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Sensation and Perception explores the processes by which our sensory systems receive and interpret information from the environment, transforming physical stimuli into meaningful experiences. The course examines the structure and function of sensory organs, neural pathways, and brain regions involved in vision, hearing, taste, smell, and touch. Students will learn about psychophysical methods used to measure sensitivity and perception, mechanisms of attention, and how perception is shaped by context, expectations, and development. The course also addresses perceptual disorders and discusses real-world applications in technology, design, and health.
Recommended Textbook
Biopsychology 9th Edition by John P.J.
Pinel
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18 Chapters
2676 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the U.S. alone, more than __________ psychiatric patients have received a prefrontal lobotomy.
A) 40
B) 400
C) 4,000
D) 40,000
E) 400,000
Answer: D
Q2) The first prefrontal lobotomy performed on a human was A) performed by Lima.
B) based on the study of Becky.
C) performed with a leucotome.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Answer: D
Q3) __________ research is research intended to bring about a direct benefit to humankind.
Answer: Applied
Q4) Transorbital lobotomies were conducted through the orbits, or __________.
Answer: eye sockets
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Sample Questions
Q1) Epigenetic research has found that there are genetic differences between so-called identical twins and that these differences
A) do not occur in fraternal twins.
B) decrease with age.
C) increase with age.
D) increase disease susceptibility.
E) decrease disease susceptibility.
Answer: C
Q2) Individuals who possess two identical genes for a particular trait
A) are homozygous for that trait.
B) are heterozygous for that trait.
C) cannot have offspring of the same phenotype for that trait.
D) cannot have offspring of the same genotype for that trait.
E) none of the above
Answer: A
Q3) All body cells of a human normally contain __________ pairs of chromosomes.
Answer: 23
Q4) Proteins are long chains of __________.
Answer: amino acids

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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a point of decussation?
A) optic chiasm
B) hippocampus
C) temporal lobe
D) substantia nigra
E) superior colliculus
Answer: A
Q2) The caudate, putamen, and globus pallidus compose the
A) diencephalon.
B) limbic system.
C) somatosensory system.
D) basal ganglia.
E) thalamus.
Answer: D
Q3) Pyramidal cells have __________ dendrites.
Answer: apical
Q4) The bulge on the ventral surface of the metencephalon is the __________.
Answer: pons
Q5) __________ means "ring."
Answer: Limbic
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Sample Questions
Q1) Action potentials originate at the A) terminal buttons.
B) synapses.
C) axon initial segment, adjacent to the axon hillock
D) nodes of Ranvier.
E) nucleus.
Q2) Which neurotransmitters are often released from string-of-beads axons?
A) monoamines
B) amino acids
C) glutamate and GABA
D) soluble gases
E) peptides
Q3) Autoreceptors of a neuron are sensitive to the neuron's own A) EPSPs.
B) neurotransmitter.
C) IPSPs.
D) second messengers.
E) APs.
Q4) With respect to size, neuropeptides are the __________ neurotransmitters.
Q5) Endorphins and __________ are endogenous opioids.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The self-stimulation paradigm is
A) a Pavlovian conditioning paradigm.
B) an operant conditioning paradigm.
C) a punishment procedure.
D) both A and C
E) both B and C
Q2) A patient is sometimes injected with radioactive 2-deoxyglucose before A) a CT scan.
B) magnetic resonance imaging.
C) a contrast X-ray.
D) positron emission tomography.
E) a sodium amytal test.
Q3) The primary purpose of the single-test and standardized-test-battery approaches to neuropsychological testing was to
A) identify brain-damaged patients.
B) locate the area of brain damage.
C) characterize the nature of the psychological deficits.
D) measure brain activity.
E) compete with neurologists.
Q4) The SCL and SCR are both influenced by __________ glands.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Simple images that are stabilized on the retina start to A) vibrate.
B) continually disappear and reappear.
C) change shape.
D) increase in brightness.
E) move to the midline.
Q2) According to the retinex theory, the color of an object depends on
A) its reflectance.
B) the proportion of light of different wavelengths that it reflects.
C) the dominant wavelength that it reflects.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B
Q3) Many binocular striate cells
A) display ocular dominance.
B) respond best to retinal disparity.
C) are in the temporal lobe.
D) both A and B
E) both A and C
Q4) Accommodation is controlled by the __________ muscles.
Q5) Most binocular neurons in monkey primary visual cortex display __________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) An area of cerebral cortex that receives substantial input from more than one sensory system is classified as
A) hierarchical cortex.
B) primary sensory cortex.
C) secondary sensory cortex.
D) association cortex.
E) both A and B
Q2) Barn owls are often used in auditory research on sound localization because they have
A) excellent sound localization ability.
B) large ears.
C) a large auditory cortex.
D) poor vision.
E) both B and C
Q3) Endogenous attention is mediated by
A) top-down mechanisms.
B) bottom-up mechanisms.
C) recurrent collateral inhibition.
D) exogenous inhibition.
E) subliminal perception.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The motor units of the thumb, fingers, and face contain the A) fewest muscle fibers.
B) most muscle fibers.
C) fewest motor neurons.
D) most motor neurons.
E) most extensors.
Q2) In general, the ventromedial descending motor tracts control the muscles of the A) thumbs.
B) fingers.
C) trunk.
D) toes.
E) face.
Q3) In contrast to the ventromedial corticospinal tract, before descending to the spinal cord, the ventromedial cortico-brainstem-spinal tract interacts with the A) tectum.
B) reticular formation.
C) vestibular nuclei.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q4) The two descending __________ motor pathways control movements of the trunk.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Radial migration of developing neurons occurs along __________ glial cells.
Q2) When the lips of the neural __________ fuse, the result is the neural tube.
Q3) A core symptom of autism is
A) reduced ability to interpret emotions and intentions of others.
B) reduced capacity for social interaction and communication.
C) tremor at rest.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B
Q4) It is now generally acknowledged that adult brains are
A) incapable of substantial reorganization.
B) capable of major changes.
C) not as plastic as developing brains.
D) both B and C
E) none of the above
Q5) Describe Williams syndrome and its genetic and neural correlates.
Q6) The growth of new neurons in adults is called adult __________.
Q7) Discuss the effects of early experience on neurodevelopment, and describe two examples.
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Q8) __________, or ringing in the ears, causes a reorganization of primary auditory cortex.

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Sample Questions
Q1) The brain inflammation resulting from an infection is termed A) general paresis.
B) dementia.
C) encephalitis.
D) meningitis.
E) tardive dyskinesia.
Q2) The punch-drunk syndrome suggests that each individual concussion is associated with
A) some lasting damage.
B) dementia.
C) scarring.
D) a contusion.
E) meningitis.
Q3) An area of dead tissue produced by a stroke is called an __________.
Q4) Transplanted __________ sheaths have been used successfully to treat transected spinal cords in experiments on laboratory animals.
Q5) __________ is a degenerative brain disorder that attacks CNS myelin.
Q6) Lesions in the hippocampus increase __________ in that structure, suggesting that it may be involved in recovery of function after hippocampal damage.
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Q1) A change in the brain that stores a memory is called A) LTP.
B) an engram.
C) a memorial.
D) a stilton.
E) synaptic facilitation.
Q2) Memory for general principles and skills required to perform a task is called __________ memory.
A) complex
B) reference
C) working
D) place
E) inclusive
Q3) Neurons that respond only to specific individuals or objects have been discovered in the human brain. These have been termed
A) Halle Berry cells.
B) Jennifer Aniston cells.
C) Lisa Kudrow cells.
D) Yoda cells.
E) person cells.
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Q1) According to the text, obesity is now prevalent in industrialized countries because
A) high-positive-incentive value foods are continuously and readily available in these countries.
B) humans have evolved to eat as much as they can when food is available.
C) cultures have evolved to promote eating when food is available.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B
Q2) Cafeteria diets
A) greatly reduce consumption.
B) maintain consumption at baseline levels.
C) are those in which several palatable foods are available.
D) are inherently less healthy.
E) increase sensory-specific satiety.
Q3) Many people assume that hunger is normally triggered when energy resources fall
A) below a prescribed optimal homeostatic level called a set point.
B) to the glucose level.
C) to a fat set point.
D) to the settling point.
E) to the optimal levels of hypothalamic activity.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The anterior pituitary releases
A) estrogen.
B) tropic hormones.
C) testosterone.
D) releasing factors.
E) vasopressin.
Q2) John Money's famous case study of ablatio penis was initially used to argue that
A) social learning dominates hormones when it comes to gender identity.
B) social learning dominates genes when it comes to gender identity.
C) genes dominate social learning when it comes to gender identity.
D) hormones dominate social learning when it comes to gender identity.
E) sexual development is genetic and hormonal.
Q3) Destruction of the medial preoptic area
A) abolishes male copulatory behavior.
B) increases male copulatory behavior.
C) abolishes female copulatory behavior.
D) increases female copulatory behavior.
E) both B and C
Q4) The __________ of the primordial gonads develop into testes.
Q5) A __________ vein is any vein that connects one capillary network with another.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The comparative investigation of sleep has led to an important conclusion: It has suggested that
A) sleep serves an important physiological function.
B) the function of sleep is not some special higher-order cognitive function.
C) sleep may be essential for survival, but it is not necessarily required in large quantities.
D) the amount of time that a members of a particular species tend to sleep is related to how long it takes them to consume enough energy when they are awake and how susceptible they are to predation when they are sleeping.
E) all of the above
Q2) Although there are serious problems associated with the chronic use of this class of drugs, __________ are commonly prescribed for difficulties in sleeping.
Q3) Describe the results of long-term sleep-reduction experiments. Discuss both monophasic and polyphasic sleep. How are sleep times related to health and longevity? What do these lines of research indicate about the need for sleep?
Q4) __________ circadian cycles are those without zeitgebers.
Q5) REMs are associated with __________ stage 1 EEG.
Q6) Stage 4 sleep EEG is characterized by a predominance of __________ waves.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Psychoactive drugs are those that affect A) the activity of the central nervous system.
B) subjective experience.
C) behavior.
D) all of the above E) psychotic behavior.
Q2) In most countries, attempts to treat heroin and morphine addiction usually involve the prescription of A) methadone.
B) heroin.
C) morphine.
D) all of the above
E) both B and C
Q3) Recent research suggests that in addicts dopamine release in the nucleus accumbens may be related more to the __________ of a drug than the liking of the drug.
Q4) The before-and-after design is used to study __________ drug tolerance.
Q5) Drug tolerance can be defined as a shift in the dose-response curve to the __________.
Q6) The strongest psychoactive ingredient of opium is __________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is a specific pathological difficulty in reading.
Q2) Cognitive neuroscientists interested in the brain mechanisms of language search for the specific parts of the brain that mediate
A) phonemes.
B) language production.
C) language comprehension.
D) language's constituent cognitive processes.
E) both B and C
Q3) Geschwind
A) proposed a nonlocalizationist approach to the neuropsychology of language.
B) attacked the strict localizationist approach.
C) revived the localizationist ideas of Broca, Dejerine, and Wernicke.
D) both A and B
E) both A and C
Q4) The smallest units of sound that distinguish among words of a particular language are called __________.
Q5) Broca' s area corresponds to the part of the cortex referred to as the left __________.
Q6) The corpus callosum is the largest cerebral __________.
Q7) Most people are dextrals, but some are __________.
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Q1) The __________ does not seem to be involved in auditory fear conditioning itself, but it is involved in contextual fear conditioning.
Q2) An important advance in the study of the physiology of stress came with the discovery in the 1990s that stress triggers the release of __________, which play a role in inflammation and fever.
A) cytokines.
B) glucocorticoids
C) adrenocorticotropic hormones
D) thiamines
E) catecholamines
Q3) Le Doux and his colleagues found that bilateral lesions to the __________ blocked auditory fear conditioning but that bilateral lesions to the __________ did not.
A) septum; lateral geniculate nucleus
B) frontal lobe; cingulate
C) medial geniculate nucleus; auditory cortex
D) hypothalamus; septum
E) hippocampus; medial geniculate nucleus
Q4) Lie detection is also known as __________.
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Q1) Haloperidol and other __________ bind effectively to D2 receptors but not to D1 receptors.
Q2) Prozac is a slight structural variation of A) tricyclic antidepressants.
B) lithium.
C) neuroleptics.
D) phenothiazines.
E) MAO inhibitors.
Q3) The clinical effectiveness of typical neuroleptic drugs is positively correlated with the degree to which they bind to A) dopamine.
B) glutamate receptors.
C) D1 receptors.
D) D2 receptors.
E) autoreceptors.
Q4) Describe three animal models of anxiety. What is the problem with using them to screen potential anxiolytic drugs?
Q5) Imipramine is a __________ antidepressant.
Q6) Depression for which there is no apparent cause is called __________ depression.
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