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Services Marketing focuses on the unique challenges and opportunities associated with the marketing of services as opposed to tangible goods. The course explores key concepts such as the intangibility, inseparability, variability, and perishability of services, emphasizing the development of effective marketing strategies to address these characteristics. Topics include service quality management, customer relationship management, service delivery, service innovation, and the use of technology in service encounters. Students also examine customer expectations, perceptions, and satisfaction, and learn how to design, promote, and manage service offerings to achieve organizational goals and foster long-term customer loyalty.
Recommended Textbook
M Marketing 4th Edition by Dhruv Grewal
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Q1) Many universities provide physical or electronic bulletin boards to facilitate ride-sharing and exchange of used books among students. These bulletin boards increase __________ marketing.
A) B2C
B) C2B
C) B2B
D) C2C
E) underground
Answer: D
Q2) The importance of supply chain management is often overlooked in the study of marketing because
A) marketing has no responsibility for supply chain management.
B) supply chain management doesn't add much value for customers.
C) companies do not want customers to know anything about the supply chain.
D) many of the activities take place behind the scenes.
E) supply chain management is already transparent.
Answer: D
Q3) How should marketers determine prices?
Answer: Prices should be based on potential customers' perceptions of value.
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Q1) In value-based marketing, promotion communicates the ________ to customers through a variety of media.
A) targeted solution
B) operational excellence strategy
C) value proposition
D) relative market value
E) target market definition
Answer: C
Q2) Marketers who design and offer new products and services to their existing customers are pursuing a ____________________ growth strategy.
A) product proliferation
B) market development
C) market penetration
D) diversification
E) product development
Answer: E
Q3) Relative market share is an example of a marketing metric.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) From a marketing perspective, what role is played by professional bloggers?
A) engaging customers on behalf of companies
B) introducing new products to the marketplace
C) sharing videos and photos of products
D) recruiting employees
E) reviewing and giving product recommendations
Answer: E
Q2) According to the text, which of the following has earned the highest Klout score?
A) iPad mini
B) Ashton Kutcher
C) President Barack Obama
D) True Blood
E) Justin Bieber
Answer: E
Q3) Smartphone owners tend to be older and more affluent than owners of other types of phones, making them an attractive target market for many firms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Compared to the average company, firms with strong ethical climates tend to
A) employ more business development consultants.
B) offer more goods and services.
C) be more socially responsible.
D) invest more in sales training software.
E) have higher turnover.
Q2) Anupam's company manufactures industrial ladders. He is concerned that consumers who do not understand ladder safety will purchase these extra-tall ladders and injure themselves. During which phase of the strategic marketing planning process should this issue be addressed?
A) control
B) planning
C) implementation
D) design
E) ethics
Q3) Stakeholders typically include the firm's employees and retired employees, suppliers, the government, customer groups, stockholders, and members of the community in which the firm operates.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What social trend has influenced retailers to make their products available wherever and whenever customers want them?
Q2) Julie has been doing the family's weekly shopping since she was twelve, although she doesn't particularly like doing it. She tends to question what salespeople tell her and demands convenience. Julie demonstrates characteristics of the __________ generational cohort.
A) Baby Boomers
B) Generation W
C) Generation X
D) Generation Y
E) Generation Z
Q3) What percentage of U.S. adults now recycle their soda bottles and newspapers?
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 90%
Q4) Tweens rarely use any type of technology.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) When Brandon decided he needed a new car, he immediately called his old college roommate, who owns a BMW dealership, to ask questions about options and financing. Brandon was searching for information from
A) an external source.
B) an internal locus of control.
C) a reference source.
D) an internal source.
E) a situational factor group.
Q2) When Kelly began searching for a new car to replace her old, rusty one, she probably relied on __________ sources of information.
A) interpersonal and sensual
B) compensatory and noncompensatory
C) ritual and spiritual
D) psychological and functional
E) internal and external
Q3) Using automobiles as an example, explain the differences among universal, retrieval, and evoked sets, and identify the one that is most important to marketers.
Q4) Why are attitudes important in consumer decision making?
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Q1) As purchasing manager for Avalon Electronics, Carrie is required to submit a vendor performance analysis every three months. To meet this requirement, Carrie will probably
A) interview vendors and seek their feedback.
B) specify and weight performance factors and score the vendors.
C) develop an RFP for vendor analysis.
D) recruit new suppliers.
E) use a modified rebuy vendor form.
Q2) Of the three buying situations, in which one is a salesperson most likely to be involved?
Q3) What is a new buy, and what steps in the buying process does it typically go through?
Q4) Most B2B buying situations can be categorized into three categories: new buys, structured rebuys, and automatic rebuys.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The B2B buying process tends to be more formal than B2C buying.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Briefly describe the four types of buying centers and give an example of each.
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Q1) Global marketers typically find distribution in developing countries is more complex because
A) they must go through many types of distribution channels.
B) distribution is more heavily regulated in developing countries.
C) most consumers in developing countries live in densely populated cities.
D) the infrastructure is more advanced in most developing countries.
E) consumers in developing countries have very specific preferences.
Q2) When Ford introduced its Figo in India, it was responding to A) increased competition in the small car market.
B) India's movement away from small cars.
C) the economic and social trends in India toward small cars.
D) the new middle class in India who prefer status cars.
E) an increased need for large trucks to accommodate the burgeoning construction trade in India.
Q3) It seems that you cannot pick up a newspaper without reading about globalization. What fundamental changes are contributing to the growth of global markets?
Q4) Tariffs artificially lower prices and therefore lower demand.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) With access to the Internet nearly universal in the United States, many potential market segments have become more
A) substantial.
B) perceptive.
C) identifiable.
D) reachable.
E) quantifiable.
Q2) Overriding desires that drive how we live our lives are called
A) self-values.
B) self-concept.
C) self-esteem.
D) self-confidence.
E) self-control.
Q3) The perceptions of __________ are being measured in a perceptual map.
A) competitors
B) strategic planners
C) the company's executive team
D) the current R&D team
E) consumers
Q4) Write a value proposition for your favorite restaurant.
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Q1) Which of the following is true about quantitative research?
A) It is always conducted using primary data collection.
B) It revises the research objective based on data mining.
C) It confirms insights and provides a basis for taking a course of action.
D) It offers conclusions that are always correct.
E) It includes focus group interviews.
Q2) How might Dell Computer use sentiment mining to identify ways to improve its customer service?
Q3) The marketing research process follows five steps, and researchers
A) may not always go through them in the exact sequence if the situation changes or new information is discovered.
B) should maintain the integrity of the process by following each step sequentially and thoroughly.
C) often collect data before defining the research objectives.
D) should be prepared to present the results before completing the analysis if they are under a great deal of pressure to meet a deadline.
E) may follow the process by completing all steps at once instead of planning the process first.
Q4) What are some of the problems with using secondary data?
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Q1) Firms that use the same brand name for new products can spend relatively less on marketing costs for the new product because
A) brands protect corporate copyrights.
B) consumer loyalty can be bought for less now compared to the past.
C) brand equity can only be obtained by means of product line depth.
D) people already know what the brand means.
E) well-known brands are less likely to introduce brand extensions. Once a brand has established strong associations with its name, the firm may be able to spend less on promoting new products since consumers already recognize the brand and know what it stands for.
Q2) Private-label brands are developed and managed by
A) manufacturers.
B) wholesalers.
C) supply chain specialists.
D) manufacturer's reps.
E) retailers.
Private-label brands are brands developed by retailers.
Q3) Define convenience, shopping, unsought products and give an example of each.
Q4) Provide a real-world example of a national brand and a private-label brand.
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Q1) How is consumer panel data collected during the test marketing phase of a new product introduction?
A) Panelists complete a questionnaire about the product.
B) Panelists scan their receipts on a home scanning device.
C) Stores provide sales data to companies.
D) Consumers voluntarily go to a website to record their preferences.
E) Focus groups are held in key markets.
Q2) __________ is the process by which ideas are transformed into new products and services that will help firms grow.
A) Beta testing
B) Concept testing
C) Innovation
D) Reverse engineering
E) Competition
Q3) Test marketing refers to customers who modify existing products according to their own ideas to suit their specific needs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are some the ethical issues associated with testing cosmetics on animals?
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Q1) The knowledge gap is where the rubber meets the road, where the customer directly interacts with the service provider.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Yolanda manages a Best Sleep Inn along an interstate highway. She knows from experience that five to ten last-minute customers will call after 8 p.m. each evening looking for a room and asking the price. Yolanda has empowered her staff to offer discounts when the motel is largely vacant and to quote the standard price when the motel is close to full. She knows her service is __________, meaning that if no one stays in the room, it generates no revenue that evening.
A) intangible
B) inseparable
C) variable
D) durable
E) perishable
Q3) What does it mean to say that a service is perishable? Name three services that would be considered perishable.
Q4) Name a profession in which it might be considered unethical to market one's services. Explain why.
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Q1) Rarely is the lowest-price product offering the dominant brand in a given market.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The full price of a product or service includes all of the following EXCEPT
A) taxes.
B) shipping.
C) travel costs.
D) the price of alternative products and services.
E) value of the consumer's time.
Q3) If the fixed costs of manufacturing a new cell phone are $10,000, the sales price is $60, and variable cost per unit is $20, the break-even point is
A) 100 units.
B) 4,000 units.
C) 20 units.
D) 1,000 units.
E) 250 units.
Q4) Price is the only part of the marketing mix that does not generate costs.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Felicia had just taken over her family's business after spending ten years in the marketing department of a large corporation. She met with a representative from one of her firm's biggest customers, who told her, "We should think about how we can make the pie bigger rather than fighting over the size of the slices." She had expected a more cutthroat approach rather than this call for a
A) partnering relationship.
B) shared mission statement.
C) common marketing system.
D) corporate vertical marketing system.
E) linked supply chain.
Q2) When two competing retailers have a disagreement, it is an example of a horizontal channel conflict.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When manufacturers such as Pampered Chef sell directly to consumers, they perform both production and retailing activities.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the difference between an indirect and a direct marketing channel.
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Q1) What is unique about drugstores as a general merchandise retailer? What competitive pressures could limit growth in sales and profits?
Q2) Belinda is opening an upscale outdoor cooking equipment store. If she wants to differentiate her store from competitors based on product offerings, what will she likely need to do?
Q3) Jackie is running errands on Saturday morning. First, she drives through Starbucks for a large latte, stops at the tailor to pick up a dress she had hemmed, and then heads to her manicure appointment. What kind of retailers is Jackie visiting?
A) convenience stores
B) convenience stores and services retailers
C) services retailers
D) category specialists
E) category specialists and specialty stores
Q4) How has the relationship between manufacturers and retailers changed?
Q5) From the consumer's perspective, what is the major drawback associated with off-price retailers?
Q6) In what type of retail situation would the old cliché "location, location, location" be true?
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Q1) Public relations is the component of IMC that
A) supports other promotional efforts by generating free media attention.
B) has received the greatest increase in spending.
C) converts mass media advertising into direct marketing.
D) most effectively uses IMC encoding.
E) generates the most gross rating points.
Q2) Advertising agencies often provide the IMC function of comparing their customer's target audience with the viewer, listener, or reader profile of the communication channel being considered. The agency is most likely trying to avoid noise problems associated with
A) competing messages.
B) lack of clarity in the message.
C) a poor choice of medium.
D) an extended feedback loop.
E) a flaw in the medium.
Q3) What is noise in the communication process? What are the three typical sources of noise? Provide an example of noise you have experienced or observed.
Q4) Compare and contrast mobile marketing with online marketing.
Q5) How can direct marketing create a win-win situation for customers and the firm?
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Q1) Cross-promotion is most successful when
A) one product is well-known and one product is less known.
B) the firms have a prior marketing relationship.
C) the two products are similar in price.
D) the promotion takes place over a very short time period.
E) the two products appeal to the same target market.
Q2) In the create advertisements step when planning and executing an ad campaign, often the execution style for the ad will
A) determine the pretesting pulse of the ad.
B) dictate the type of medium used to deliver the message.
C) determine which push / pull strategy will accompany the ad.
D) dictate how advertising will be flighted.
E) deliver integrated marketing.
Q3) The content of an advertising message is closely tied to
A) recent institutional advertising.
B) the characteristics of the media selected to carry the message.
C) the opportunity for posttesting.
D) the sales promotion opportunities.
E) the coupon redemption rate.
Q4) Create a sales promotion to promote your university bookstore.
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Q1) Garrett is a sales rep for a line of golf equipment. He has been trying to get his sales manager to allow him to rent a booth at the upcoming PGA (Professional Golfers' Association) Show held every January in Orlando. Garrett is putting together a list of the benefits of displaying his company's products at the show. What benefits should his list include?
Q2) On weekends, Everett often finds himself thinking about his customers and their problems. Sometimes Everett will figure out a potential solution and use his PDA to send it to his customer. What personal trait does Everett have that is important to sales success?
Q3) A salesperson's compensation can be made up of some combination of salary, commission, and __________, which are payments made at a manager's discretion when the salesperson achieves certain goals.
A) bonuses
B) metrics
C) awards
D) income segments
E) rebates
Q4) Sales experts have identified five key personal traits that are often found in successful salespeople. List and define these five traits.
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