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This course explores the processes and factors that influence social and emotional development from infancy through adolescence. Topics include attachment, emotion regulation, temperament, empathy, peer relationships, family and cultural influences, and the impact of adversity on emotional well-being. Through the examination of major theories, research findings, and case studies, students will gain an understanding of how social and emotional skills are acquired, how they contribute to healthy development, and how they can be supported in educational and community settings.
Recommended Textbook
Developmental Psychology 1st Edition by Frank Keil
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Q1) Dr.Kramer studies child development by assessing and recording the same group of children every year for 15 years.She is using a:
A) longitudinal approach
B) cross-sectional approach
C) cross-cultural approach
D) converging methods approach
Answer: A
Q2) You design a cross-sectional, observational study to determine if children's tantrums at different ages are maintained by negative reinforcement (in this case, parents giving in to the tantrum behavior).The perspective you are taking in your research is:
A) comparative
B) behaviorist
C) longitudinal
D) experimental
Answer: B
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Q1) Phenylketonuria is a genetic disorder, which is caused by a defect in the single gene.There are numerous effects of this disorder including mental retardation, eczema, and pigment abnormalities.That one gene affects many traits is an example of:
A) heterozygous genes
B) homeobox genes
C) pleiotropic genes
D) polygenic genes
Answer: C
Q2) Differentiate between genotype and phenotype.
Answer: Genotype is the genetic information encoded as particular alleles in an organism's DNA.Phenotype refers to the ways that the genetic information is expressed or manifested in an organism, including its anatomical structures, its biochemical processes, and its behaviors.Phenotype depends in part on genotype but is also affected by environmental influences.
Q3) Differentiate between pleiotropic and polygenic genes.
Answer: A pleiotropic gene affects many traits.The opposite of pleiotropy (one gene affecting many traits) is when a single trait is polygenic, or affected by multiple genes.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The retina of the eye, the hair cells of the auditory system, and the taste buds of the tongue are all involved in:
A) speech
B) olfaction
C) perception
D) sensation
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic taste categories?
A) bitter
B) salty
C) sweet
D) umami
Answer: D
Q3) ___________ principles provide ways of distinguishing one whole object from another.
A) Empiricist
B) Gestalt
C) Nativist
D) Optokinetic
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a rat learns to fear a light and then subsequently hears a noise with the light, you know from blocking that the rat will:
A) fear the noise
B) fear the light
C) fear either the noise or the light
D) become confused
Q2) By approximately 12 months, an infant's perceptual-motor development has advanced such that she can do all of the following EXCEPT:
A) coordinate her reaching to touch an object she sees
B) move her arms toward an object
C) reach behind herself when she spots an object behind her
D) quickly stand and walk over to an object located across the room
Q3) Classical conditioning begins with adding in a(n):
A) neutral stimulus
B) unconditioned stimulus
C) conditioned stimulus
D) unconditioned response
Q4) Choose the stance of a maturational researcher.Describe your account and why you feel it is the better choice.
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Q1) Piaget's sensorimotor period of development typically lasts from:
A) birth to 6 months
B) 6 months to 1 year
C) 7 years to 12 years
D) birth to 2 years
Q2) Piaget's theory suggests that development occurs:
A) sequentially, but at different rates in children across the world
B) in various orders of stages depending on the child's needs
C) in an invariant and universal sequence
D) simultaneously across all the stages, but earlier stages are mastered first because they take less time
Q3) Based on an infant's development throughout the sensorimotor period, a nursery would be outfitted best by providing:
A) little stimulation and activity so one does not overwhelm a child
B) classical music constantly while the child is in the room
C) access to several interesting toys the child can manipulate that are periodically switched
D) as many toys and sources of stimulation as will fit in the space available
Q4) Briefly describe and track a child's development through Piaget's stages.
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Q1) Grant, a 16-month-old, is participating in the Strange Situation with his mother.Grant melts down when his mother leaves and sobs uncontrollably.When his mother returns, Grant runs to be with her but appears quite angry.Grant would most likely be classified as demonstrating a(n):
A) disorganized attachment
B) insecure/avoidant attachment
C) insecure/resistant attachment
D) secure attachment
Q2) Researchers found that the cortisol levels in children in Romanian orphanages:
A) were similar to children raised by their biological parents
B) did not peak at all but remained low all day long
C) tended to peak earlier in the morning than in normal children
D) tended to peak midday as opposed to peaking early in the morning as in normal children
Q3) How does the smile serve as an attachment behavior?
Q4) At what age do infants seem to need to form specific attachments to individuals?
A) from birth onward
B) after about 3 months
C) after about 6 months
D) after the first year

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Q1) Seven-month-old infants participating in a study watched videos showing hippos and snakes accompanied by fearful or happy voices.Infants in this study:
A) looked longer at the video of the snake when they heard a fearful voice
B) looked longer at the video of the snake when they heard a happy voice
C) looked equally long at videos of snakes when they hear a happy voice as when they hear a fearful voice
D) did not look at videos of snakes but only looked at videos of hippos
Q2) Rachel, a 10-month-old, sees a new toy.She turns to her mother to see her reaction to this new object.This is an example of:
A) display cues
B) emotional contagion
C) situation selection
D) social referencing
Q3) All of the following statements about goodness of fit are true EXCEPT:
A) the concept of goodness of fit helped launch a major shift in how we view infants and children
B) the same environment is optimal for all children
C) children can actively seek the best-fitting environment
D) parents and teachers can alter the environment to better fit the child
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Q1) Sam sees a newspaper headline that says, "Children make nutritious snacks." He laughs because he recognizes this headline can have two different meanings.The use of double entendres is an example of:
A) indirect language
B) overextension
C) telegraphic speech
D) riddle of reference
Q2) Dr.Diener studies how different cultures use language to convey meaning.Dr.Diener is focused on:
A) phonology
B) pragmatics
C) semantics
D) syntax
Q3) ________ is learning based on the probability of events occurring both at the same time and in sequences over time.
A) Computational modeling
B) Fast mapping
C) Imitation
D) Statistical learning
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Q1) ________ refers to modification of cognitive structures to fit what the child has learned about the environment.
A) Accommodation
B) Assimilation
C) Compensation
D) Reversibility
Q2) Which best describes Piaget's view of development?
A) There are quantitative, domain-general changes in children's thinking.
B) There are qualitative, domain-general changes in children's thinking.
C) There are quantitative, domain-specific changes in children's thinking.
D) There are qualitative, domain-specific changes in children's thinking.
Q3) Describe the abilities and limitations associated with the preoperational child's use of symbols.
Q4) Preschoolers are much better at sorting objects into ________ level categories than they are at using other category levels.
A) basic
B) hierarchical
C) subordinate
D) superordinate
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Q1) What are the major steps in learning how to read?
Q2) Why should attorneys be careful about using young children as witnesses?
Q3) The development of reading broadly follows a child's progress through five stages.Gerard is beginning to understand the benefits of reading and starting to see how it can teach him a lot of useful information.He is in the ________ stage.
A) confirmation and fluency
B) construction and reconstruction
C) multiple viewpoints
D) reading to learn
Q4) The process of turning information into a mentally useful representation is called:
A) encoding
B) storage
C) retrieval
D) source monitoring
Q5) What are semantic, episodic, and autobiographical memories? How are they similar and different?
Q6) What are the three components of attention, and how are they different?
Q7) Describe and contrast utilization and production deficits.
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Q1) What is known about how and why IQ scores seem to rise over time?
Q2) Gardner found all of the following were associated with creative geniuses EXCEPT:
A) being near great cities
B) coming from intact families
C) coming from a wealthy family
D) immersing themselves with like-minded people
Q3) Numerous studies have been conducted that demonstrate the impact from stereotype threat on testing.When students in these studies are given a verbal task and told it's just a puzzle they need to finish, African-American students typically:
A) perform worse than European-American students
B) perform as well as European-American students
C) perform better than European-American students
D) perform the same as they do on formal IQ tests
Q4) What are two prominent ways of assessing infant intelligence and how do they differ? How do these methods relate to later IQ scores?
Q5) Discuss the importance of schooling by drawing from research on how schools affect children's thoughts and abilities.
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Q1) ________ refers to the ability to hold off engaging in an action that will bring a desired result.
A) Delay of antisocial behavior
B) Delay of fulfillment
C) Delay of gratification
D) Delay of prosocial behavior
Q2) Mrs.Smith caught Joyce cheating on her second grade math test.After math, the class went to the playground and Mrs.Smith caught Bill cheating in a game of tag.Research on consistency of moral behavior suggests that:
A) Joyce was also cheating in tag
B) Bill was also cheating on his math test
C) Both children are likely to cheat in a variety of contexts
D) Joyce's cheating on the test does not necessarily indicate cheating on the playground
Q3) ________ saw emotions as the basis for moral thought.
A) Hume
B) Golding
C) Locke
D) Rousseau
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Self-efficacy and self-esteem tend to both be global and domain general.
B) Self-efficacy tends to be global and domain general while self-esteem can be specific to tasks and concepts.
C) Self-esteem tends to be global and domain general while self-efficacy can be specific to tasks and concepts.
D) Self-efficacy and self-esteem tend to both be highly specific to tasks and concepts.
Q2) Mitch thinks of his past accomplishments and what he believes he can attain in the future.This illustrates his ________ self.
A) conceptual
B) extended
C) ideal
D) temporal
Q3) Neisser argued for all of the following senses of self EXCEPT:
A) conceptual
B) ecological C) public
D) private
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Q1) What are the positive and negative effects on children of delaying the childbearing years until the late 30s or 40s?
Q2) Define the cycle of abuse and provide three possible explanations for this cycle.
Q3) One study examined three groups of poor children: children who entered foster care because of child maltreatment, children who endured maltreatment but remained at home, and those who were not maltreated or put into foster care.This study found:
A) all three groups were equally likely to experience negative effects
B) there was no difference between the two groups of maltreated children with both demonstrating high levels of behavior problems
C) the group of maltreated children who remained at home demonstrated the highest level of behavior problems
D) the group of maltreated children who entered foster care demonstrated the highest level of behavior problems
Q4) Describe the child behaviors and traits typically associated with each parenting style.
Q5) How can stress at work affect parenting styles?
Q6) Discuss how divorce influences male and female children differently.
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Q1) All of the following are risk factors for being the victim of peer aggression EXCEPT: A) aggressiveness
B) having popular friends
C) short stature
D) submissiveness
Q2) Alden, a 5-year-old, watches a great deal of violent television.He thinks physical fights are normal.This illustrates:
A) catharsis
B) desensitization
C) hostile attribution
D) video deficit
Q3) Vanessa runs a day care, which cares for children between 2 and 4 years of age.What age differences would she observe in what triggers conflict and how conflict is resolved.
Q4) Ms.Blanton is a preschool teacher.She notices that girls in her class tend to play in groups of other girls while boys tend to play in groups of other boys.In what ways has she likely noticed that the girls and boys groups differ from one another?
Q5) How do friendships change with the transition to adolescence?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe how conduct disorder is diagnosed.
Q2) All of the following are symptoms of psychopathy EXCEPT: A) impulsivity
B) irresponsibility
C) low self-worth
D) stimulation seeking
Q3) Navmi was classified as an insecurely attached infant and her cousin Naina was classified as a securely attached infant.Both girls are now 3 years old.What outcome is most likely?
A) Neither Navmi nor Naina will be likely to develop an anxiety disorder in childhood.
B) Navmi will be more likely than Naina to develop an anxiety disorder in childhood.
C) Naina will be more likely than Navmi to develop an anxiety disorder in childhood.
D) Both Navmi and Naina will be likely to develop an anxiety disorder in childhood.
Q4) Dr.Prabhakar wishes to study what the first year is like for autistic children.What challenges may she face and what strategies can she use to overcome these?
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Q1) Raymond is in his 70s and exercises every day.The effects of exercise will be strongest for his performance on:
A) controlled tasks
B) executive tasks
C) spatial tasks
D) speed tasks
Q2) Which brain region shows less activation in response to negative stimuli than to positive stimuli in older adults, while showing strong responses to both kinds of stimuli in younger adults?
A) amygdala
B) dorsal striatum
C) hippocampus
D) thalamus
Q3) Jasmine is given a test of word meanings.This is measuring:
A) configurative intelligence
B) crystallized intelligence
C) fluid intelligence
D) optimized intelligence
Q4) What are some consequences of negative stereotypes of the elderly?
Q5) Differentiate between Alzheimer's disease and general dementia.
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