Science Fundamentals
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Science Fundamentals provides an introduction to the basic concepts and principles underlying the natural sciences, including physics, chemistry, and biology. Designed for students with diverse academic backgrounds, the course explores the scientific method, measurement techniques, and the foundational theories that govern matter, energy, and life. Through lectures, practical experiments, and discussions, students develop scientific literacy, critical thinking skills, and an appreciation for the role of science in society and everyday life.
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Biological Science 2nd Canadian Edition by Scott; Sharp
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Chapter 1: Biology and the Tree of Life
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Q1) Why did the five-kingdom system of classification fall out of favor?
A)It was too complex-Linnaeus' original two-kingdom system was more useful.
B)It was too difficult to distinguish plants from fungi and animals from protistans.
C)There were too few monerans to justify their classification at the kingdom level.
D)It did not reflect the actual evolutionary relationships among organisms very well.
Answer: D
Q2) What do the nodes and branch points on a phylogenetic tree represent?
A)species
B)new kingdoms or domains
C)ancestral groups that split into two descendant groups
D)groups that got new names
Answer: C
Q3) The pattern component of the cell theory claims that all organisms consist of cells. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Water and Carbon: the Chemical Basis of Life
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Q1) Which of the following is not a property of liquid water?
A)Its density is greater than ice.
B)Its specific heat is higher than that of most other substances.
C)Its heat of vaporization is lower than that of most other substances.
D)It is polar.
Answer: C
Q2) The ability to sweat or pant is considered an adaptation.Why?
A)It allows a body to release excess water.
B)It allows a body to absorb heat,due to water's high specific heat.
C)It cools a body off,due to water's high heat of vaporization.
D)It is an important signal to others that an individual is too hot.
Answer: C
Q3) A solution with a pH of 5 has how many more protons in it than a solution with a pH of 7?
A)5 times
B)10 times
C)100 times
D)1,000 times
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Q1) HIV is the virus that causes AIDS.In the mid-1990s,researchers discovered an enzyme in HIV called protease.Once the enzyme's structure was known,researchers began looking for drugs that would fit into the active site and block it.If this strategy for stopping HIV infections were successful,it would be an example of what phenomenon?
A)vaccination
B)poisoning
C)allosteric regulation
D)competitive inhibition
Answer: D
Q2) If the primary structure of a protein is incorrect
A)the secondary structure will be correct.
B)the tertiary structure will be correct.
C)any quaternary structure will be correct.
D)any higher-level folding of the protein will be incorrect.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids and the Rna World
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Q1) What can be inferred about the free-energy profile for the self-cleavage reaction from the information provided in the paragraph?
A)It must be endergonic.
B)It must be exergonic.
C)It must be endothermic.
D)It must be exothermic.
Q2) What is responsible for holding the two strands together in the DNA double helix?
A)phosphodiester bonds
B)hydrogen bonds
C)ionic bonds
D)covalent bonds
Q3) Nucleic acids are polymers made up of which of the following monomers?
A)nucleotides
B)sugars
C)amino acids
D)nitrogenous bases
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Chapter 5: An Introduction to Carbohydrates
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Q1) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the hydrolysis of -glycosidic linkages in glycogen?
A)amylase
B)phosphorylase
C)glycolase
Q2) Which of the following structural features is common to cellulose,chitin,and peptidoglycan?
A)They are all composed of glucose in either the or form.
B)They all contain peptide bonds.
C)They can all form bonds between polymer chains that create parallel strands.
D)They all form highly branched fibers.
Q3) Cell walls are used by many different organisms for protection from their environment and structural support.These cell walls must obviously be insoluble in water,otherwise,they would dissolve the first time the organism got wet.Which of the following carbohydrates would you expect to be the most soluble in water?
A)starch
B)peptidoglycan
C)cellulose
D)chitin
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Lipids, membranes, and the First Cells
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Q1) What is the most important factor in explaining why osmosis occurs spontaneously?
A)It leads to an increase in entropy.
B)It leads to a decrease in entropy.
C)The process is exothermic.
D)The process is endothermic.
Q2) Which of the following is the best explanation for why cholesterol decreases the permeability of biological membranes?
A)Cholesterol binds to the outside surface of a membrane,thus blocking the movement of solutes.
B)Because cholesterol is amphipathic,it forms tiny vesicles that trap solutes.
C)Because cholesterol is amphipathic,it fits in between the phospholipids and blocks diffusion through the membrane.
D)Cholesterol has four rings in its structure that can sequester (trap)solutes.
Q3) Which of the following best describes how gramicidin functions?
A)It acts by active transport.
B)It causes membranes to fuse with one another.
C)It forms a channel in the membrane.
D)It removes electrical charges from solutes.
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Chapter 7: Inside the Cell
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Q1) Which of the following components would you expect to find in any type of living organism?
A)nucleus
B)chromosome
C)mitochondria
D)lysosome
E)microtubule
Q2) Which of the following organelles contains receptors for the products of the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
A)the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B)the lysosomes
C)the mitochondria
D)the peroxisomes
Q3) To what does the 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules,typical of cilia and eukaryotic flagella,refer?
A)the arrangement of dynein arms with respect to each microtubule
B)the arrangement of microtubules within the axoneme
C)the length of the structures
D)the relationship between the basal body and the axoneme
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Chapter 8: Cell-Cell Interactions
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Q1) Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas.When insulin binds to its receptor,which of the following will occur?
A)A G-protein will change its conformation to the "on" position thereby allowing the effector to be activated.
B)The G-protein will become active when GTP is replaced by GDP.
C)A receptor tyrosine kinase will change its conformation (i.e.form a dimer)thereby allowing phosphorylation to occur.
D)A receptor tyrosine kinase will dissociate into two monomers thereby allowing phosphorylation to occur.
Q2) The fact that a single signal-receptor complex results in the activation of several second messenger molecules enables the cell signal to be A)terminated.
B)reflected.
C)altered.
D)amplified.
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) Refer to Figure 9.2.Which reactant molecule becomes reduced in the following chemical reaction? Glyceraldehyde phosphate + NAD diphosphoglycerate + NADH + H
A)glyceraldehyde phosphate
B)the electrons
C)NAD
D)phosphate
Q2) What electron carrier(s)function in the Krebs cycle?
A)NAD only
B)both NAD and FAD
C)the electron transport chain
D)FAD only
Q3) Refer to Figure 9.1.What characteristic of this molecule (ATP)is responsible for its high energy level compared to AMP?
A)the nitrogen atoms in adenine
B)the phosphorus atoms in the phosphate groups
C)the C-H bonds of the ribose sugar
D)the closely spaced negative charges associated with the phosphate groups
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) In autumn,the leaves of deciduous trees change colors.This is because the chlorophyll is degraded,and
A)the carotenoids and other pigments are still present in the leaves.
B)degraded chlorophyll becomes a pigment with different colors.
C)water supply to the leaves has been reduced.
D)the cells of the leaves begin to die.
Q2) How does carbon fixation differ between C and C plants?
A)C plants undergo carbon fixation by carboxylation of a four-carbon substrate (oxaloacetate),while in C plants,a three-carbon compound (phosphoglycerate)is carboxylated.
B)Both C and C plants involve carboxylation of ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate by rubisco;but in C ,the first stable intermediate is 3-phosphoglycerate,and in C ,it is oxaloacetate.
C)C plants don't undergo photorespiration,but C plants do.
D)Rubisco is the primary enzyme that catalyzes carbon fixation in C plants,and phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase can catalyze carbon fixation in C plants.
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Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) How is plant cell cytokinesis different from animal cell cytokinesis?
A)The cleavage furrow in animal cells is composed of protein contractile filaments;the contractile filaments found in plant cells are structures composed of carbohydrates.
B)Plant cells deposit vesicles containing cell-wall building blocks on the metaphase plate;animal cells form a cleavage furrow.
C)The structural carbohydrates of the plant cells separate the two cells,whereas in animal cells,a cell membrane separates the two daughter cells.
D)Animal cells have centrosomes that are involved in this process,but plant cells have microtubular organizing centers that are not detectable during most of the cell cycle.
Q2) One reason cancer cells are easier to culture than normal cells extracted from an organism is that
A)cancer cells do not need to adhere to a substratum to grow.
B)nutrient requirements for cancer cells are precisely defined.
C)cancer cells are better models for demonstrating what happens in an intact organism.
D)cancer cells grow in a more regulated fashion.
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Chapter 12: Meiosis
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Q1) Genetic recombination takes place in which of the following processes?
A)anaphase I of meiosis
B)alignment of tetrads in metaphase I
C)crossing over
D)random alignment of homologous chromosomes in meiosis I
Q2) Chromosome number of hexaploid wheat,Triticum aestivum,can be represented by which of the following?
A)n
B)2n
C)4n
D)6n
Q3) Quaking aspen can send out underground stems.New trees can sprout from these stems.This is an example of what type of reproduction?
A)Sexual
B)Alternation of generations
C)Haploid
D)Asexual
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Chapter 13: Mendel and the Gene
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Q1) Assuming independent assortment for all gene pairs,what is the probability that the following parents,AABbCc × AaBbCc,will produce an AaBbCc offspring?
A)1/2
B)1/16
C)1/8
D)3/4
E)9/16
Q2) A black guinea pig crossed with an albino guinea pig produced 12 black offspring.When the albino was crossed with a second black animal,6 blacks and 6 albinos were obtained.What is the best explanation for this genetic situation?
A)Albino is recessive;black is dominant.
B)Albino is dominant;black is incompletely dominant.
C)Albino and black are codominant.
D)Albino is recessive;black is recessive.
E)None of the above applies.
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Chapter 14: Dna and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair
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Q1) In the polymerization of DNA,a phosphodiester bond is formed between a phosphate group of the nucleotide being added and ________ of the last nucleotide in the polymer.
A)ATP
B)C
C)the 3 OH
D)a nitrogen from the nitrogen-containing base
Q2) In humans,xeroderma pigmentosum is a disorder of the nucleotide excision repair mechanism.These individuals are unable to repair DNA damage caused by ultraviolet light.Which of the following are the most prominent types of mutations in individuals suffering from xeroderma pigmentosum?
A)mismatch errors
B)telomere shortening
C)methylation of purines
D)pyrimidine dimers
Q3) What is a telomere?
A)the mechanism that holds two sister chromatids together
B)the reorganization of the cell nucleus that takes place during telophase
C)the site of origin of DNA replication
D)the ends of linear chromosomes
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Chapter 15: How Genes Work
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Q1) Refer to Figure 15.5.Transfer RNA contains the anticodon XXX (three-base sequence that is complementary to the mRNA codon).tRNA with which anticodon would transport phenylalanine to the ribosome?
A)UUU
B)AAA
C)TTT
D)CCC
Q2) All three domains (Bacteria,Archaea,and Eukarya)follow the same genetic code.Which of the following statements would most likely be accurate given that information?
A)The genetic code evolved three times.
B)The genetic code evolved before DNA replaced RNA as the unit of genetic information.
C)There were no mutations following the evolution of the genetic code.
D)The genetic code evolved before the different domains diverged.
Q3) Homogentisic acid would accumulate under which of the following conditions?
A)a deficiency of p-hydroxyphenolypyruvate
B)defective enzyme 1
C)defective enzyme 2
D)a deficiency of 4-maleylacetoacetic acid
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Transcription, RNA Processing, and Translation
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Q1) What is inosine,and what role does it play in translation?
A)Inosine is a purine base that,when in an anticodon opposite the third base of a codon,provides flexibility in base pairing.
B)Inosine is a sugar that,when metabolized near a ribosome,provides energy for the formation of peptide bonds.
C)Inosine is an enzyme that,when linked to the active site of a ribosome,catalyzes the process of translocation.
D)Inosine is a regulatory molecule that,when bound to a ribonuclease,controls the rate of degradation of mRNA.
Q2) How does termination of translation take place?
A)The ribosome reaches the end of the mRNA molecule.
B)Stop codons with no corresponding tRNAs are read.
C)Hairpin turns of mRNA force the ribosome off the molecule.
D)Energy depletion causes termination.
Q3) Which of the following occurs in prokaryotes,but not eukaryotes?
A)post-transcriptional splicing
B)concurrent transcription and translation
C)translation in the absence of a ribosome
D)gene regulation
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Chapter 17: Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria
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Q1) A technique that can be used to identify mutant bacterial cells is called
A) indicator plating.
B)replica plating.
C)master plating.
D)comparison plating.
Q2) An E.coli cell without a functional lacI gene is expected to
A)never produce -galactosidase.
B)always produce -galactosidase.
C)be unable to transport lactose into the cell.
D)be unable to metabolize lactose within the cell.
Q3) CAP is said to be responsible for positive regulation of the lac operon because A)CAP binds cAMP.
B)CAP binds the CAP binding site.
C)CAP prevents binding of the repressor to the operator.
D)CAP bound to the CAP binding site increases the frequency of transcription initiation.
E)Extracellular glucose levels influence the ability of CAP to bind to the CAP binding site.
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Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) What is a key property of DNase that makes it useful for assessing whether chromatin is in a closed (tightly condensed)or open (loosely packed)configuration?
A)DNase is a protein.
B)DNase digests only mammalian DNA.
C)DNase preferentially digests DNA not associated with protein.
D)DNase cuts at specific DNA sequences.
Q2) A gene is a
A)protein-coding sequence of DNA.
B)sequence of DNA capable of directing the synthesis of a polypeptide.
C)sequence of DNA capable of directing the synthesis of one or more related polypeptides or RNAs.
D)sequence of DNA capable of directing the synthesis of one or more related biological molecules of any type.
Q3) Which of the following types of mutation would convert a proto-oncogene into an oncogene?
A)a mutation that blocks transcription of the proto-oncogene
B)a mutation that creates an unstable proto-oncogene mRNA
C)a mutation that greatly increases the amount of the proto-oncogene protein
D)a deletion of most of the proto-oncogene coding sequence
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Chapter 19: Analyzing and Engineering Genes
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Q1) Which of following sequences is most likely to be cut by a restriction enzyme?
A)AATCGT TTACGA
B)AATTCT TTAAGA
C)AATATT TTATAA
D)AAAATT TTTTAA
E)ACTACT TGATGA
Q2) Since dideoxy sequencing is based on the chain termination,why are normal deoxynucleotides also included in the reaction?
A)to enhance the chain termination ability of the deoxynucleotides
B)to provide a substrate for DNA polymerase
C)to produce a range of DNA synthesis products that terminate at every occurrence of a particular base
D)to create DNA synthesis products long enough to allow running a gel
Q3) Genetically engineered crops in the United States
A)may soon be ready for commercial planting.
B)have seen some limited commercial success.
C)are currently available only for rice.
D)are widespread for many major crop species.
E)are the only types of crops now being planted.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Genomics
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Q1) Which of the following questions is asked in functional genomics research?
A)What is the number of Drosophila genes?
B)How does the GC content of human DNA vary across the genome?
C)What is the pattern of gene expression during mouse development?
D)How many introns exist in the human CFTR gene?
E)How closely related are the visual pigment genes of mouse and human?
Q2) The discipline that manages,analyzes,and interprets the vast amounts of sequence data generated from whole genome sequencing is A)proteomics.
B)functional genomics.
C)evolutionary genomics.
D)bioinformatics.
Q3) Why are transposable elements considered to be selfish genes?
A)They produce products toxic to the host.
B)They replicate outside of the chromosome.
C)They replicate using the host's resources without direct benefit to the host.
D)They spread rapidly throughout the genome.
E)They produce products that prevent cooperation between cells.
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Chapter 21: Principles of Development
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Q1) Gastrulation is an important event in early embryonic development.Which of the following is NOT a result of this process?
A)formation of three embryonic cell layers
B)movement and alignment of many embryonic cells
C)determination of cell types as a result of cell-cell interactions
D)formation of specialized plant tissues
Q2) Which of the following is not an example of the process of apoptosis during organ and tissue development?
A)Death of cells between the toes in chicken embryos.
B)Leaves falling off trees in the fall.
C)Petals falling off flowers after pollination.
D)Lou Gehrig's disease
Q3) When the Bicoid protein is expressed in Drosophila,the embryo is still syncytial (divisions between cells are not yet fully developed).This helps to explain which observation by Nüsslein-Volhard and Wieschaus?
A)mRNA from the egg is translated into the Bicoid protein.
B)Bicoid protein diffuses throughout the embryo in a concentration gradient.
C)Bicoid protein serves as a transcription regulator.
D)Bicoid protein determines the dorsoventral axis of the embryo.
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Chapter 22: An Introduction to Animal Development
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Q1) Which of the following is the most basic process in the developing embryo because all of the other processes listed can occur only after or in conjunction with it?
A)organogenesis
B)cell differentiation
C)mitosis
D)morphogenesis
E)germ layer formation
Q2) Chordin is an organizer protein found only in the dorsal regions of Xenopus laevis embryos.An antibody to chordin might disrupt the determination of which structure?
A)central nervous system
B)digestive system
C)kidneys
D)lungs
Q3) The function of the acrosomal complex during fertilization is
A)to block polyspermy.
B)to dissolve the coating of the egg.
C)to nourish the sperm mitochondria.
D)to permit maximum sperm motility.
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Chapter 23: An Introduction to Plant Development
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Q1) Plant and animal development share a number of features,but differ in major ways as well.Which of the following best summarizes the similarities between the two forms of development?
A)Both plants and animals develop from a process of single fertilization.
B)Both plants and animals produce specialized tissues through irreversible processes of determination and differentiation.
C)Both plants and animals produce gametes via meiosis followed by mitosis of haploid cells.
D)Both plant and animal development depends on precise control of gene expression in time and in space.
Q2) Organs in developing flowers include all of the following EXCEPT A)whorls.
B)sepals.
C)petals.
D)carpels.
E)stamens.
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Chapter 24: Evolution by Natural Selection
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Q1) A farmer uses triazine herbicide to control pigweed in his field.For the first few years,the triazine works well and almost all the pigweed dies;but after several years,the farmer sees more and more pigweed.Which of these explanations best describes this observation?
A)The herbicide company lost its triazine formula and started selling poor-quality triazine.
B)Natural selection caused the pigweed to mutate,creating a new triazine-resistant species.
C)Triazine-resistant pigweed has less-efficient photosynthesis metabolism.
D)Only triazine-resistant weeds survived and reproduced,so each year more pigweed was triazine-resistant.
Q2) Which of the following is the best modern definition of evolution?
A)descent without modification
B)change in allele frequencies in a population over time
C)survival of the fittest
D)inheritance of acquired characters
Q3) Explain how one of the following supports the idea that species change through time: artificial selection,extinction,transitional forms,vestigial traits,or antibiotic resistance.
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Chapter 25: Evolutionary Processes
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Q1) In a population of parrots on an island,there is considerable variation in beak size.Parrots with small,thick beaks can efficiently eat locusts (insect),while birds with long,thin beaks can efficiently eat beetles.Both food types are available on the island.Which of the following types of selection,and effects on phenotypic variation would you expect to see?
A)Directional selection;phenotypic variation decreases.
B)Directional selection;phenotypic variation increases.
C)Disruptive selection;phenotypic variation decreases.
D)Disruptive selection;phenotypic variation is maintained.
E)Directional selection;phenotypic variation remains the same.
Q2) Mutation is the only evolutionary mechanism that
A)does little to change allele frequencies on its own.
B)always causes decreased fitness.
C)is more important in eukaryotes than in prokaryotes.
D)is not mentioned by the Hardy-Weinberg model.
E)has no effect on genetic variation.
Q3) Which of the following is true?
A)Hardy-Weinberg can be used to examine only 1 gene at a time.
B)Hardy-Weinberg considers an organism's entire genotype (all genes).
C)Hardy-Weinberg can be used to examine more than 1 gene at a time.
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Chapter 26: Speciation
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Q1) Male frogs give calls that attract female frogs to approach and mate.Researchers examined mating calls of closely related tree frogs in South America.What outcomes can occur where the ranges of two species overlap?
A)The species will interbreed,eventually fusing over time.
B)A stable hybrid zone will form if hybrids are better adapted to the area of overlap than either parent species is.
C)Species will continue to diverge and be isolated by behavioral or genetic mechanisms.
D)All of the above are possible outcomes.
E)None of the above are a possible outcome.
Q2) When the Isthmus of Panama formed,a land bridge resulted between North and South America.What opportunities for colonization did this land bridge offer?
A)colonization of the newly arisen land by organisms from North and South America
B)colonization of North America by organisms from South America
C)colonization of South America by organisms from North America
D)both B and C
E)all of the above
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Chapter 27: Phylogenies and the History of Life
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Q1) Applying the principle of parsimony to the trait "ability to fly," which of the two phylogenetic trees above is better?
A)Tree 1
B)Tree 2
C)Both trees are equally parsimonious.
Q2) Which statement best describes why the Cambrian explosion was important?
A)because good fossils from this period are available to study
B)because there was an explosion in animal abundance
C)because there was an explosion in ecological diversity among animals
D)because plant and animal fossils were found together for the first time
Q3) Your professor wants you to construct a phylogenetic tree of orchids.She gives you tissue from seven orchid species and one lily.What is the most likely reason she gave you the lily?
A)to serve as an out-group
B)to see if it's a cryptic orchid species
C)to see if the lily and the orchids show all the same shared derived characters (synapomorphies)
D)to see if you were paying attention
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29
Chapter 28: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the characteristic feature of the Chlamydiales phylum?
A)unusual flagella
B)formation of colonies
C)rod shape
D)parasitic life cycle
E)all of the above
Q2) Bacteria and Archaea are most easily distinguished from each other by their A)chromosome structure.
B)habitat.
C)transcription and translation mechanism.
D)reproduction method.
Q3) While examining a rock surface,you have discovered an interesting new organism.Which of the following criteria will allow you to classify the organism as belonging to Bacteria,but not Archaea or Eukarya?
A)It is unicellular.
B)Its cell walls are made primarily of peptidoglycan.
C)The organism does not have nucleus.
D)It can survive at a temperature over 100°C.
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Chapter 29: Protists
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consider the following points: (a)All excavates live in environments where oxygen availability is low;(b)all excavates lack mitochondria;and (c)all excavates have some mitochondrial genes.Based on this information,which of the following statements is true of the excavate lineage?
A)Their ancestors were eukaryotes that existed prior to the origin of mitochondria.
B)Their ancestors had mitochondria,but the mitochondria were lost over time.
C)Their ancestors were not able to metabolize glucose.
D)Excavates are in the process of acquiring mitochondria through evolutionary adaptation.
Q2) According to the endosymbiotic theory,why was it adaptive for the larger (host)cell to keep the engulfed cell alive,rather than digesting it as food?
A)The engulfed cell provided the host cell with ATP.
B)The engulfed cell provided the host cell with carbon dioxide.
C)The engulfed cell allowed the host cell to metabolize glucose.
D)The host cell was able to survive anaerobic conditions with the engulfed cell alive.
E)The host cell would have been poisoned if it had digested the engulfed cell.
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31
Chapter 30: Green Algae and Land Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group is the most diverse of the seedless vascular plants?
A)club mosses
B)horsetails
C)ferns
D)ginkgoes
Q2) Molecular phylogenies show all land plants are a monophyletic group.This suggests that
A)there were many different transitions from aquatic to terrestrial habitats.
B)wind-pollinated plants arose first.
C)land plants have undergone a diversification since they first colonized terrestrial habitats.
D)there was a single transition from aquatic to terrestrial habitats.
Q3) To perform this study,the researchers needed to count
A)the number of red flowers.
B)the number of pink and white flowers.
C)the number of hummingbirds.
D)the number of hawk moths.
E)All of these answers apply.
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32
Chapter 31: Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) Referring to Figure 31.3 (Simard et al.,1997-third-year seedlings only),shown above,was there a net transfer of carbon from plants in sunlight to plants in shade?
A)yes
B)no
Q2) You are a forester charged with increasing productivity in a South American forest newly planted with pines from Oregon.You believe that the southern forest lacks the fungal diversity needed by the North American pines,and that this lack of fungi is affecting the pines' productivity,but you have no evidence to support your ideas.
Describe what you believe would be the best method of providing the appropriate fungi to the newly transplanted pines described in the previous question.Be sure to identify the source of the fungi and the stage of the life cycle during which you would transport them.Also explain how you would introduce the fungi to their new home.Explain why you believe your method would work,including relevant elements of fungal biology.
Q3) The plants in graphs (b),(c),(e),and (f)have mycorrhizal associations.True or false?
A)True
B)False
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Page 33
Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following combinations of embryonic features is common in the deuterostomes?
A)spiral cleavage and the gastrulation pore (or gastropore)becomes the anus
B)radial cleavage and the gastropore becomes the mouth
C)absence of cleavage and gastropore becomes the anus
D)spiral cleavage and the absence of gastropore formation
E)radial cleavage and the gastropore becomes the anus
Q2) Limbs-especially jointed limbs-are an important evolutionary development because they allow animals to
A)inhabit aquatic environments.
B)develop an endoskeleton.
C)move quickly and precisely.
D)undergo complete metamorphosis.
E)have young disperse from sessile adults.
Q3) Which one of the following objects most closely resembles the pattern of the tube-within-a-tube body plan?
A)a bowling ball (with finger holes drilled)
B)a pipe with a straw inside
C)a cup with a straw in it
D)a soda can with the tab removed
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Chapter 33: Protostome Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) In arthropods,the hemocoel performs which of the following functions?
A)provides space for the internal organs to grow and function
B)allows for the circulation of bodily fluids
C)acts as a hydrostatic skeleton-for mobility-in larval stages
D)all of the above
Q2) Compare the graphs in Figure 33.2 of CO emission for Cormocephalus morsitans and Scutigerina weberi.What hypothesis can you make about each centipede's habitat?
A)C)morsitans lives in a habitat that provides more carbon dioxide than S.weberi.
B)C)morsitans lives in a habitat with more predators than S.weberi.
C)C)morsitans lives in a colder habitat than S.weberi.
D)C)morsitans lives in a dryer habitat than S.weberi.
Q3) Which one of these mollusc groups can be classified as suspension feeders?
A)bivalves
B)gastropods
C)chitons
D)cephalopods
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Deuterostome Animals
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Q1) How are hemichordates,urochordates,and cephalochordates similar?
A)All have motile larvae that become sessile adults.
B)All have pharyngeal gill slits at some point during development.
C)All produce amniotic eggs.
D)All have an endoskeleton of either bone or cartilage.
E)All have a notochord at some point during development.
Q2) When bone first evolved in vertebrates,what structure did it form?
A)an endoskeleton
B)an exoskeleton
C)a vertebrae
D)a skull
E)a jaw
Q3) Which one of these groups does not belong to the phylum Echinodermata?
A)sea cucumber
B)sea urchins
C)lancelets
D)basket stars
E)sand dollars
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Chapter 35: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The European spruce sawflies pose a potential threat to spruce forests.In order for the Baculoviruses to kill the larva,which of the following must occur first?
A)The viral polyhedra,must be digested to release viral particles.
B)Viral polyhedra must fuse with intestinal cells.
C)Viral particles must enter into the host's nucleus for transcription and replication.
D)Viral particles must be digested by gut proteases.
Q2) The HIV protease has been the target of several anti-HIV medications.This antiviral strategy is possible because
A)the HIV protease is easily precipitated out of the cell by combining with certain salt solutions.
B)the HIV protease cleaves at specific places in viral polypeptides,which results in the formation of active viral proteins.
C)these drugs are very specific to the active site of the HIV protease.
D)both A and B apply.
E)both B and C apply.
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Chapter 36: Plant Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The center of many stems contains only parenchyma cells;it is therefore best called a
A)simple tissue.
B)complex tissue.
C)dermal tissue.
D)vascular tissue.
E)meristematic tissue.
Q2) What is present in a shoot apical meristem region?
A)the region of cell division
B)immature buds and leaves
C)the potential growth for the growing season
D)all of the above
Q3) Explain why it is possible for big old hollow trees to live and grow for many years,still producing green leaves.
Q4) What is the advantage of having small,needlelike leaves?
A)increase in transpiration rate
B)decrease in transpiration rate
C)increased efficiency of light capture
D)decreased efficiency of light capture
E)better protection against insects and herbivore
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Chapter 37: Water and Sugar Transport in Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Loss of water from the aerial parts of plants is called
A)pressure flow.
B)cohesion-tension.
C)respiration.
D)evaporation.
E)transpiration.
Q2) Formation of menisci,such as occurs in a tube filled with water,is an important factor in plant water movement.A meniscus is created by
A)the downward pull of gravity on the water column in the tube.
B)downward pressure from the atmosphere on the topmost layer of water molecules.
C)the water molecules along the walls of the tube being pulled upward by adhesion.
D)the topmost layer of water molecules being pulled downward by the water molecules below.
Q3) Which of the following is a similarity between xylem and phloem transport?
A)Many cells in both tissues have sieve plates.
B)Expenditure of energy from ATP is required.
C)Transpiration is required for both processes.
D)Bulk flow of water is involved.
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Chapter 38: Plant Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which elements are responsible for the greater part of plant wet weight?
A)carbon,nitrogen,oxygen
B)carbon,nitrogen,phosphorus
C)carbon,oxygen,hydrogen
D)oxygen,hydrogen,phosphorus
E)oxygen,hydrogen,nitrogen
Q2) What is phytoremediation?
A)use of plants as medicine
B)use of plants in alternative medicine
C)use of plants to reduce soil erosion
D)use of plants to clean up contaminated soil and water
Q3) After mutagenesis,the bacteria Sinorhizobium meliloti became unable to colonize Medicago truncatula plants due to the absence of recognition by the host plant.Which of the following genes is most likely the site of mutation?
A)nitrogenase
B)flavonoid-synthesizing enzyme
C)Nod factors
D)leghemoglobin
E)peptidoglycans of the bacterial cell wall
Q4) Give two reasons that relatively few plants thrive in bogs.
Page 40
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Chapter 39: Plant Sensory Systems, signals, and Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) You discover a chemical that inhibits the conversion of starch to sugar and inhibits the breakdown of chlorophyll and cellulose in fruit.Who might be interested in buying this chemical?
A)grocers,to spray on fruit to enhance ripening in the store
B)farmers,to spray on fruit after picking to stall ripening
C)consumers,to spray on fruit before eating to enhance taste
D)all of the above
Q2) You are out working in your garden,and you notice that one of your favorite flowering plants has black,dead spots on the leaves.You immediately suspect that the plant has been invaded by a pathogen and has initiated a
A)avirulence response.
B)pathogenic response.
C)hypersensitive response.
D)resistance response.
E)virulence response.
Q3) The cells that have phosphorylated phototropin receptors elongate in response to blue light.
A)true
B)false
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Plant Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the male gametophyte made of?
A)polar nuclei and embryo sac
B)polar nuclei and tube cell
C)generative cell and two gametes
D)generative cell and tube cell
E)microspores
Q2) Before plowing a field,a farmer thought the bare field looked weed-free.Three days after plowing and turning over the soil,he was amazed to see thousands of tiny seedlings.What kinds of seeds did the plowing help with germination?
A)large seeds that need winter in order to germinate
B)small seeds that need light in order to germinate
C)seeds that need exhaust from the tractor in order to germinate
D)large seeds that need less water in order to germinate
Q3) If a hypocotyl does not elongate during seed germination and early seedling growth,where will the cotyledons be?
A)aboveground and above the seed
B)aboveground and below the seed
C)in the ground with the seed coat
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42
Chapter 41: Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Torpor has evolved in several high-latitude species even though it is energetically expensive.Why does this adaptation require a large energy input for those species that utilize this function?
A)These animals expend a great deal of metabolic energy to maintain their body temperature as the ambient temperatures drop.
B)It takes a great deal of energy to stay alive when the body temperature drops to near ambient levels.
C)During torpor,animals undergo excessive shivering to maintain their body temperature.
D)Animals in torpor lower their body temperature dramatically and require a great deal of energy to bring the body temperature back up to normal.
Q2) Which term best describes an animal that,although generating a significant amount of heat through metabolism,nonetheless does not maintain a constant body temperature?
A)homeothermic endotherm
B)heterothermic ectotherm
C)homeothermic ectotherm
D)heterothermic endotherm
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Chapter 42: Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) In flour beetles and desert locusts,how is water conserved?
A)The pre-urine formed in the Malpighian tubules is hypertonic.
B)Urine that is formed is isotonic to hemolymph,but the muscle cells surrounding spiracles of these organisms are able to significantly limit water loss due to respiration.
C)Water is transported into hindgut cells through endocytosis.
D)Sodium and chloride are actively transported out of pre-urine,and water follows,forming a hypertonic urine.
Q2) Different habitats pose certain challenges to animal survival.For instance,terrestrial insects must maintain water balance by minimizing evaporation.How do insects minimize water loss?
A)Keep the spiracles open.
B)Eat more plant material that is high in water content.
C)Have a cuticle covered by a waxy hydrophobic layer.
D)Excrete nitrogenous waste as urea.
Q3) On a very hot,dry day,you lose ________ through the skin.
A)water and electrolytes
B)water only
C)heat only
D)electrolytes only
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the person consumes 2500 calories daily to maintain body weight,what percentage of the RDA for iron would this person receive from a serving of apple juice?
A)20%
B)less than 20%
C)more than 20%
Q2) Food labels provide nutrient information and express the amount of a given nutrient as
A)a percentage of the Recommended Dietary Allowances.
B)International Units.
C)percent composition of the food product.
D)calories.
Q3) Following a meal high in starch,digestive processes break the starch into ________,which when absorbed into circulation cause a release of the hormone ________.
A)amino acids;glucagon
B)free fatty acids;cholecystokinin
C)glucose;glucagon
D)glucose;insulin
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45
Chapter 44: Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following result,either directly or indirectly,when carbonic anhydrase is functioning properly?
A)The amount of oxygen released by hemoglobin decreases.
B)The amount of carbon dioxide diffusing into red blood cells increases.
C)The pH of capillary blood decreases.
D)Only A and B are true.
E)Only B and C are true.
Q2) When you are jogging,your muscles are using more oxygen and releasing more carbon dioxide into the blood than when you are at home on the couch.Which of the following would occur during your jog?
A)Blood pH would increase by at least 1 pH unit.
B)The concentration of bicarbonate ions (HCO )in the blood would decrease.
C)The medullary respiratory center would increase the rate of breathing.
D)All of the above answers apply.
Q3) Which of the following functions is not a function of insect hemolymph?
A)transport of hormones
B)transport of wastes
C)transport of carbon dioxide
D)transport of cells involved in the immune response
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Electrical Signals in Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a person were to have a stroke in the occipital lobe of the cerebrum,which of the following functions would most likely be affected?
A)sense of touch
B)sense of taste
C)sense of sight
D)sense of hearing
Q2) How do myelin sheaths increase the speed with which action potentials are propagated along an axon?
A)They increase the permeability of Na ions in the plasma membrane.
B)They amplify the action potential by increasing sodium influx along the entire distance of the neuron.
C)They cause action potentials to "jump" down the axon rather than travel in a continuous path along every site on the axon.
D)All of the above answers apply.
Q3) Neurotransmitter is released
A)in response to an action potential depolarizing the presynaptic membrane.
B)when threshold potential is reached.
C)when enough voltage-gated sodium channels open.
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Chapter 46: Animal Sensory Systems and Movement
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Sample Questions
Q1) How could you genetically modify an animal so that it would distinguish more shades of green?
A)Induce genes to produce a greater number of cone cells in the fovea.
B)Introduce genes for different opsins that respond in the green region of the spectrum.
C)Introduce genes to produce green fluid in the eyeball,because green fluids will not absorb green light.
D)Induce increased production of cGMP to increase opening of cGMP-gated sodium channels.
Q2) The amount of depolarization that occurs in a sound-receptor cell is proportional to the volume (loudness)of the sound.
A)true
B)false
Q3) What causes rigor mortis?
A)exhaustion of Ca² from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B)lack of ATP in dead tissue
C)lack of acetylcholine (ACh)in dead tissue
D)cessation of action potentials after death
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Chapter 47: Chemical Signals in Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) When partially digested food enters the small intestine from the stomach,several events must occur to protect the intestine and allow for the continued digestion of the food.One hormone in particular performs two of these functions.What intestinal hormone is responsible for causing the pancreas to release digestive enzymes and the gall bladder to release bile salts into the intestine?
A)secretin
B)cholecystokinin
C)insulin
D)epinephrine
E)corticosterone
Q2) Removing which of the following glands would have the most wide-reaching effect on bodily functions of an adult human?
A)adrenal glands
B)pituitary gland
C)thyroid gland
D)ovaries (in female)or testes (in male)
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Chapter 48: Animal Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are studying two species of birds,both of which form monogamous pairs (one male and one female).In species 1,you find that the eggs in a pair's nest are in fact almost always the offspring of that pair.In species 2,you are surprised to find that many of the eggs in a nest were actually fathered by males of neighboring pairs.Apparently,mating outside of monogamous pairings is widespread in species 2.Given this information,what would be the logical prediction to make before comparing testis size of males of the two species?
A)Testes of species 1 are larger than testes of species 2.
B)Testes of species 2 are larger than testes of species 1.
C)There is no relationship between this observation and the size of testes.
Q2) Asexual reproduction results in offspring that are genetically identical to their parent.What type of cell division occurs to generate this type of offspring?
A)mitosis
B)meiosis
C)A and B in combination
D)none of the above
Q3) All vertebrates rely exclusively on sexual reproduction.
A)true
B)false
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Page 50
Chapter 49: The Immune System in Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following components of the immune system destroys bacteria in a way similar to an antitank weapon destroying armored military tanks by punching holes in the wall of the bacteria?
A)complement protein
B)macrophages
C)plasma cells
D)major histocompatibility complex proteins
Q2) You are playing a new video game that is based on the human immune system.The player is inside a human,and you must successfully fend off invading pathogens in a quest to find the "Golden Antibody." At level 1,your arsenal for fighting off pathogens consists only of the innate immunity leukocytes and their various secretions.If the enemy has killed off most of your neutrophils and macrophages,which of the following should you utilize to recruit more of these leukocytes to the battle?
A)histamine
B)platelets
C)reactive oxygen species
D)cytokines
E)bone marrow
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Chapter 50: An Introduction to Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The carnivorous pitcher plant is successful in bog habitats because
A)it can tolerate lack of oxygen in the bog water.
B)it can tolerate the high acidity of the bog water.
C)it can gain nitrogen in an unusual way.
D)it can gain oxygen in an unusual way.
Q2) Using the Bhatla et al.(2004)reference and your knowledge about the Hadley cell,would you expect a difference in thermodynamic parameters with monsoon magnitude and variability with latitude?
A)yes
B)no
Q3) What is the main reason that climatic conditions on Mercury differ from those on Earth?
A)planet size
B)existence of plant life
C)average distance from the Sun
D)existence of an atmosphere
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Chapter 51: Behavioural Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conclusions is most logical based on the data above?
A)Females produce more eggs more quickly when exposed to breeding males.
B)Females produce eggs more quickly when exposed to many males.
C)All non-isolated females do just as well as isolated females.
D)All of the above answers apply.
Q2) How could you test whether male dewlaps (a colourful flap of skin hanging from an anole lizard's throat)were an important cue for female egg production?
A)Remove dewlaps from females and measure corresponding egg production.
B)Relate size of male dewlap to female dewlap.
C)Remove dewlaps from courting males and measure corresponding female egg production.
D)All of the above answers apply.
Q3) Which of the animals listed below is best known for migration using chemotaxis?
A)pigeons
B)arctic terns
C)salmon
D)monarch butterflies
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Chapter 52: Population Ecology
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Q1) The study of factors that determine the size and structure of populations through time is called
A)population ecology.
B)immigration.
C)demography.
D)populations.
Q2) The regular fluctuations in size of animal populations are termed
A)population cycles.
B)population dynamics.
C)growth factors.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Based on the graphs in the figure above from the Park Grass study,which species declines in population over time?
A)Tragopogon pratensis
B)Trifolium pratense
C)Conopodium majus
D)All species populations decline at some point in time.
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Community Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the figure above,which of the following statements is true?
A)All of the species of insects shown are in the order Hymenoptera.
B)There are no true mimics in the insects shown.
C)All of the insects are displaying Batesian mimicry.
D)Half of the insects shown are harmless.
Q2) During succession,tall canopies of maple trees form allowing chipmunks to be better hidden against hawks.This is an example of A)interaction.
B)tolerance.
C)inhibition.
D)facilitation.
Q3) In the figure above,which community has the highest species diversity?
A)community 1
B)community 2
C)community 3
D)community 4
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Chapter 54: Ecosystems
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Q1) Which of the following is not a source of human-fixed nitrogen?
A)industrially produced fertilizers
B)cultivation of soybeans
C)combustion of fossil fuels
D)irrigation agriculture
Q2) Which of the following consume other living organisms?
A)primary producers
B)herbivores
C)carnivores
D)decomposers
E)Both B and C
Q3) Considering the global nitrogen cycle depicted in the figure above,what is the limiting portion of the cycle for plants?
A)industrial nitrogen fixation
B)nitrogen lost to the atmosphere
C)internal nitrogen cycling in the oceans
D)nitrogen fixation by bacteria
Q4) How are the components in the figure above linked by the flow of energy?
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Chapter 55: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) By knowing the interrelatedness of various snake species,the type of antivenom can be chosen depending on the species involved in the bite.Based on Figure 55.2,which snake antivenom would you administer to a person bitten by an Australian copperhead?
A)taipan
B)common brown snake
C)red-bellied black snake
D)death adder
E)tiger snake
Q2) Based on Figure 55.9,what can you conclude about land-use legacy in New England?
A)Population growth has increasingly devastated the forests.
B)A spike in lake sediments caused massive deforestation due to loss of soil nutrients.
C)Sediment spikes correlate with massive population growth.
D)Lake sediments reflect deforestation and despite reforestation,do not recover.
E)All of the above answers apply.
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