Science and Society Question
Bank
Course Introduction
Science and Society explores the intricate relationship between scientific advancements and their impact on human culture, public policy, and everyday life. This course examines how scientific knowledge is produced, disseminated, and utilized within different societal contexts, and analyzes the ethical, social, and political implications of scientific research and technological innovation. Through case studies and interdisciplinary readings, students will critically evaluate issues such as climate change, health care, artificial intelligence, and environmental sustainability, while considering the roles of scientists, policymakers, and the public in shaping scientific discourse and societal outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Human Biology Concepts and Current Issues 7th Edition by Michael D. Johnson
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2002 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Human Biology, Science, and Society
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Internet has been used as a rapid means to obtain information, including scientific ideas. Which one of the following statements about the Internet as a source of scientific information is FALSE?
A) At present, the Internet is less regulated than broadcast and print media.
B) Anyone can post "scientific" information, regardless of whether the information is misleading or not true.
C) Information on the Internet is generally very reliable because inaccurate information is quickly removed or corrected.
D) Individuals and/or groups may post information to promote their own personal interests rather than ideas that have been tested through the scientific process.
Answer: C
Q2) The four organic molecules found in all living systems are carbohydrates, nucleic acids, lipids, and ________.
Answer: proteins
Q3) Humans can grasp objects between their thumbs and fingers because the thumb is
Answer: opposable
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Living Things
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chlorine has an atomic number of 17 and an atomic mass of 35. Therefore, chlorine has ________ electrons and ________ neutrons.
A) 17, 18
B) 18, 17
C) 17, 35
D) 35, 17
E) 18, 18
Answer: A
Q2) Which one of the following is a function of a protein?
A) stores genetic material and enables its transmission to the next generation
B) acts as a catalyst, speeding up chemical reactions
C) is a major subunit of cellulose
D) is a primary structural component of a cell membrane
E) provides energy for a muscle contraction
Answer: B
Q3) The process by which cells break down organic macromolecules into their subunits is ________.
Answer: hydrolysis
Q4) Isotopes of this element would differ in the number of ________.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Structure and Function of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) A student is designing an experiment to show the effects of the movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane. He places a highly concentrated saltwater solution into a bag that is permeable only to water. He then submerges the bag into a beaker of pure water. Which one of the following can be expected?
A) The net flow of water will be from the bag to the surrounding water.
B) The pH of the contents of the bag will increase over time.
C) The volume of the bag will decrease over time.
D) The net flow of water will be from the beaker into the bag, causing the contents of the bag to increase in volume.
E) In this situation, the flow of water into the bag will never equal the flow of water out of the bag.
Answer: D
Q2) To move solutes like amino acids into a cell by active transport, the cell
A) must possess appropriate transport proteins in the plasma membrane
B) must have a net gain in energy resulting from active transport
C) maintains a lower concentration of the amino acids in the cytoplasm
D) must move water out of the cytoplasm at the same time
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 4: From Cells to Organ Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A gland located in the dermis of the skin that helps to regulate body temperature is the ________ gland, which is a type of ________ gland.
Q2) Calcium levels in the body are maintained by hormones. If the blood calcium level rises above a set point, calcitonin is secreted by the thyroid gland and sets into motion responses to lower the blood calcium back to the set point. If the blood calcium level falls below a set point, the parathyroid gland secretes parathyroid hormone that sets into motion responses to raise the blood calcium. These homeostatic responses are examples of
A) positive feedback
B) effectors
C) sensors
D) negative feedback
Q3) A connective tissue made up primarily of fat and elastic tissue would confer strength to the structure in which it is located.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A(n) ________ epithelium allows gas exchange in the lungs.
Q5) The function of smooth, cardiac, and skeletal muscle is ________ in response to stimulus.
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Chapter 5: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is TRUE regarding bone repair?
A) Fibrocartilage degenerates where the two broken ends of the bone were once together.
B) Osteoblasts convert cartilage to bone in the injured area.
C) Immediately after breaking a bone, a hematoma breaks free from the injured area.
D) Bones heal more quickly as individuals age.
E) The repaired area of a bone is much thinner than the original bone.
Q2) After adolescence, bones stop growing longer. They do, however, continue to grow. Describe how bones remodel or undergo repair.
Q3) The blood calcium level is regulated by two hormones: ________ causes an increase in blood calcium, whereas ________ causes a decrease in blood calcium.
Q4) ________ forms the embryonic structures that later become bone.
Q5) When bones undergo repair, the process begins with the formation of a blood clot known as a(n) ________.
Q6) Osteoclasts dissolve the hydroxyapatite and digest the matrix during bone remodeling.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the lower leg, the gastrocnemius muscle bends the foot away from the knee, as in pointing one's toes. The tibialis anterior muscle flexes the foot toward the knee. These two muscles are
A) synergistic
B) homeostatic
C) mutualistic
D) antagonistic
E) cooperative
Q2) The contractile proteins that are located in myofibrils are called ________ and ________.
Q3) In order for a muscle contraction to occur, cross-bridges must form between which one of the following structures within a muscle cell?
A) the plasma membrane and the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B) troponin and tropomyosin
C) calcium and tropomyosin
D) acetylcholine and muscle cell receptors
E) actin and myosin
Q4) If your goal was to become an endurance athlete, what type of training should you select, and why, to increase performance?
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Chapter 7: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following components of blood increase in number in response to the presence of an infectious agent?
A) clotting factors
B) albumins
C) white blood cells
D) red blood cells
E) platelets
Q2) The hormone ________, secreted by the ________, stimulates the production of red blood cells when the level of oxygen in the body decreases.
Q3) Cells located in red bone marrow that give rise to platelets, red blood cells, and white blood cells are called ________ cells.
Q4) Oxygen, but not carbon dioxide, can bind to the heme group of hemoglobin.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Fragments of cells that are important in blood clotting are called ________.
Q6) Platelets are pieces of ________.
Q7) The largest group of solutes in plasma is made up of ________.
Q8) A condition resulting from a reduction in the number of platelets in the blood is ________.
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Chapter 8: Heart and Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Arthrosclerosis is a condition that results in a thickening of arterial walls due to buildup of fatty deposits containing
A) glycerol
B) albumin
C) phospholipids
D) glucose
E) cholesterol
Q2) Electrical impulses that stimulate contraction of heart muscles are initiated in the A) left ventricle
B) bundle of His
C) sinoatrial node
D) atrioventricular node
E) Purkinje fibers
Q3) Deoxygenated blood leaving the right side of the heart next passes through the ________ circuit, where the blood is reoxygenated.
Q4) The atrioventricular valves are supported by connective tissue strands called ________, which prevent the valves from everting.
Q5) blood pressure is higher
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Chapter 9: The Immune System and Mechanisms of Defense
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibiotics are most likely to be effective in the treatment of infections caused by A) bacteria
B) viruses
C) parasitic worms
D) lice and ticks
E) prions
Q2) The ________ are lymphatic tissue that protect the throat.
Q3) Inflammation generally results when tissues become damaged and ________ cells respond by releasing histamine.
Q4) The bacteria that normally live on the mucous membranes of the digestive tract and vagina provide protection against infection with harmful disease-producing microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Q5) T cells are activated by macrophages and activated B cells, which fulfill this role by acting as ________.
Q6) While T lymphocytes are maturing, each of them develops one of two sets of proteins on their cell surface. These proteins are known as ________ and ________.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: The Respiratory System: Exchange of Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) During exhalation, the pressure inside the lungs
A) initially is higher than atmospheric pressure, but drops as air leaves the body
B) must be maintained higher than atmospheric pressure
C) must be maintained lower than atmospheric pressure
D) gradually elevates as air enters the lungs
E) rapidly elevates
Q2) External respiration is the process of
A) transporting gases in the blood stream to target cells
B) exchanging air in lungs with the surrounding environment
C) moving gases into or out of the blood stream within lung tissue
D) gas uptake by target cells
E) carbon dioxide release by cells into the bloodstream
Q3) Deoxygenated blood is transported to the pulmonary capillaries of the lungs by the pulmonary veins; oxygenated blood is transported away from the pulmonary capillaries by the pulmonary arteries.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The amount of air that enters and leaves the lungs with each breath is the
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Chapter 11: The Nervous System: Integration and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The central nervous system is enclosed by membranes or meninges called the
A) dura mater, alma mater, and pia mater
B) fore, mid, and hind meninges
C) dura mater, pia mater, and arachnoid
D) pleura, parietal, and arachnoid
E) glial, Schwann, and interstitial
Q2) Neurotransmitters always cause depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q3) regulates body temperature and stimulates hunger drive
Q4) Removal of the ________ would prevent any type of decision making.
Q5) When an action potential arrives at the axonal bulb, ________ channels open in the presynaptic membrane.
Q6) All of the following statements about psychoactive drugs are TRUE EXCEPT which one?
A) Psychoactive drugs typically bind to the medulla oblongata.
B) Psychoactive drugs are able to cross the blood-brain barrier.
C) Psychoactive drugs directly affect neurotransmitters.
D) Psychoactive drugs change the normal patterns of brain electrical activity.
Page 13
E) Many psychoactive drugs lead to dependence, tolerance, and addiction.
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Chapter 12: Sensory Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following parts of the eye is continuous with the cornea and forms the outer surface of the back of the eye?
A) retina
B) choroid
C) oval window
D) iris
E) sclera
Q2) The ________ regulates the amount of light entering the eye.
Q3) Mechanoreceptors specifically designed to monitor muscle length are termed
A) thermoreceptors
B) muscle spindles
C) dendrites
D) muscle fibers
E) Pacinian corpuscles
Q4) Pressure in the middle ear is equalized with the external air pressure through the auditory tube.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Vision in dim light is due to the activity of ________ cells.
Q6) The two structures of the eye that focus light are the ________ and ________.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Somatostatin functions to inhibit both insulin and glucagon.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Lymphocytes mature into T cells within the ________.
Q3) Calcitonin and PTH have opposing effects on blood calcium levels.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Disorders associated with the endocrine system can be caused by problems with hormone production or lack of receptors for the hormones on the target cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) FSH is a hormone important to the proper functioning of the ovaries and testes. This hormone will not be released from the anterior pituitary until ________ is released from the hypothalamus.
A) TSH
B) GnRH
C) ACTH
D) LH
E) PRL
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Chapter 14: The Digestive System and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) As chyme leaves the stomach, the acidic nature of the partially digested food stimulates the duodenum to release the hormone
A) gastrin
B) secretin
C) mucin
D) CCK
E) ADH
Q2) All of the following are involved in the digestion of proteins EXCEPT which one?
A) pepsin
B) amylase
C) carboxypeptidase
D) chymotrypsin
E) trypsin
Q3) Pepsin is a digestive enzyme that specifically targets
A) fatty acids
B) steroids
C) starch
D) glycogen
E) protein
Q4) relies on peristalsis to move food to the stomach
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Chapter 15: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Not only are the kidneys considered organs of excretion, but they have an endocrine function as well as an important role in the maintenance of homeostasis through the regulation of blood pH.
A)True
B)False
Q2) muscular tube that passes urine out of the body
Q3) Which one of the following is typically removed from the blood by the tubular secretion process?
A) drugs such as marijuana and cocaine
B) urea
C) protein
D) red blood cells
E) water
Q4) The steroid hormone ________ regulates the reabsorption of sodium across the collecting duct and distal tubule.
Q5) Chloride ions move by ________, following transport of sodium out of tubular cells.
Q6) filtrate in lumen contains solutes smaller than proteins
Q7) ADH ________ the permeability of the cells of the collecting duct to water.
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Chapter 16: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ovary is indicated by letter ________.
Q2) Males are considered infertile if they do not produce sufficient numbers of normal, healthy sperm.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Since the pH of the female vagina is not suitable for the survival of sperm, secretions from the ________ gland of the male are a necessary component of semen to raise the pH.
Q4) structure that transports sperm to the ejaculatory duct; sperm are stored here until ejaculation
Q5) Eggs are moved through the oviduct by movements of flagella.
A)True
B)False
Q6) site of testosterone production
Q7) Nourishment is provided to a primary oocyte via which one of the following?
A) the endometrium layer in the uterus
B) the afferent capillaries
C) the zona pellucida
D) the cervical plug
E) a layer of granulosa cells
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Chapter 17: Cell Reproduction and Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Differentiation is the process of sister chromatids separating from each other during meiosis II.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Initiation of translation begins with a tRNA binding to a(n) ________ on mRNA.
Q3) The process by which the DNA code is converted from a single gene into a complementary single strand of mRNA is called
A) replication
B) reproduction
C) translation
D) metabolism
E) transcription
Q4) The process through which DNA is copied into a complementary strand of mRNA is called translation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Following replication of chromosomes, sister chromatids are held together by a(n)
Q6) The specialization of stem cells into various cellular types is called ________.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Cancer: Uncontrolled Cell Division and Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tobacco is a carcinogen that has NOT been linked to the induction of cancer in which one of the following?
A) pancreas
B) lungs
C) mouth
D) pharynx
E) liver
Q2) Common side effects associated with chemotherapy are due to
A) fevers induced by the chemicals
B) death of cancer cells and their subsequent removal from the body
C) change in blood pH caused by the chemicals
D) death of normal cells caused by the chemicals
E) destruction of RNA in most normal cells
Q3) Not only does smoking cause lung cancer, it also quadruples the risk of which one of the following types of cancer?
A) stomach
B) prostate
C) bladder
D) colon
E) brain
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Genetics and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) In 2008 the U.S. Congress passed GINA, an act that prevents insurance companies from
A) requiring genetic testing for potential policy holders with a family history of certain types of genetic disorders
B) raising the rates of insurance premiums or denying coverage to people who have a pre-diagnosed health condition
C) increasing insurance costs for healthy individuals based on the results of genetic testing
D) denying insurance coverage to any U.S. citizen
E) refusing to pay for genetic screening of a fetus of a couple considered high risk for certain types of genetic diseases
Q2) Alleles are alternative versions of chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Genes for different traits located on the same chromosome are called ________.
Q4) A(n) ________ occurs when a piece of chromosome breaks off or is lost.
Q5) According to Mendel's law of ________, genes of a gene pair separate from one another during the formation of gametes.
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Chapter 20: DNA Technology and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gel electrophoresis is a technique used to separate a mixture of DNA fragments. During this process, large DNA fragments move longer distances than small DNA fragments when an electric current is applied.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Gene therapy is showing some promise as a technique to help treat or prevent some diseases. Researchers have focused their attention on understanding more about the process of programmed cell death or apoptosis. Discuss why the process of apoptosis in injured or aging cells may be useful for understanding or treating cancer.
Q3) The technique used to make millions of identical copies of DNA from a small sample in a test tube is ________.
Q4) Gene therapy may one day be used to cure cancer. One approach currently under investigation is to add the gene for ________ to cancer cells. This molecule stimulates the immune system to attack the cancer cells.
Q5) Technique of using plasmid DNA to insert another species DNA into a bacterium or plant is called ________ transfer.
Q6) Programmed cell death in somatic cells is known as ________.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Development and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) To penetrate the zona pellucida of the ovum, the sperm
A) uses the swimming action of the flagellum to move inside the egg
B) releases digestive enzymes from the acrosomal cap
C) releases a hormone that signals the egg to dissolve the thick coating
D) passes down a channel in the protective layer to reach the egg membrane
E) stimulates opening of ion channels along the egg membrane by releasing sodium ions from the acrosomal cap
Q2) The duration of a person's life is referred to as
A) aging
B) longevity
C) eon
D) gestation
E) puberty
Q3) The first four days of human embryonic development occur in the
A) uterus
B) vagina
C) cervix
D) oviduct
E) ovary
Q4) Ejection of milk from the breasts is caused by the hormone ________.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Evolution and the Origins of Life
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Q1) Cytochrome c is a small protein that is found in present-day organisms. Comparison of the structure of cytochrome c from different organisms to infer evolutionary relationships would be part of the science involving
A) fossil evidence
B) developmental biology
C) comparative biochemistry
D) migration patterns
E) comparative anatomy
Q2) Microevolution refers to evolution of new species that occurs as a result of genetic changes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Humans are classified as hominoids because
A) they have larger bodies and bigger brains than other primates
B) all primates are classified in this group
C) they have hair during some part of their lives
D) at one point in their evolutionary history, they possessed a tail
E) aerobic metabolism uses hemoglobin for oxygen transport
Q4) ________ refers to random changes in allele frequency as a result of chance events.
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Chapter 23: Ecosystems and Populations
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Q1) Populations of species that occupy the same geographic area and interact with each other are collectively called a(n)
A) population
B) ecosystem
C) drift
D) biosphere
E) community
Q2) Factors in the environment that limit the ability of a species to meet its biotic potential are known as ________ factors.
Q3) Nutrients cycle most rapidly with the reservoir pool of a biogeochemical cycle and least rapidly with the biomass pool.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The phosphorus cycle is unique from nitrogen and carbon in that it
A) forms the most layers of sediment
B) is found only in aquatic environments
C) is restricted to ocean habitats
D) can be found anywhere
E) never enters the atmosphere
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Chapter 24: Human Impacts, Biodiversity, and Environmental Issues
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Q1) The use of biomass fuels is generally non-polluting.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Freshwater is most likely to become contaminated or polluted by ________ from urban and rural environments.
Q3) Creating a sustainable world will require stabilizing the human population growth rate and the global environment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ozone layer can be destroyed by pollutants such as
A) sulfur dioxide
B) CFCs
C) carbon monoxide
D) hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides
E) carbon dioxide and oxygen
Q5) Urbanization typically increases the extent of biodiversity.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ________ refers to heat from deep underground sources used as a source of energy. Page 26
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