
C) extended criminal history of violent offenses.
D) presence of antisocial personality disorder.
Q2) There are some important ways in which involuntary civil commitment is different from criminal confinement, as both currently exist. Which of the following is NOT one of these differences?
A) The burden of proof: clear and convincing evidence versus beyond a reasonable doubt.
B) The length of confinement: indeterminate versus specified.
C) The reason for confinement: punishment versus prevention of harm.
D) The decision-making authority: court versus psychiatrists.
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Chapter 15: Section 1: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) What do studies show about racism in the United States? How does the modern-era racism differ from the older forms of racism?
Q2) What is psychological injury as it applies to sexual harassment? Which standards of injury are currently applied in sexual harassment cases?
Q3) What steps can be taken to reduce prejudice?
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Chapter 15: Section 2: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) Another form of harassment is when a work environment is so contentious that victims cannot carry out their job responsibilities. This type of sexual harassment is referred to as:
A) hostile environment.
B) discrimination based on gender.
C) quid pro quo harassment.
D) consensual relationship.
Q2) When men are victimized by harassment, the harassing behavior is more likely to come:
A) from another man, rather than a woman.
B) from a female supervisor.
C) from a female subordinate.
D) from a female equal.
Q3) When women are victimized by other women, such harassment appears to occur only about _____ of the time.
A) 10%
B) 5%
C) 2%
D) 0.5%
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Chapter 15: Section 3: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964:
A) outlawed discrimination based on race.
B) outlawed discrimination based on gender.
C) specifically addressed the issue of sexual harassment in the workplace.
D) outlawed discrimination based on race and gender.
Q2) Studies show that the jurors focus on a few key factors when they decide on an outcome of a sexual harassment case. The factors include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) the victim's character.
B) the consequences suffered by the victim.
C) whether the head of the company is a man or a woman.
D) how the company responded to the situation.
Q3) "Sleep with me if you want to be promoted" is an example of which type of sexual harassment, as identified by Catherine MacKinnon?
A) Quid pro quo.
B) Sexual discrimination.
C) Hostile work environment.
D) Sexual categorical remarks.
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Page 47
Chapter 16: Section 1: Corrections: Sentencing,
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Q1) Describe the four goals of imprisonment.
Q2) What was the goal of determinate sentencing and how does it work? What are the main problems with mandatory sentencing in general and with one of its versionsthree-strikes laws - in particular?
Q3) Discuss three alternatives to prison.
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Chapter 16: Section 2: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives
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Q1) Containing criminals to render them unable to harm others outside of the prison is referred to as:
A) specific deterrence.
B) incapacitation.
C) retribution.
D) general deterrence.
Q2) Whether a prisoner receives treatment for a mental disorder is at the discretion of:
A) prison doctors.
B) the sentencing judge.
C) the jury.
D) prison wardens.
Q3) The prison population is also highly racially disproportionate to the general population. Black males have a _____ chance of serving at least 1 year in prison or jail during their lifetime, whereas the same chance for White males is _____.
A) 10%; 11%
B) 29%; 5%
C) 59%; 1%
D) 90%; 49%
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Chapter 16: Section 3: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives
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Q1) The average cost of imprisonment for prisoners over the age of 55 is over _____ per year.
A) $30,000
B) $50,000
C) $80,000
D) $100,000
Q2) After being released from prison, approximately _____ of inmates will be rearrested and sent back to prison within 3 years.
A) 20%
B) 33%
C) 51%
D) 67%
Q3) A lot of prisoners come from disadvantaged backgrounds: _____ of prisoners have at least one family member who has been incarcerated, and about _____ of prisoners have been regular drug users before incarceration.
A) 10%; 25%
B) 40%; 60%
C) 25%; 90%
D) 50%; 10%
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Chapter 17: Section 1: The Death Penalty
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Q1) What are Americans' views on the death penalty? Why is it important to consider public opinion on this issue?
Q2) Is the death penalty an effective deterrent to murder?
Q3) Discuss the racial disparities in administering the death penalty.
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Chapter 17: Section 2: The Death Penalty
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Q1) Interestingly, there appears to be a tendency for an increase in murders for a short while following an execution. As with the preponderance of violence seen in the media, there may be desensitization to killing. This phenomenon is referred to as the _____ effect.
A) copycat
B) replication
C) simulation
D) brutalization
Q2) When it comes to the financial cost of the death penalty, the following is NOT true:
A) Maintaining the death penalty is far more expensive than abandoning it.
B) States could save huge amounts of money by abolishing the death penalty.
C) Money can be saved if a capital case defendant is eventually sentenced to life in prison.
D) Capital cases are more expensive at every stage of the legal process.
Q3) Excluding federal crimes, the only crime punishable by death is:
A) incest.
B) manslaughter.
C) aggravated murder.
D) aggravated rape.
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Chapter 17: Section 3: The Death Penalty
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Q1) The most widely used forms of execution in parts of the world where the death penalty is still used are:
A) lethal injection and the gas chamber.
B) lethal injection and the electric chair.
C) the gas chamber and the electric chair.
D) hanging and shooting.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a result of Gregg v. Georgia (1976) and its companion cases?
A) The sentence of death was made mandatory for certain types of murder.
B) All death sentences are reviewed by state supreme courts.
C) Bifurcated proceedings are used in all capital trials.
D) Jurors are instructed to weigh aggravating and mitigating factors.
Q3) The brutalization effect refers to the:
A) tendency of juries to give more weight to aggravating factors in capital cases.
B) conclusion that executions increase murder rates.
C) suggestion that brutal methods of execution like the electric chair decrease murder rates.
D) likelihood that repeat offenders are more likely to be sentenced to death.
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