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Science of the Universe explores the fundamental principles and discoveries that shape our understanding of the cosmos, from the origins of the universe to the formation and evolution of stars, galaxies, and planets. The course introduces students to key concepts in astronomy, astrophysics, and cosmology, examining the physical laws governing celestial phenomena and the methods scientists use to observe and analyze the universe. Topics include the Big Bang theory, the life cycles of stars, black holes, dark matter and dark energy, and the search for extraterrestrial life, providing a comprehensive overview of the scientific quest to unravel the mysteries of space and time.
Recommended Textbook
Discovering the Essential Universe 6th Edition by Neil F. Comins
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Q1) One major difference between the Sun and the Moon in the sky is that:
A) their motions across the sky in the course of a day are very different.
B) the spectrums of their light are very different.
C) their diameters subtend very different angles.
D) the Sun emits light while the Moon merely scatters and reflects it.
Answer: D
Q2) The time interval from seeing the bright star Regulus rise over the eastern horizon until it rises again the following evening is:
A) a solar day.
B) a sidereal day.
C) neither a solar day nor a sidereal day.
D) both a solar day and a sidereal day because these are the same for objects other than the Sun.
Answer: B
Q3) When the Sun pulls DOWNWARD on the bulge at Earth's equator,Earth responds by:
A) increasing the tilt of its rotation axis.
B) decreasing the tilt of its rotation axis.
C) spinning faster on its rotation axis.
D) precessing slowly around an axis perpendicular to the ecliptic.
Answer: D
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Q1) In an ellipse,the major axis is a distance measured:
A) from focus to focus.
B) along the longer diameter, passing through the foci of the ellipse.
C) along the shorter diameter.
D) along the circumference, between the closest point to and the farthest point from one focus.
Answer: B
Q2) When choosing among scientific explanations for a phenomenon,all else being equal,the simpler theory is more likely correct.This philosophy is associated with:
A) Pythagoras.
B) Aristotle.
C) Occam.
D) Kepler.
Answer: C
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Q1) The wavelength of green light is about 500 nanometers.What is this length in meters?
A) 500 thousandths of a meter
B) 500 trillionths of a meter (1 trillion = 1,000,000 million)
C) 500 millionths of a meter
D) 500 billionths of a meter (1 billion = 1000 million)
Answer: D
Q2) The charge-coupled device (CCD),now used extensively for astronomical imaging,works on what principle?
A) Light from the image modifies the plastic material on a disk, which can then be read on a standard video compact-disk (CD) player.
B) A single optical detector generates an electrical signal as it is scanned quickly across the astronomical image.
C) Light generates electrical charge on a computer-readable multi-element array of detectors.
D) Light from the image is detected by new, high-sensitivity, fine-grain, automatically processed film.
Answer: C
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Q1) Evidence of extensive cratering can be seen on most bodies in the inner solar system.Two bodies,however,have surfaces that are continually reformed by geologic processes.These bodies are:
A) Earth and Mars.
B) Mercury and the Moon.
C) Venus and Earth.
D) Earth and the Moon.
Q2) What was the material from which the solar system formed?
A) a nebula made mostly of heavy elements but enriched in hydrogen and helium from supernova explosions
B) debris from the explosion of a massive star
C) a nebula made entirely of hydrogen and helium gas
D) a nebula made mostly of hydrogen and helium gas but enriched in heavier elements from supernova explosions
Q3) The overall shape of the orbits of MOST of the planets in the solar system is:
A) perfectly circular.
B) parabolic.
C) slightly elliptical, but nearly circular.
D) elliptical, very elongated.

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Q1) Extrasolar planets have NOT been found:
A) around burned-out remnants of stars.
B) around stars in the disks of other galaxies.
C) in globular clusters.
D) around stars in the disk of our Galaxy.
Q2) In order for an exoplanet to be capable of sustaining life,all of the following situations would have to be true EXCEPT ONE.Which is the exception?
A) The planet would have to be far enough from its star that liquid water would not boil away.
B) The planet would have to be close enough to its star that liquid water would not be permanently frozen.
C) The planet would have to revolve around a Sun-like star.
D) The planet would have to be in a solar system containing a giant planet in a highly eccentric orbit.
Q3) What type of search technique has discovered the largest number of exoplanets?
A) distorted protoplanetary disks
B) the transit method
C) the radial-velocity method
D) the astrometric method
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Q1) What name is given to the layer of fine powder and rock fragments that cover the lunar surface?
A) mantle
B) regolith
C) rille
D) mare
Q2) Sometimes high tides are lower than at other times.What name is given to the lowest high tides?
A) rip tides
B) pep tides
C) spring tides
D) neap tides
Q3) Mercury is unique among the inner planets in having:
A) one hemisphere with many craters and few volcanoes and the other hemisphere with few craters and many volcanoes.
B) extensive volcanic activity and crustal deformation over most of its history, but no evidence of plate tectonics.
C) no evidence of an iron core.
D) an iron core that occupies almost half its volume.
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Q1) What appears to be the origin of the light,grooved terrain on the surface of Ganymede?
A) impacts by cometary debris
B) cracking of the surface caused by shrinkage of the moon as it cooled
C) cracking of the icy surface, releasing water that expanded as it froze into ice
D) flow of water on the solid surface of the moon at some time in the past, which subsequently shrank as it froze into this distinctive terrain
Q2) The surprising fact about the magnetic field of Uranus compared with the magnetic field of Earth or Jupiter is that:
A) its axis is precisely aligned with the spin axis of the planet.
B) it is extremely small and localized in specific regions of the planet.
C) it is much more intense than that of any other planet.
D) its axis makes a larger angle to the planet's spin axis than that of any other planet.
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Q1) If you were standing on Pluto,how often would you see the satellite Charon rise above the horizon each day?
A) once each 6-hour day as Pluto rotates on its axis
B) twice each 6-hour day because Charon is in a retrograde orbit
C) once every 2 days because Charon orbits in the same direction Pluto rotates but more slowly
D) never because -Charon is a synchronous satellite with an orbital period exactly equal to Pluto''s rotation period
Q2) To what does the term plutino refer?
A) satellite, or moon, of Pluto
B) icy object orbiting the Sun in the region of Pluto
C) object in the Oort cloud similar in size to Pluto but orbiting much farther from the Sun
D) object in the Kuiper belt of comet nuclei beyond the orbit of Pluto
Q3) How does the dust tail of a comet compare with its gas tail?
A) Dust tails often appear blue and gas tails white.
B) Dust tails are straight, whereas gas tails are curved.
C) Dust tails are more massive than gas tails.
D) Dust tails point toward the Ssun, whereas gas tails point away.
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Q1) Which statement about sunspots is NOT true?
A) Sunspots are the surrounding photosphere of the Sun.
B) Sunspots increase and decrease in number relatively regularly.
C) Sunspots often occur in pairs of opposite magnetic polarity.
D) Sunspots occur in regions of lower-than-average magnetic fields.
Q2) The Maunder minimum is the name given to the:
A) unexpectedly low number of neutrinos observed from the Sun.
B) region of lowest temperature in the photosphere, between the decreasing temperature in the solar interior and the increasing temperature in the chromosphere.
C) period of 70 years in the 1600s and early 1700s during which essentially no sunspots were seen.
D) minimum in the number of sunspots that occurs roughly every 11 years.
Q3) What happens to the positrons produced by the nuclear reactions in the core of the Sun?
A) The positrons combine with neutrons to form protons.
B) The positrons collide and stick together to form helium.
C) The positrons collide with electrons, producing energy.
D) The positrons escape from the Sun into space.
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Q1) If you look out at a clear night sky with the unaided eye,the faintest stars you can see have magnitudes around:
A) -6.
B) 0.
C) +6.
D) +12.
Q2) Two stars have the same spectral classification,but it is observed that one of them has narrower spectral lines than the other.The star with the narrower spectral lines is:
A) hotter.
B) cooler.
C) more luminous.
D) less luminous.
Q3) Which atom or ion produces the strongest absorption lines in the spectra of stars with the highest surface temperatures?
A) He II, ionized helium
B) Fe I, neutral iron
C) Ca II, singly ionized calcium
D) H I, neutral hydrogen
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Q1) In photographs,the Pleiades open star cluster is surrounded by a bluish haze (see Figure 11-2,Comins,Discovering the Essential Universe,6th ed.).What causes this blue light?
A) starlight scattered from interstellar dust in the star cluster
B) starlight scattered by the light-sensitive grains in the photographic plate when the picture was taken
C) shock waves losing energy to interstellar gas in the star cluster, causing the atoms to emit light
D) starlight absorbed and reemitted by interstellar gas in the star cluster
Q2) What determines whether a particular region of an interstellar cloud can collapse and form a star?
A) temperature since higher temperatures act to prevent collapse
B) the amount of gravity pulling inward compared with gas pressure pushing outward
C) gas density, the ratio of the mass of the cloud over its volume, since density determines how gravity will act on the cloud material
D) the amount of mass in the cloud since mass determines the strength of gravity
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Q1) Where would you look for an event horizon?
A) in the photosphere of a star (e.g., the Sun)
B) in the magnetosphere of a neutron star
C) at the edge of the visible universe
D) near a black hole
Q2) The characteristics of a red supergiant star are the brightness of _____ and a diameter of _____.
A) 10,000 Suns; about Mars' orbit
B) the Sun; Mercury's orbit
C) about 1 million Suns; the whole solar system
D) about 10,000 Suns; 1/10 that of the Sun
Q3) Where would you look for a pulsar among the following locations in the universe?
A) at the center of our Galaxy
B) in the Crab Nebula
C) in the Orion Nebula
D) in the middle of the Sun
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Q1) What useful purpose did variable stars serve for Harlow Shapley in locating the galactic center?
A) Variable stars are important spiral arm tracers and thus defined the shape of the Milky Way Galaxy.
B) The brightness variations of variable stars allowed accurate distances to be measured.
C) Variable stars emit copious amounts of infrared radiation and are thus visible through interstellar dust that obscures visible light.
D) Variable stars are concentrated in the galactic center and so defined its direction.
Q2) Distances to a nearby galaxy can be determined MOST accurately by:
A) using pulsating stars as beacons.
B) measuring the chemical compositions of the brightest stars.
C) measuring the shifts of spectral lines from the Milky Way Galaxy.
D) measuring the total amount of energy received from the Milky Way Galaxy.
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Q1) What is dark energy?
A) energy associated with the matter that has fallen into a black hole
B) matter-energy needed to bridge the gap between the energy we see or infer and the energy needed to make the universe flat
C) energy associated with dark matter
D) unseen matter-energy needed to make the observed curvature of space spherical (as we believe it should be), while the observed matter-energy only makes it hyperbolic
Q2) What designation do we give to the first stars?
A) Population 0
B) Population I
C) Population II
D) Population III
Q3) The greatest support for the Big Bang theory of cosmology came from the discovery of:
A) the cosmic microwave background.
B) the cosmic neutrino background.
C) isotropy in the universe.
D) homogeneity in the universe.
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Q1) What is the current status of our search for inhabitable,Earthlike planets circling other stars?
A) Several stars have been found with Earth-mass planets orbiting at a distance suitable for liquid water and life, but we cannot yet see if they have oxygen-rich atmospheres.
B) Many extrasolar planets have been discovered, but most are in orbits with eccentricities too high to provide a stable environment for life.
C) No extrasolar planets of any kind have yet been confirmed.
D) We have not yet discovered Earthlike planets orbiting Sunlike stars.
Q2) Which wavelength range in the electromagnetic spectrum has been the MOST fruitful in the search for complex organic molecules in space?
A) infrared radiation
B) visible radiation
C) UV radiation
D) microwaves and short-wavelength radio waves
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