Science for Elementary Teachers
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Science for Elementary Teachers is designed to equip future educators with a foundational understanding of key scientific concepts and effective teaching strategies tailored for young learners. The course emphasizes inquiry-based learning, hands-on experiments, and the integration of cross-disciplinary approaches to foster curiosity and critical thinking in elementary students. It covers fundamental topics in life, physical, and earth sciences, while also addressing current best practices in science education, classroom management, and the adaptation of lessons for diverse learning needs. Through collaborative activities and reflective practice, students develop the skills necessary to inspire and guide the next generation of scientific thinkers.
Recommended Textbook
Physical Science 9th Edition by Bill Tillery
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24 Chapters
724 Verified Questions
724 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: What Is Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) The density of a 100-g piece of iron is twice as great as the density of a 50-g piece of iron.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) A tentative thought- or experiment-derived explanation is known as a (an)
A)hypothesis.
B)scientific law.
C)scientific theory.
D)model.
Answer: A
Q3) The property of volume is a measure of
A)how much matter the object contains.
B)the compactness of matter in a given space.
C)the extent of the surface of the object.
D)how much space the object occupies.
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mass of a 100-N sack of seed is closest to A)10 kg.
B)10 lb.
C)98 kg.
D)1,000 kg.
Answer: A
Q2) You should "follow through" when hitting a ball because A)this increases the force.
B)momentum is conserved.
C)of the relationship \(\Delta\)p = Ft.
D)momentum is mv.
Answer: C
Q3) If you double the mass of an object while an unbalanced force remains constant, A)the object moves at half the speed.
B)the acceleration of the object is doubled.
C)the object will gradually slow down.
D)The acceleration of the object is halved.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The watt (W) is a unit of A)work.
B)electrical energy.
C)power.
D)force.
Answer: C
Q2) Of the following, which rank of coal has the most desirable burning properties and highest energy content?
A)peat
B)lignite
C)subbituminous
D)bituminous
Answer: D
Q3) The potential energy of a ball on the ground is zero.If the ball is now in the bottom of a hole, its potential energy is A)non existent.
B)the same as it was on the surface.
C)negative.
D)zero.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Heat and Temperature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which thermodynamic law says that you cannot convert 100 percent of a heat source into mechanical energy?
A)first law of thermodynamics
B)second law of thermodynamics
C)third law of thermodynamics
D)law of increasing entropy
Q2) Water molecules move back and forth between the liquid and gaseous phases
A)only when the space above a liquid is not saturated.
B)only at 100ºC.
C)only when the humidity is low.
D)at all times.
Q3) The sum of all the energy of the molecules of an object is called the temperature of that object.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The process by which solids vaporize without first becoming a liquid is called
A)sublimation.
B)condensation.
C)evaporation.
D)boiling.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Wave Motions and Sound
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Sample Questions
Q1) Piano tuners listen to the beat frequency between their tuning fork and the wire they are tuning.
A)True
B)False
Q2) You are able to hear sounds from farther away on a cool night because sound waves are refracted toward
A)cooler air near the ground.
B)warmer air above the ground.
C)cooler air above the ground.
D)warmer air near the ground.
Q3) Transverse mechanical waves can pass through A)solids.
B)liquids. C)gases.
D)All of the above.
Q4) The fundamental frequency of a vibrating string has a length that is 1/2 the wavelength.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 6: Electricity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electrical resistance is a property of conductors that is measured in units of A)coulomb.
B)volt.
C)amp.
D)ohm.
Q2) Charge moving through a wire produces a magnetic field around the wire.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An object becomes positively charged by gaining protons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Electric field lines are drawn
A)toward the positive test charge.
B)away from the positive test charge.
C)in such a way as to show the direction of the field.
D)radiating outward like spokes on a wheel.
Q5) The volt is a measure of the difference in electrical potential energy between two points.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Light
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Sample Questions
Q1) Interference is a property of light most easily explained by the particle model.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Farsightedness, or hyperopia, can be corrected with what type lens?
A)convex
B)concave
C)reflecting
D)None of the above.
Q3) The index of refraction for flint glass is 1.5.This means that
A)light travels faster in this medium than it does in vacuum.
B)the wavelength of light passing through glass is 1.5* as long as it is in vacuum.
C)the speed of light is slower in this medium than it is in vacuum.
D)a ray of light is refracted away from the normal as it passes from air into glass.
Q4) The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of refraction.
A)True
B)False
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9
Chapter 8: Atoms and Periodic Properties
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Sample Questions
Q1) The energy of a photon of light emitted by an electron equals the A)energy of the level it currently occupies.
B)energy of the level it just left.
C)energy of the ground state of the atom.
D)difference in energy between two levels.
Q2) In the notation "2p<sup>4</sup>", the 4 refers to the A)energy level of the electron.
B)number of p orbitals in the 2<sup>nd</sup> energy level.
C)number of electrons in the 2p sublevel.
D)number of electrons in a single 2p orbital.
Q3) Niels Bohr's model of the hydrogen atom
A)was controversial because it contradicted accepted principles of physics.
B)held that electrons existed in allowed orbits and nowhere else.
C)accounted for the observed spectrum in hydrogen.
D)All of the above.
Q4) Atoms in an incandescent gas
A)emit all frequencies of light in a continuous spectrum.
B)emit different frequencies of light depending on its temperature.
C)emit characteristic frequencies of light.
D)absorb, rather than emit light.
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Chapter 9: Chemical Bonds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ionic compounds are generally
A)white, crystalline solids.
B)gaseous substances.
C)syrupy liquids.
D)amorphous solids.
Q2) The smallest unit of a covalent compound that still retains the properties of the compound is called a (an)
A)electron.
B)atom.
C)molecule.
D)dipole.
Q3) Which combination of elements results in the formation of a white crystalline solid that dissolves to form a solution that conducts electricity?
A)metal and metal
B)non-metal and non-metal
C)metal and non-metal
D)metal and metalloid
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11
Chapter 10: Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reaction between water solutions of sodium chloride and silver nitrate produces a precipitate: NaCl<sub>(a</sub><sub>q)</sub> + AgNO<sub>3(aq)</sub> \(\rarr\) NaNO<sub>3(aq)</sub> + AgCl<sub>(s)</sub>.This is an example of A)decomposition.
B)combination.
C)replacement.
D)ion exchange.
Q2) What is the total number of atoms in calcium phosphate, Ca<sub>3</sub>(PO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub>?
A)8
B)9
C)11
D)13
Q3) A decomposition reaction always breaks down a compound into the elements that make up the compound.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Water and Solutions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Icebergs
A)have about the same density as sea water.
B)are just about as salty as sea water.
C)are nearly pure water.
D)are denser than sea water.
Q2) Water solutions of ionic substances that conduct electricity are called
A)electrical solutions.
B)polar solutions.
C)electrolytes.
D)indicators.
Q3) According to the modern definition, NH<sub>3</sub> is A)an acid because it contains hydrogen.
B)a base because it can accept H<sup>+</sup> ions from water.
C)an acid because it raises the H<sup>+</sup> ion concentration.
D)a base because it lowers the pH.
Q4) A strong acid is a concentrated solution of the acid.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Organic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Organic chemistry is the study of compounds produced by living things.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sugars, starches, and cellulose belong to the class of A)polymers.
B)triglycerides.
C)carbohydrates.
D)carboxylic acids.
Q3) What would paint thinner, a petroleum distillate, most likely contain?
A)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub>
B)C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub>
C)C<sub>17</sub>H<sub>34</sub>
D)C<sub>40</sub>H<sub>82</sub>
Q4) Organic compounds responsible for flavors in fruits and the scent of flowers are A)esters.
B)ethers.
C)alcohols.
D)ketones.
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14
Chapter 13: Nuclear Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Airline crews receive roughly three times the background radiation of those of us who spend most of our time on the ground.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The mass of a nucleus is slightly greater than the sum of the masses of the individual protons and neutrons.
A)True
B)False
Q3) This type of radiation is really the nucleus of a helium atom.
A)alpha
B)beta
C)gamma
D)All of the above.
Q4) When an isotope releases gamma radiation the atomic number
A)decreases by two and the mass number decreases by four.
B)increases by one and the mass number remains the same.
C)and the mass number decrease by one.
D)and the mass number remain the same.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Universe
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Sample Questions
Q1) About how old is the universe?
A)6.0 billion years
B)10.5 billion years
C)13.7 billion years
D)20 billion years
Q2) In which part of a newborn star does the fusion reaction occur?
A)the core
B)the radiation zone
C)the convection zone
D)in all parts of the star
Q3) Which type of star has the shortest life span?
A)large, very massive
B)small, not very massive
C)one on the main sequence
D)a star about the size of our Sun
Q4) When a massive star exhausts its supply of hydrogen fuel, it becomes a supernova.
A)True
B)False
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The polar ice caps of Mars is believed to consist mostly of A)water ice.
B)solid carbon dioxide.
C)frozen ammonia.
D)frozen methane.
Q2) The density of the planet Saturn is so low that it would float in water.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following about Jupiter is not true?
A)Jupiter is mostly made of light elements like hydrogen and helium.
B)Much of the planet is composed of hydrogen compressed so greatly that it is liquid.
C)The colored bands in Jupiter's atmosphere are believed to result from atmospheric convection.
D)Because Jupiter is mostly hydrogen, it is only slightly more massive than Earth.
Q4) It is impossible to theorize about the formation of the solar system because no other planetary systems can be observed.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Earth in Space
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Sample Questions
Q1) North of the Tropic of Cancer, the Sun appears directly overhead at noon A)never.
B)daily.
C)twice a year, at the equinoxes.
D)twice a year, at the solstices.
Q2) The ancient Greeks believed that the shape of Earth was A)flat.
B)a perfect sphere.
C)an oblate spheroid.
D)an irregular lump.
Q3) Evidence that Earth is rotating is provided by A)the motion of a pendulum.
B)seasonal climactic changes.
C)the varying solar day.
D)the movement of the constellations.
Q4) The findings from the Apollo space missions to the Moon support the idea that the Moon formed from the impact of Earth with a very large object.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Rocks and Minerals
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Q1) The rock named schist has more foliation than the rock named slate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Molten rock material from which minerals can crystallize is called magma.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Weathered sediments are pressed and cemented to form
A)sedimentary rocks.
B)metamorphic rocks.
C)igneous rocks.
D)ferromagnesians.
Q4) Igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic rocks have undergone little change since Earth formed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which one of the following metamorphic rocks is different from the others?
A)quartzite
B)slate
C)schist
D)gneiss
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Chapter 18: Plate Tectonics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The asthenosphere is
A)the uppermost layer of the mantle.
B)the boundary between the mantle and the core.
C)a plastic layer in which the lithosphere is imbedded.
D)the solid, dense layer below the Moho.
Q2) Seismic evidence indicates that rocks of the crust "float" in a molten mantle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The interior of Earth is molten from the heat produced by the intense bombardment Earth experienced during its formation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The spreading of the sea floor along the Mid-Atlantic ridge is supported by A)changes in the orientation of magnetized rocks as one moved away from the ridge. B)the increase in the thickness of the sediment layer as one moved toward the continents.
C)the large amount of heat escaping from the rift along the ridge.
D)all of these support the sea-floor spreading hypothesis.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Building Earths Surface
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most earthquakes originate deep below the crust because the pressures there are enormous.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the mountain-building processes is most responsible for the features of the Rocky Mountains?
A)compressional folding
B)faulting and upthrust
C)volcanic intrusions
D)None of the above.
Q3) Each higher number on the Richter scale represents a 10-fold increase in the amount of ground movement in an earthquake.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compared to an earthquake of magnitude 5, an earthquake of magnitude 7
A)releases about 10 times as much energy.
B)produces 20 times as much ground movement.
C)releases about 60 times as much energy.
D)produces 100 times as much ground movement.
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Chapter 20: Shaping Earths Surface
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Q1) One would expect to find deep rich soil layer where the climate is
A)wet and warm.
B)dry and cold.
C)tropical.
D)arctic.
Q2) An easily crumbled soil with approximately equal amounts of sand, silt, and clay is called loam.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ventifacts are
A)rocks picked up by the wind and transported to new locations.
B)wind-deposited mounds of ridges of sand.
C)areas where deflation has removed loose sediment from the surface.
D)rocks sculpted by wind abrasion.
Q4) Which of the following soil components is not likely to be the result of mechanical weathering?
A)quartz sand
B)clay minerals
C)silt
D)humus
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Chapter 21: Geologic Time
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Rocky Mountains
A)were uplifted about the time the dinosaurs died out.
B)are older than the Appalachian Mountains.
C)formed when Pangaea began to break up.
D)are more than 200 million years old.
Q2) The Geologic Time Scale defines eras in terms of
A)major worldwide extinctions of life on Earth.
B)reversals in Earth's magnetic field.
C)the beginning of the radioactive decay of elements in minerals.
D)major plate tectonic events.
Q3) The principle of uniformity requires you to believe that the geologic features you see today were formed in the past by the same processes we observe today.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not a common way for fossils to form?
A)preservation of skeletal remains
B)preservation of an organism's shape
C)preservation of signs of activity
D)preservation of soft parts by entombment in amber
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Chapter 22: The Atmosphere of Earth
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Q1) The space above the liquid mercury in a barometer is filled with air.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The "sea breeze" is the movement of cooler, more dense air from over water toward the land.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The oceans contain much more carbon dioxide than does Earth's atmosphere.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The atmospheric concentration of carbon dioxide is regulated by
A)removal from the atmosphere by green plants.
B)exchanges between the ocean and atmosphere.
C)chemical reactions between the atmosphere and rocks.
D)All of the above.
Q5) When air is saturated, there is a balance between the rates of evaporation and condensation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Weather and Climate
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Q1) When water vapor in the atmosphere condenses to liquid water,
A)dew falls to the ground.
B)it rains or snows.
C)a cloud forms.
D)All of the above.
Q2) During the condensation process heat is absorbed, which produces down drafts.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Clouds that are gray have larger water droplets than do white clouds.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Raindrops in a summer rainstorm may have actually started as ice crystals at high altitudes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A cyclone is centered about a
A)region of low pressure.
B)region of high pressure.
C)cold front.
D)occluded front.
25
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Chapter 24: Earths Waters
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Sample Questions
Q1) A layer of heavy clay after a rain would be
A)highly porous and permeable.
B)quite porous, but not very permeable.
C)not very porous, but quite permeable.
D)neither porous nor permeable.
Q2) Which of the following statements about seamounts is false?
A)They are steep volcanic peaks in ocean basins.
B)They are most common in the Pacific Ocean.
C)Islands are seamounts that are higher than sea level.
D)Iceland is an example of a giant seamount in the Atlantic Ocean.
Q3) Tidal waves are actually not associated with tides or tide-making processes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) About what is the average concentration of salts in Earth's oceans?
A)0.35%
B)3.5%
C)35%
D)None of the above.
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