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Sales Management Exam Review - 810 Verified Questions

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Sales Management Exam Review

Course Introduction

Sales Management is a comprehensive course designed to introduce students to the fundamental principles and practices involved in managing a sales force and driving organizational revenue through effective sales strategies. The course covers topics such as sales planning, forecasting, recruitment, training, motivation, compensation, territory management, and performance evaluation of sales personnel. Students will analyze real-world case studies to understand the role of technology, customer relationship management (CRM), and ethical considerations in modern sales environments. By developing both strategic and tactical skills, students will be prepared to lead successful sales teams and align sales operations with broader business objectives.

Recommended Textbook

MR2 2nd Edition by Tom J. Brown

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14 Chapters

810 Verified Questions

810 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Marketing Research: From Data to Information to Action

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29 Verified Questions

29 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Descriptive and causal research are also known as ____________________. Answer: quantative research

Q2) Which of the following is an example of sugging?

A) A firm manipulates research questions to portray a favorable impression of its products.

B) A website employs people to click on its ads in order to generate increased revenue.

C) A firm surveys its existing customers in order to find those who might be interested in a new product.

D) An airline offers reduced fares to frequent fliers, but does not advertise these on its website.

E) A marketer contacts people for a survey, but is actually trying to sell a product. Answer: E

Q3) The particular subset of the population for whom data are available is known as a sample.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 2: The Research Question: Formulation of the Problem

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25 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) ____________________ decision problems are common with unplanned changes in the marketing environment.

Answer: Discovery-oriented

Q2) The main purpose of marketing research brought about by planned change is to:

A) decide how to implement the change.

B) find out what is happening and why.

C) describe changes in the internal environment.

D) describe changes in the external environment.

E) explore the possible causes of the change.

Answer: A

Q3) Which of the following is FALSE?

A) Serendipity is synonymous with planned change.

B) Strategy-oriented decision problems focus on selecting alternative courses of action.

C) The marketing problem should be defined clearly so that research can be designed properly.

D) Change is a fundamental source of marketing problems.

E) Discovery-oriented problems are common with unplanned changes in the marketing environment.

Answer: A

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Chapter 3: Exploratory, Descriptive, and Causal Research Designs

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84 Verified Questions

84 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A test market in which the company sells the product through its normal distribution channels is called a(n) ____________________.

Answer: standard Trueest market

Q2) The Houston Aeros team wanted to find out more about its fans and decided to gather information about demographics and generate summary statistics of its fans. Which of the following primary data collection techniques should they use to conduct the descriptive research study?

A) Experiments

B) Sample surveys

C) Depth interviews

D) Focus groups

E) Case analysis

Answer: B

Q3) ____________________ is typically concerned with determining the frequency with which something occurs or the relationship between two variables.

Answer: Descriptive research

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Chapter 4: Collecting Secondary Data from Inside and

Outside the Organization

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43 Verified Questions

43 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The primary advantage of using online computer searches to gather secondary data is:

A) savings in time spent.

B) savings in cost of assembling data.

C) the accuracy of the data obtained.

D) the ability to take advantage of expert help from a reference librarian.

E) data are furnished in machine-readable formats.

Q2) Which of the following might NOT be considered a benefit of using secondary data?

A) Secondary data help clarify the problem under investigation better.

B) Secondary data cost less to collect than primary data.

C) Secondary data suggest improved methods or data for addressing research problems.

D) Secondary data provide comparative data to primary data.

E) Secondary data fit the problem under investigation better.

Q3) Compare and contrast primary and secondary data.

Q4) People meter is a device used to measure when a television is on, to what channel it is tuned, and who in the household is watching it.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Collecting Primary Data by Observation

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Sample Questions

Q1) A method of data collection in which the situation of interest is watched and the relevant facts, actions, or behaviors are recorded is called ____________________.

Q2) Ferrari has segmented their market on the basis of income and lifestyle. Their target market has household income greater than $200,000 and enjoys spectator sports like NASCAR racing. These two segmentation variables are grouped under the broader classifications of:

A) demographics and product awareness.

B) psychographics and customer intentions.

C) geographic and motives.

D) demographics and psychographics.

E) demographics and product usage.

Q3) Which of the following types of primary data can be measured by observation?

A) Attitudes and opinions

B) Motivations and present behavior

C) Gender and present behavior

D) Social class and gender

E) Motivations and intentions

Q4) ____________________ observation is more likely to be used in exploratory research than in descriptive or causal research.

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Chapter 6: Collecting Primary Data by Communication

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Sample Questions

Q1) Compare and contrast the main methods of administering questionnaires.

Q2) A(n) ____ might be the only method of obtaining a response from certain busy individuals for whom time is a scarce commodity.

A) personal interview

B) telephone interview

C) mail questionnaire

D) mall-intercept interview

E) None of the above.

Q3) The fixed-alternative question is most useful when possible replies are well known, limited in number and clear cut.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The responses as well as questions are standardized in a(n):

A) unstructured questionnaire.

B) disguised questionnaire.

C) structured questionnaire.

D) depth interview.

E) focus group.

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Chapter 7: Asking Good Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The zero scale value found when measuring marketing variables typically represents:

A) the ordinal nature of the variable.

B) an absolute lack of an attribute.

C) the logical existence of a natural zero point.

D) a point of absolute zero magnitude.

E) a point of indifference to which the value zero is arbitrarily attached.

Q2) As defined in the text, measurement consists of:

A) the assignment of numbers (representing quantities of attributes) to objects according to rules.

B) using a given scale to make comparisons.

C) determining the frequency of a particular attribute.

D) the assigning of numbers (denoting aggregates of properties) solely for identification purposes.

E) numbers which can be assigned to the physical properties of objects.

Q3) Random error affects the measurement in a constant way.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Discuss in detail the two types of errors that may affect measurement scores.

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Chapter 8: Designing the Questionnaire

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Sample Questions

Q1) In any study there should be two pretests, the first should be conducted by ____ and the second by ____.

A) personal interview, mail

B) the planned method of administration, mail

C) personal interview, the planned method of administration

D) the planned method of administration, the planned method of administration

E) There is no one best way to conduct the pretests.

Q2) Which of the following is NOT true about question sequencing?

A) The first few questions should be simple and interesting to respondents.

B) Narrow questions should be asked first and the questions should get progressively broader.

C) Classification information should be asked last.

D) Basic information, or the information most germane to the study, should be asked for first.

E) Questions on sensitive issues should be asked later.

Q3) A question that calls for two responses and creates confusion for the respondent is called a(n) ____________________ question.

Q4) Discuss at least five (5) rules researchers should keep in mind in trying to develop bias-free questions.

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Chapter 9: Developing the Sampling Plan

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Sample Questions

Q1) A market researcher divides the Dallas metropolitan area into blocks having roughly equal populations. He then selects a random sample of blocks and sends interviewers to each block. The interviewers are instructed to interview every eighth dwelling unit. This is ____ sampling.

A) one-stage area

B) two-stage area

C) quota

D) two-stage systematic

E) stratified

Q2) Choosing a sample of size n at random is statistically equivalent to first identifying all possible samples of size n in the population and then picking one of these samples randomly.

A)True

B)False

Q3) It is only when sample size is allowed to vary that it is possible to achieve given levels of both precision and confidence.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Compare and contrast probability and nonprobability sampling.

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Chapter 10: Data Collection: Enhancing Response Rates

while Limiting Errors

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76 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) To identify whether potential respondents meet eligibility requirements, an interviewer will typically use a(n):

A) eligibility percentage.

B) leading question.

C) loaded question.

D) screening question.

E) alternative questionnaire.

Q2) Which of the following is TRUE?

A) Noncoverage, nonsampling error is best treated by increasing the sample size that is selected.

B) Noncoverage, nonsampling error is essentially a sampling frame problem and if clear, complete, up-to-date sampling frames exist, noncoverage is not likely to be a problem.

C) While noncoverage can be a source of bias, overcoverage is not. In fact, overcoverage may improve estimates as it means that the sample size is larger than initially planned at no increase in cost.

D) Noncoverage bias is essentially eliminated with quota samples.

E) Noncoverage error can be statistically estimated.

Q3) Discuss at least five (5) ways in which response rates might be improved.

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Chapter 11: Data Preparation for Analysis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is NOT a step in coding open-ended responses?

A) Identify separate responses given by each individual.

B) Specify categories into which the responses can be placed.

C) Place each response into as many categories as possible.

D) Assess the degree of agreement between multiple coders.

E) All of the above are steps in the process of coding open-ended responses.

Q2) The process of editing involves:

A) categorizing the data.

B) counting the number of cases that fall into the various categories.

C) inspecting and correcting each questionnaire or observation form.

D) developing dummy tables that suggest how each item of information will be used before data is collected.

E) transforming the raw data into symbols.

Q3) Which of the following statements about open-ended questions is FALSE?

A) Precoding is not necessary.

B) Response categories are provided for responses.

C) There are multiple legitimate responses.

D) When categorizing open-ended responses, it is often necessary to include an "other" category.

E) All of the above statements about open-ended questions are true.

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Chapter 12: Analysis & Interpretation: Individual Variables

Independently

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61 Verified Questions

61 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Refer to Exhibit 12.6. The conclusion is:

A) The mean weight of a field mouse is greater than 235 grams.

B) The mean weight of a field mouse is less than 235 grams.

C) Estimate a point mean of 235 grams.

D) The mean weight of a field mouse is less than 225 grams.

E) None of the above are correct.

Q2) For which of the following types of measures does the mean NOT provide a meaningful value?

A) Ratio

B) Equal-interval scales

C) Interval

D) Ordinal

E) Continuous measures

Q3) Refer to Exhibit 12.1. $50,000 represents the ____ in the figure above.

A) median.

B) sixtieth percentile.

C) third quartile.

D) seventieth percentile.

E) None of the above.

Q4) Discuss the most commonly used descriptive statistics.

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Chapter 13: Analysis & Interpretation: Multiple Variables

Simultaneously

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64 Verified Questions

64 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) An analyst has a set of normally distributed intervally scaled data resulting from two observations on the same sample of subjects, and he wishes to investigate if there is any difference in these two means. The appropriate statistical procedure is:

A) z-test for difference in two means.

B) analysis of variance.

C) paired samples t-test.

D) chi-square goodness-of-fit test.

E) regression analysis.

Q2) Which statistical technique should you use to answer the question: "Is there a significant relationship between education level (a four-category ordinal variable) and whether or not consumers are aware that Firestone is a brand of tires?"

A) Multiple regression analysis

B) Pearson correlation coefficient

C) Chi-square test

D) Simple regression analysis

E) None of the above.

Q3) A statistical technique used with a continuous dependent variable and one or more categorical independent variables is called a(n) ____________________.

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Chapter 14: The Research Report

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52 Verified Questions

52 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) To improve your writing of a report:

A) use technical terminology.

B) use the longest words possible.

C) write only one draft.

D) read it aloud.

E) use complex sentences.

Q2) Which of the following is TRUE for a research report?

A) In general, the amount of detail contained in the research report should be inversely proportional to the amount of direct control the user can exercise over the areas under discussion.

B) A good rule of thumb in report writing is to include all those findings that might be of interest to the reader.

C) The methods section of a report can be avoided if the audience is familiar with sampling techniques.

D) The true summary is an abstract of the whole report in which everything is restated in condensed form.

E) The appendices contain material that is too complex, too detailed, too specialized, or not absolutely necessary for the text.

Q3) Distinguish between a conclusion and a recommendation for a research report.

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