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This course explores best practices and evidence-based strategies for preventing and addressing crises within school settings. Students will learn how to identify potential threats, develop and implement crisis prevention plans, and coordinate effective intervention during emergencies such as natural disasters, violence, or mental health incidents. The curriculum emphasizes collaboration with students, staff, families, and community agencies, highlighting the roles of communication, trauma-informed care, and post-crisis recovery in fostering safe and supportive educational environments.
Recommended Textbook Crisis Intervention Strategies 8th Edition by Richard K. James
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Q1) Interpersonal theory states that:
A)the total ecological system is involved in resolving the crisis.
B)the crisis cannot be sustained when people believe in their ability to overcome the crisis.
C)maladaptive thinking and behaving is changed to more adaptational thoughts and behaviors.
D)crises result from disequilibrium in coping responses.
Answer: B
Q2) The major providers of crisis intervention services in the United States are:
A)volunteers.
B)social workers.
C)psychologists.
D)counselors.
Answer: A
Q3) Crisis intervention services typically start through massive government funding to rectify some ill.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Natural support systems are often more important than formal counseling systems in providing relief.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Support systems are critical and they are used in much the same way no matter what the cultural background of the client is.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) An effective multicultural view of a client includes a:
A)universal view.
B)focused view.
C)crisis worker-centric view.
D)wide variety of individual and group characteristics.
Answer: D
Q4) Individuals are not always the basic building blocks in societies.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

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Q1) If the client's decisions were highly impulsive and irrational with the potential to harm others,her behaviors were causing the situation to worsen,and she felt the situation was unreal,she would most likely have a triage score in the:
A)lower to middle teens.
B)the high teens.
C)the low twenties.
D)the high twenties.
Answer: D
Q2) The Triage Assessment system is an in-depth rapid but systematic technique for use by crisis workers in determining the severity of a client's past and present dilemmas.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The Hybrid model of crisis intervention epitomizes a stage or linear model.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Communicating genuineness means talking about yourself as a way to let clients see that you understand them.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Open ended questions do all but which of the following?
A)Request description
B)Garner specific,concrete data
C)Focus on plans
D)Provide for assessment
Q3) The crisis worker who interacts with complete acceptance of clients demonstrates:
A)an ability to reassure a client even when there is little hope of the client's dilemma being solved.
B)a total understanding of the client's problem from the crisis worker's point of view.
C)the utmost of confidence that the client will succeed in overcoming the crisis.
D)an unconditional positive regard for clients that transcends clients' personal qualities,beliefs,problems,situations,or crises.
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Q1) About the only people who typically avail themselves of a crisis walk-in facility are the chronic mentally ill who have nowhere else to turn.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When clients have been successful in accomplishing their goals in long-term therapy and are ready to terminate,they may suddenly experience profound problems that require the therapist to use crisis intervention techniques.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The police Crisis Intervention Team concept has developed because:
A)of the Community Mental Health Act of 1963 specifying how and where the mentally ill are treated.
B)of the lack of qualified mental health professionals.
C)more police officers are interested in defusing techniques.
D)police officers often encounter people in crisis.
Q4) You are the supervisor of a mobile crisis team in a rural area of the state.You have been invited to help train local law enforcement personnel as first responders for people in crisis.What do you want to include in the training program?
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Q1) An iron-clad rule is that the worker checks with every caller to determine if their medication may be contributing to the problem.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The disinhibition effect means that people tend to open up earlier with more distressing issues over the Internet than they do face-to-face.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Dealing with a sexually explicit caller may be done by:
A)covert modeling by planting the idea that they have a problem.
B)flooding to extinguish their thoughts by sexual responses from the worker.
C)reflection of their feelings and thoughts so as to show empathy and understanding of their dilemma.
D)asking if they have some physical ailment that is causing the presenting psychological problem.
Q4) Volunteers who work crisis hotlines are actually pretty effective in helping people.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The Army's Comprehensive Soldier Fitness program does not include a component to help families.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Eye movement desensitization/reprocessing (EMDR)works because the strobe light or finger movement interrupts abnormal neural activity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) There is evidence that intense and continuous stress can cause permanent physical changes to occur in the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Neat and orderly progression for the PTSD sufferer through the recovery phase is:
A)indicative of emotional numbing and denial.
B)indicative of integration taking place.
C)indicative that the intervention is working.
D)the exception rather than the rule.
Q5) Wage an argument for or against EMDR.
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Q1) The impact of having failed to save a person who was a client,or the victim of the client,can be overwhelming and can cause the crisis worker to experience what is called: A)vicarious traumatization.
B)PTSD.
C)traumatic reminiscence episodes.
D)countertransference.
Q2) Which one of the following indicators should not be considered high-risk in terms of suicide potential?
A)The suicide plan is definite.
B)There is a family history of suicide.
C)Previous "minor" suicide attempts have been made.
D)A frantic call to a crisis line to discuss depressed feelings.
Q3) Many times the suicidal person is also homicidal.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the issue of suicide prevention compared to the societal "right to die with dignity" movement.How might cultural values impact on this issue?
Q5) What goes into a "Stay Alive" contract?
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Q1) Adult survivors of childhood sexual abuse may have:
A)been hospitalized for a variety of psychological disorders.
B)symptoms that are quite different than those of Vietnam veterans.
C)suffered increased incidence of rape,assault,and battering as adults because they actively seek out such relationships as a way of punishing themselves for their "sins" of childhood.
D)decided to become homosexuals because they can no longer stand the opposite sex.
Q2) The recovery of sexual assault victims is enhanced by:
A)a comprehensive medical exam to rule out pregnancy,social diseases,or AIDS.
B)seeking criminal prosecution of the assailant.
C)as soon as possible engaging in sexual activity with a trusted and caring significant other.
D)empathy and acceptance by the person's support system.
Q3) Support groups are important for adult survivors of childhood sexual abuse because they:
A)can try out new behaviors and discuss them with peers.
B)allow for reconciliation between the victim and the abuser.
C)help with dependency needs.
D)destroy old pathological scripts and replace them with new healthy ones.
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Questions
Q1) U.S.Department of Justice statistics probably underestimate the magnitude of domestic violence for all of the following reasons,except:
A)cultural norms tolerate and in some instances condone family violence.
B)confidentiality and shame keeps violence a family secret.
C)poor and non-English speaking women are underreported and women who are institutionalized or hospitalized are not included.
D)same-sex domestic violence is counted multiple times in the research.
Q2) One of the major components of treatment program for batterers is to start understanding they have choices.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Many women stay in battering relationships because they:
A)are co-dependent.
B)have little education and few career opportunities.
C)will be embarrassed if the secret gets out.
D)are enablers.
Q4) There is little domestic violence in same-sex relationships.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Setbacks are not typical once families reach the adjustment phase of recovery.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Predispositioning in crisis intervention with families does not involve:
A)placing yourself in a helpful place with the family.
B)beginning after you have heard the families story.
C)revisiting it periodically throughout the crisis intervention process.
D)rapport building with families.
Q3) Families that do not adapt to crises are said to be experiencing bonadaptation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Families may disagree with ways to handle crises.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Crises test families' structural integrity.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Provide a comparison and contrast of two family crisis models.
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Q1) The Adaptive model of grieving is about how a survivor copes with loss.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Narrative therapy is particularly important in grief work because it involves the thematic meaning of the loss.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the Schneider Model of Grief,the stage called gaining perspective on the loss is described as the griever reaching the point of accepting the loss,which is characterized by:
A)reaching a point of accepting that "what is done is done."
B)providing time to make peace with the past.
C)both a and b above are characterized by this particular stage of grief.
D)neither a or b above are characterized by this particular grief stage.
Q4) Bereavement overload is real and can be extremely detrimental to workers
A)True
B)False
Q5) The Texas Grief Inventory can determine the progress of grief resolution.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) One of the major problems of using peer referral for screening for potential violence is:
A)students readily speak to authority figures about peers' troubles.
B)dismissal of threats as " just talk."
C)there are no potential drawbacks with using peer referrals.
D)peer referrals are usually attempts at retribution for past wrongs and can be dismissed.
Q2) The best peer helper programs will include:
A)a broad cross-section of students.
B)other gang members.
C)students who have potential to be good counselors.
D)none,since research has shown peer helper programs to be ineffective.
Q3) Of the following members of a school CRT,who does not belong?
A)Crisis intervention coordinator
B)Crisis response coordinator
C)Media liaison
D)Memorial director
Q4) Describe the steps you would take if a teacher asked you to speak to a child he/she considered to be dangerous.
Q5) Discuss risk assessment and intervention with an EVJO student.
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Q1) When doing outreach,the best place to park your car for safety's sake would be:
A)directly in front of the house.
B)in the driveway of the house.
C)just beyond the front of the house.
D)across the street and down the block.
Q2) Sun-up syndrome is so called because people become violent as they wake up in institutions,are not sure of their surroundings,and become confused and agitated.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The human service worker who wishes to deescalate a potentially violent confrontation with a client will:
A)treat the client in a permissive fashion so as to avoid an incident.
B)take an offensive posture that lets the client know the worker will not be intimidated.
C)obtain support staff as a show of strength.
D)stay calm and relaxed while monitoring the client's movements and validating the client's perspective.
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Q1) Ethical codes or guidelines are developed proactively.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a guideline for crisis workers to follow in a potential duty to warn situation?
A)Consultation with a supervisor or colleague
B)Be clear about the limits of confidentiality
C)Develop contingency plans for different client reactions ahead of time
D)You must take action to protect a client or potential victim,unless the patient threatens legal action.
Q3) Choose one of the hypothetical cases presented in thisChapter or draw from your personal experiences responding to a crisis or disaster.Discuss the ethical dilemmas that arose in responding to the situation and whether the ethical,legal,moral,or political contexts took precedence.
Q4) The idea that cultural views on good and harm is related to the ethical idea of:
A)beneficence.
B)autonomy.
C)justice.
D)nonmaleficence.
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Q1) One of the major causes of burnout for human service workers is:
A)dealing with large amounts of paperwork.
B)working with uncooperative staff.
C)ambiguous job roles.
D)loss of control over decision-making about clients.
Q2) Vicarious traumatization and compassion fatigue:
A)are the result of the worker allowing clients to become dependent.
B)are the inability of the worker to engage in leisure time activities.
C)result from accumulated experiences across therapies and clients.
D)typically have an immediate onset in the face of an overwhelming catastrophe in which the worker has little time for proper rest,eats poorly,and is faced with dozens of clients in need of immediate assistance with little hope of obtaining help for them.
Q3) Highly motivated human service workers are generally immune to burnout.
A)True
B)False
Q4) "Deadwood" is a term given to workers who cope with personal burnout by moving into management positions.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The Federal Emergency Management Agency's Emergency Management Institute is so comprehensive it even includes mortuary services and hazardous materials courses.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The NOVA model is an example of governmental efforts to develop proactive and preventive strategies for crises.
A)True
B)False
Q3) There are people in the world who see the western world's mental-health-type disaster mitigation as useless and contrived.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The honeymoon period is characterized by an outcry for help from the federal government.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What part do national organizations,such as NOVA and the American Red Cross,play in crisis intervention?
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Q1) Enabling is:
A)the natural and logical consequence of drug dependence.
B)not treatable to the extent that few positive outcomes may be anticipated.
C)a character deficit of the co-dependent.
D)an attempt to keep the family in equilibrium.
Q2) Of the following current principles of substance abuse treatment,which is not true?
A)Addiction and other psychiatric disorders are treated separately.
B)Case management has moved away from the 28-day model.
C)Client autonomy and responsibility are major driving forces to treatment regimens.
D)Computer-based assessment protocols help tailor-make individual treatment plans.
Q3) Treatment "secrets" are a way of trying to co-opt treatment and blackmail staff.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Node-link mapping is an actual map that links points that the alcoholic will need to follow to attain and retain sobriety.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In attempting to stabilize a hostage situation,the negotiator should stay calm and:
A)allow the hostage taker to ventilate thoughts and feelings if necessary.
B)attempt to carefully enter the "psychological space" of the hostage taker.
C)attempt to distract the angry hostage taker by speaking about the negotiator's own personal problems.
D)allow the hostage taker to escalate their hostility.
Q2) Of the following,which is nottrue of hostage takers?
A)They have reached an acute level of frustration.
B)They are attempting to problem-solve.
C)They want to harm the hostage so as to show the world they mean business.
D)They are seeking attention.
Q3) The S.A.F.E.is a communications model that can be interfaced with the REACT task model of crisis negotiation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Political terrorists account for the largest majority of hostage situations in the United States.
A)True
B)False
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