Science for Health Professions Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Science for Health Professions introduces students to the fundamental scientific concepts essential for understanding health and disease. The course emphasizes the application of biology, chemistry, and physics to the human body, exploring topics such as cellular biology, genetics, human anatomy and physiology, biochemistry, and microbiology. Students will develop critical thinking and problem-solving skills through case studies and laboratory exercises, fostering a deeper appreciation for evidence-based practice. Designed for those entering health-related fields, the course prepares students to integrate scientific principles in clinical settings and supports lifelong learning in health professions.
Recommended Textbook
General Chemistry Principles and Modern Applications 11th Edition by Ralph H. Petrucci
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28 Chapters
3323 Verified Questions
3323 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Matter: Its Properties and Measurement
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136 Verified Questions
136 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gasoline is an example of:
A)a compound
B)an element
C)a heterogeneous mixture
D)a homogeneous mixture
Answer: D
Q2) The scientific method is used to make theories that can no longer be changed.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) What is the correct answer,with the proper number of significant figures,for the following calculation?
6.3 × 3.78
Answer: 24
Q4) Gold is an example of:
A)a compound
B)an element
C)a heterogeneous mixture
D)a homogeneous mixture
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Atoms and the Atomic Theory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following elements is a gas at room temperature?
A)bromine
B)carbon C)helium
D)sodium
Answer: C
Q2) Robert Millikan determined the charge on an electron. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Copper occurs in an isotopic mixture of 69.09% <sup>63</sup>Cu (mass = 62.93 u per atom)and 30.91% <sup>65</sup>Cu (mass = 64.93 u per atom).What is the average atomic mass of copper?
A)64.00 u
B)63.55 u
C)63.45 u
D)64.31 u
E)29.00 u
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 4: Chemical Reactions
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170 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If 294 grams of FeS<sub>2</sub> is allowed to react with 176 grams of O<sub>2</sub> according to the following unbalanced equation,how many grams of Fe<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub> are produced?
FeS<sub>2</sub> + O<sub>2</sub> Fe<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub> + SO<sub>2</sub>
Q2) Sodium metal and water react to form hydrogen and sodium hydroxide.If 5.98 g of sodium react with water to form 0.26 g of hydrogen and 10.40 g of sodium hydroxide,what mass of water was involved in the reaction?
A)4.68 g
B)5.98 g
C)10.14 g
D)10.66 g
Q3) Stoichiometric factor relates the amounts,in moles,of any two substances involved in chemical reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How many grams of CH<sub>3</sub>OH must be added to water to prepare 150 mL of a solution that is 2.0 mol L<sup>-1</sup> CH<sub>3</sub>OH?
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Chapter 5: Introduction to Reactions in Aqueous Solutions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following compounds is insoluble in water?
A)K<sub>2</sub>Br<sub> </sub>
B)NaNO<sub>3</sub>
C)AgBr<sub> </sub>
D)Rb<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>
Q2) Balance the following equation for an oxidation-reduction reaction occurring in an acidic solution:
HNO<sub>3</sub>(aq)+ I<sub>2</sub>(s) HIO<sub>3</sub>(aq)+ NO<sub>2</sub>(g)+ H<sub>2</sub>O(l)
The sum of the coefficients is ________.
A)26
B)27
C)28
D)33
E)45
Q3) An oxidizing agent is reduced during a redox reaction.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What volume would be occupied by a mixture of 0.33 g of hydrogen gas and 0.67 g of nitrogen gas at 157 °C and 4.4 atm?
A)12 L
B)4.2 L
C)3.1 L
D)1.5 L
E)0.55 L
Q2) In a sample of air at STP,the ratio of the root-mean-square velocity of O<sub>2</sub> to that of N<sub>2</sub>,that is u<sub>rms</sub>(O<sub>2</sub>)/u<sub>rms</sub>(N<sub>2</sub>),is equal to
A)0.88
B)0.94
C)1.00
D)1.07
E)1.14
Q3) The statement,"For a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature,gas volume is inversely proportional to gas pressure" is known as Charles' Law.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Electrons in Atoms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following subshells is correctly designated?
A)1p<sup>5 </sup>
B)3s<sup>3 </sup>
C)3f<sup>2 </sup>
D)4d<sup>11 </sup>
E)2p<sup>6 </sup>
Q2) The Bohr theory explains that an emission spectral line is due to an electron losing energy but keeping the same values of its four quantum numbers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are the possible values of n and m<sub>l</sub> for an electron in a 4p orbital?
A)n = 1,2,3,or 4 and m<sub>l</sub> = 1
B)n = 1,2,3,or 4 and m<sub>l</sub> = -2,-1,0,+1,or +2
C)n = 4 and m<sub>l</sub> = 1
D)n = 4 and m<sub>l</sub> = -1,0,+1
Q4) Four of the 3d orbitals are alike except for the orientation with respect to the axes.
A)True
B)False
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Page 10
Chapter 9: The Periodic Table and Some Atomic Properties
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Sample Questions
Q1) Polarizability decreases with the size of the atom.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following represents the change in electronic configuration that is associated with the first ionization energy of strontium?
A)[Kr]5s<sup>1</sup>5p<sup>1</sup> [Kr]5s<sup>1</sup> + e<sup>-</sup>
B)[Kr]5s<sup>2</sup> [Kr]5s<sup>1</sup>5p<sup>1</sup>
C)[Kr]5s<sup>2</sup> [Kr]5s<sup>1</sup> + e<sup>-</sup>
D)[Kr]5s<sup>2</sup> + e<sup>-</sup> [Kr]5s<sup>2</sup>5p<sup>1</sup>
Q3) Of the following,which element has the highest first ionization energy?
A)beryllium
B)boron
C)carbon
D)lithium
Q4) Which of the following has the largest radius?
A)Se<sup>2- </sup>
B)Kr
C)Rb<sup>+ </sup>
D)Br<sup>- </sup>
E)Y<sup>3+ </sup>
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Chemical Bonding I: Basic Concepts
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be properly classified as a set of covalent molecules?
A)NaClO<sub>4</sub>,C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub>,NH<sub>3 </sub>
B)NaCl,CH<sub>4</sub>,S<sub>8 </sub>
C)CO<sub>2</sub>,HCN,O<sub>2 </sub>
D)CO<sub>2</sub>,NH<sub>4</sub>Cl,C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6 </sub>
E)AgCl,ScF<sub>3</sub>,P<sub>4 </sub>
Q2) Given the bond enthalpies C-O (360),C =O (707),O =O (498),H-O (464),C-H (414),all in kJ/mol,estimate H° for the following reaction: CH<sub>3</sub>OCH<sub>3</sub>(g)+ 3 O<sub>2</sub>(g) 2 CO<sub>2</sub>(g)+ 3 H<sub>2</sub>O(g).
A)-2332 kJ/mol
B)-242 kJ/mol
C)870 kJ/mol
D)-2106 kJ/mol
E)-914 kJ/mol
Q3) In a Lewis structure,a terminal atom is bonded to two or more atoms.
A)True
B)False
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12
Chapter 11: Chemical Bonding Ii: Valence Bond and
Molecular Orbital Theories
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104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The octahedral hybrid configuration is composed of which orbital combination?
A)sp<sup>3</sup><sup>d</sup><sup>2 </sup>
B)sp<sup>2</sup><sup>d</sup><sup>3 </sup>
C)spd<sup>2 </sup>
D)sp<sup>3</sup><sup>d </sup>
E)sp<sup>3 </sup>
Q2) How many bonds and how many bonds are present in the carbonic acid molecule,H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>?
A)2 /4
B)3 /3
C)4 /2
D)5 /1
E)6 /0
Q3) Choose the INCORRECT statement about AsF<sub>6</sub><sup>-</sup>.
A)The hybridization is sp<sup>3</sup><sup>d</sup><sup>2</sup>.
B)The molecule is octahedral.
C)There are no bonds.
D)There is one lone pair of electrons.
E)There are six bonds.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Intermolecular Forces: Liquids and Solids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about viscosity are true:
I.Viscosity is liquid's resistance to flow.
II.Viscosity decreases with a decrease in temperature.
III.Viscosity is not related to the forces between molecules in a liquid.
IV.Viscous liquids have low rate flows.
A)I and IV
B)I and III
C)I and II
D)II and IV
E)III and IV
Q2) Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing boiling point: I.1-propanol,CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH; II.1,2-propanediol,CH<sub>3</sub>CH(OH)CH<sub>2</sub>OH; III.1,2,3-propanetriol, (glycerol),HOCH<sub>2</sub>CH(OH)CH<sub>2</sub>OH.
A)II,III,I
B)I,II,III
C)III,I,II
D)III,II,I
E)I,III,II
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Spontaneous Change: Entropy and Gibbs Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) For the reaction PCl<sub>5</sub> (g) PCl<sub>3</sub> (g)+ Cl<sub>2</sub> (g),K<sub>c</sub> = 0.0454 at 261 °C.If a vessel is filled with theses gases such that the initial concentrations are [PCl<sub>5</sub>] = 0.2 M,[PCl<sub>3</sub>] = 0.2 M,and [Cl<sub>2</sub>] = 2.25 M,which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)the reaction is at equilibrium
B)the forward reaction is spontaneous
C)the reverse reaction is spontaneous
D)the forward reaction is exothermic
E)the reverse reaction is exothermic
Q2) Choose the INCORRECT statement.
A)One form of the second law of thermodynamics is all spontaneous processes produce an increase in the entropy of the universe.
B)Gibbs energy is defined by: G = H - TS.
C)If G < 0,the process is spontaneous.
D)If G > 0,the process is nonspontaneous.
E)If G = 0,the process is spontaneous.
Q3) If a process is spontaneous,the reverse process is non spontaneous.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Solutions and Their Physical Properties
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Sample Questions
Q1) What mass in grams of a molecular substance (molar mass = 50.0 g/mol)must be added to 500 g of water to produce a solution that boils at 101.56 °C? [K<sub>b(water)</sub> = 0.512 °C m<sup>-1</sup>]
A)76.2 g
B)150.0 g
C)100.0 g
D)30.0 g
E)152.4 g
Q2) What is the osmotic pressure in mmHg of 6.00 L of a 0.108 M solution at 30 °C if three moles of ions are produced in aqueous solution for every mole of solute dissolved?
A)8.05 mmHg
B)3.68 × 10<sup>4 </sup>mmHg
C)2.04 × 10<sup>3 </sup>mmHg
D)0.0612 mmHg
E)6.12 × 10<sup>3 </sup>mmHg
Q3) In the solution,a solute is present in the greatest quantity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Principles of Chemical Equilibrium
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Sample Questions
Q1) The equilibrium constant,K<sub>p</sub>,equals 3.40 for the isomerization reaction: Cis-2-butene trans-2-butene
If a flask initially contains 0.250 bar of cis-2-butene and 0.165 bar of trans-2-butene,what is the equilibrium pressure of each gas?
A)P(cis-2-butene)= 0.0485 bar and P(trans-2-butene)= 0.165 bar
B)P(cis-2-butene)= 0.0458 bar and P(trans-2-butene)= 0.156 bar
C)P(cis-2-butene)= 0.0735 bar and P(trans-2-butene)= 0.250 bar
D)P(cis-2-butene)= 0.0943 bar and P(trans-2-butene)= 0.321 bar
Q2) In a system in equilibrium,two opposing reactions occur at equal rates.
A)True
B)False
Q3) For the reaction 2 NO<sub>2</sub>(g)
N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub>(g)K<sub>p</sub> equals ________.
A)K<sub>c</sub><sub> </sub>
B)RT/K<sub>c </sub>
C)K<sub>c</sub>(RT)
D)K<sub>c</sub>/RT
E)K<sub>c</sub>(RT)<sup>2</sup>
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Acids and Bases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 0.505 g sample of a monoprotic base (mm = 45.09 g/mol)was dissolved in water to produce 100.0 mL of solution with a pH = 11.84.What is the ionization constant of this base?
A)4.3 × 10<sup>-5</sup>
B)1.9 × 10<sup>-23</sup>
C)4.3 × 10<sup>-4</sup>
D)3.4 × 10<sup>-1</sup>
E)1.3 × 10<sup>-11</sup>
Q2) CO<sub>2</sub> acts as an acid in the reaction CaO(s)+ CO<sub>2</sub>
CaCO<sub>3</sub>(s)because it ________.
A)turns blue litmus red
B)reacts with a metal
C)is a proton donor
D)is an electron-pair acceptor
E)is a gas containing a non-metal
Q3) When comparing binary acids of the elements in the same row of the periodic table,acid strength increases as the polarity of the element-hydrogen bond increases.
A)True
B)False
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Additional Aspects of Acidbase Equilibria
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Sample Questions
Q1) What factor governs the selection of an indicator for a neutralization titration?
A)the final volume of the solution
B)the volume of titrant
C)the molarity of the standard solution
D)the pH at the stoichiometric (equivalence)point
E)the solubility of the indicator
Q2) Twenty-five milliliters of 0.10 M HCl(aq)is titrated with 0.10 M NaOH(aq).What is the pH after 15 mL of NaOH(aq)has been added?
A)1.4
B)1.2
C)1.0
D)2.0
E)1.6
Q3) It is easier to calculate the pH of an aqueous solution of sodium carbonate than for sodium hydrogen carbonate because there is only one hydrolysis reaction instead of two.
A)True
B)False
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19
Chapter 18: Solubility and Complex-Ion Equilibria
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the free Ag<sup>+</sup>(aq)concentration of 0.020 M Ag<sup>+</sup>(aq)solution mixed with an equal volume of 2.0 M NH<sub>3</sub>(aq)? K<sub>f</sub> for [Ag(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>]<sup>+</sup> is 1.6 × 10<sup>7</sup>.
A)1.3 × 10<sup>-10 </sup>M
B)2.0 × 10<sup>-14 </sup>M
C)6.3 × 10<sup>-8 </sup>M
D)6.5 × 10<sup>-10 </sup>M
E)3.1 × 10<sup>-10 </sup>M
Q2) The solubility of magnesium fluoride is 1.17 × 10<sup>-3</sup> M.Find the value of K<sub>sp</sub> for this compound.
A)1.17 × 10<sup>-3 </sup>
B)(1.17 × 10<sup>-3</sup>)<sup>2 </sup>
C)4(1.17 × 10<sup>-3</sup>)<sup>3 </sup>
D)(1.17 × 10<sup>-3</sup>)<sup>3 </sup>
E)3(1.17 × 10<sup>-3</sup>)<sup>3 </sup>
Q3) Fractional precipitation is a method to precipitate only part of the concentration of an ion.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Electrochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) A solution of Al(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>(aq)is electrolyzed by passing 144 A of current for 102 min.What mass of aluminum plates out?
A)27.4 g
B)760 g
C)82.1 g
D)2.3 g
E)75.3 g
Q2) Given the following half-reactions occurring in the silver-zinc hearing aid battery,calculate the voltage at 25 °C of this battery. ZnO(s)+ H<sub>2</sub>O(l)+ 2 e<sup>-</sup> Zn(s)+ 2 OH<sup>-</sup>(aq)E° = -1.260 V
Ag<sub>2</sub>O(s)+ H<sub>2</sub>O(l)+ 2 e<sup>-</sup> 2 Ag(s)+ 2 OH<sup>-</sup>(aq)E° = +0.342 V
A)+1.602 V
B)+1.402 V
C)+0.858 V
D)-0.858 V
E)-1.602 V
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Chapter 20: Chemical Kinetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the main difference between a Pt catalyst and an enzyme catalyst?
A)An enzyme has greater substrate specificity.
B)The Pt catalyst causes a faster reaction.
C)The enzyme causes a faster reaction.
D)A Pt catalyst is always a homogeneous catalyst.
E)A Pt catalyst is an enzyme.
Q2) A factor that decreases the activation energy for a reaction:
I.decreases the rate constant
II.increases the rate constant
III.has no effect on the rate constant
IV.increases the product yield
V.might be a catalyst
A)I and IV
B)II and IV
C)I,IV,and V
D)IV and III
E)II and V
Q3) Temperature has no effect on reaction rate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Chemistry of the Main-Group Elements I:
Groups 1,2,13,and 14
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tl is different from Al,Ga,and In in that:
A)Tl has a much different electronegativity
B)Tl has a much different first ionization energy
C)Tl commonly forms compounds with +1 oxidation state
D)Tl forms metal hydroxides that are amphoteric
E)Tl commonly forms compounds with +3 oxidation state
Q2) Strontium hydroxide is classified as "basic."
A)True
B)False
Q3) What mass of potassium superoxide could be prepared from 15.6 g of potassium metal and excess oxygen?
A)37.6 g
B)15.6 g
C)22.0 g
D)28.4 g
E)0.399 g
Q4) The atomic radius of calcium is smaller than that of strontium.
A)True
B)False
23
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Chapter 22: Chemistry of the Main-Group Elements Ii:
Groups 18,17,16,15,and Hydrogen
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ozone and "ordinary" oxygen are examples of:
A)allotropes
B)isotopes
C)isomers
D)phalaropes
E)tropomers
Q2) Halogen molecules are diatomic.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Write the equation for commercially extracting bromine from seawater.
A)Br<sub>2</sub>(l)+ 2 Cl(aq) Cl<sub>2</sub>(g)+ 2 Br<sup>-</sup>(aq)
B)2 Br<sup>-</sup>(aq)+ I<sub>2</sub>(s) Br<sub>2</sub>(l)+ 2 I<sup>-</sup>(aq)
C)4 Br<sup>-</sup>(aq)+ Cl<sub>2</sub>(g) Br<sub>2</sub>(l)+ 2 BrCl(aq)
D)2 Br<sup>-</sup>(aq)+ F<sub>2</sub>(g) Br<sub>2</sub>(l)+ 2 F<sup>-</sup>(aq)
E)2 Br<sup>-</sup>(aq)+ Cl<sub>2</sub>(g) Br<sub>2</sub>(l)+ 2 Cl<sup>-</sup>(aq)
Q4) Nitrogen is obtained from air by fractional distillation.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Transition Elements
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Sample Questions
Q1) What volume of carbon monoxide,measured at 1200 °C and 720 Torr,would be released when 5.0 kg of an ore containing 45% zinc oxide as the only reacting species is treated with excess carbon? [ZnO(s)+ C(s) Zn(s)+ CO(g)]
A)1.2 × 10<sup>2</sup> L
B)1.5 × 10<sup>3</sup> L
C)3.5 × 10<sup>3</sup> L
D)7.8 × 10<sup>3</sup> L
E)7.0 × 1 0<sup>4</sup> L
Q2) Choose the INCORRECT statement.
A)The electron configuration of Fe<sup>2+</sup> is [Ar]3d<sup>6</sup>.
B)The electron configuration of Co<sup>2+</sup> is [Ar]3d<sup>7</sup>.
C)The electron configuration of Fe<sup>3+</sup> is [Ar]3d<sup>5</sup>.
D)The electron configuration of Ni<sup>2+</sup> is [Ar]3d<sup>5</sup>.
E)A metal carbonyl is a compound formed from a metal and carbon monoxide.
Q3) Which of the following species has the electron configuration [Ar]3d<sup>6</sup>?
A)Cr
B)Fe<sup>3+</sup>
C)Co<sup>3+</sup>
D)Ni<sup>3+</sup>
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Complex Ions and Coordination Compounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the concentration of Ag<sup>+</sup>(aq)if 0.125 g of AgC<sub>2</sub>H<sub>3</sub>O<sub>2</sub>(s)is placed in 100.0 mL of 1.00 M NH<sub>3</sub>(aq)?
K<sub>f</sub> = 1.6 × 10<sup>7</sup> for [Ag(NH<sub>3)2</sub>]<sup>+</sup>
A)4.8 × 10<sup>-10</sup> M
B)5.6 × 10<sup>-10</sup> M
C)8.0 × 10<sup>-8</sup> M
D)8.3 × 10<sup>-6</sup> M
E)7.5 × 10<sup>-3</sup> M
Q2) Which ion would you expect to have the largest crystal field splitting, ?
A)[Rh(CN)<sub>6</sub>]<sup>4-</sup>
B)[Rh(CN)<sub>6</sub>]<sup>3-</sup>
C)[Rh(H<sub>2</sub>O)<sub>6</sub>]<sup>2+</sup>
D)[Rh(H<sub>2</sub>O)<sub>6</sub>]<sup>3+</sup>
Q3) Choose the INCORRECT formula/name combination for ligands.
A)-O<sub>2</sub>C-CO<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup> / oxalato (ox)
B)S<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub><sup>2-</sup> / thiosulfato
C)CH<sub>3</sub>NH<sub>2 </sub>/ ammino
D)SCN<sup>- </sup>bonded to S / thiocyanato-S-
E)NCS<sup>-</sup> bonded to N / thiocyanato-N-
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Chapter 25: Nuclear Chemistry
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116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phosphorus-32 has a half-life of 14.3 days.How many grams remain from a 10.0 gram sample after 30.0 days?
A)2.34 g
B)7.18 g
C)4.64 g
D)0.340 g
E)3.59 g
Q2) Alpha particle bombardment of <sup>27</sup>Al followed by neutron emission produces ________.
A)(<sup>30</sup>P)
B)(<sup>30</sup>Si)
C)(<sup>31</sup>Si)
D)(<sup>29</sup>P)
E)(<sup>32</sup>P)
Q3) Transuranium elements are elements with atomic numbers greater than 92.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ion production is the way radiation causes the most damage.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Structures of Organic Compounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which class of compounds is most oxidized?
A)alkanes
B)alcohols
C)carboxylic acids
D)aldehydes
E)ketones
Q2) Which statements regarding chiral compounds are correct?
I."Chiral carbon" is synonymous with "asymmetric carbon."
II.The presence of one chiral carbon in a structure results in two possible enantiomers.
III.Two enantiomers can be interconverted without breaking any bonds.
IV.Two chiral molecules are mirror images of each other.
V.Two chiral molecules have significantly different chemical properties.
A)II,III,and V
B)I,II,and IV
C)I,III,and IV
D)II,IVand V
E)III,and V
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Chapter 27: Reactions of Organic Compounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Markovnikof's rule predicts that when HBr is added to an unsymmetrical alkene or alkyne,the H atom will add to which carbon atom?
A)the carbon with the fewest attached hydrogens
B)the carbon with the Br
C)the carbon with the most attached hydrogens
D)the carbon next to the double or triple bond
E)HBr does not react with unsymmetrical alkenes or alkynes
Q2) Complete the following reaction: NH<sub>3</sub> + CH<sub>3</sub>Br
A)CH<sub>4</sub> + NH<sub>2</sub>Br
B)CH<sub>2</sub>=NH + H<sub>2</sub> + HBr
C)CH<sub>3</sub>NH<sub>2</sub> + NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>Br<sup>- </sup>
D)CH<sub>3</sub>NH<sub>3</sub><sup>+</sup>Br<sup>- </sup>
E)There is no reaction.
Q3) Which of the following is an unsymmetrical reagent?
A)Cl<sub>2 </sub>
B)H<sub>2</sub>O
C)H<sub>2</sub>O and HCl
D)HCl
E)I<sub>2 </sub>
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Chemistry of the Living State
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Sample Questions
Q1) A glycerol ester of unsaturated fatty acids best describes a(n):
A)vegetable oil
B)vegetable starch
C)animal fat
D)lipid
E)wax
Q2) What is the complementary base sequence that corresponds to the following sequence of DNA bases?
TCGAGTTG
Q3) By definition,exergonic reaction has:
A) G= positive value
B) G= negative value
C) H= positive value
D) H= negative value
E) S= positive value
Q4) DNA contains the sugar ribose.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The hydrolysis of tristearin produces the soap potassium stearate and ________.
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