Respiratory Therapy Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Respiratory Therapy is a comprehensive course designed to introduce students to the fundamentals of assessing, treating, and managing patients with respiratory and cardiopulmonary disorders. The course covers core topics such as respiratory anatomy and physiology, diagnostic procedures, therapeutic interventions, airway management, mechanical ventilation, and patient education. Emphasis is placed on clinical skills development, understanding medical equipment, and applying evidence-based practices to deliver safe and effective care. Students will also explore current professional standards, ethical considerations, and interdisciplinary roles within various healthcare settings to prepare them for successful careers as respiratory therapists.
Recommended Textbook Principles of Anatomy and Physiology 15th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora
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29 Chapters
2169 Verified Questions
2169 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to the Human Body
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78 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Put the cavities in order from broadest to most specific in which the lungs are located
A)thoracic,ventral ,parietal pleura,visceral pleura
B)ventral,visceral pleura,thoracic,parietal pleura,
C)ventral,thoracic,parietal pleura,visceral pleura
D)thoracic,ventral,visceral pleura,parietal pleura
Answer: C
Q2) Which noninvasive diagnostic techniques is an example of inspection?
A)tapping and listening for an echo to detect fluid in the lungs
B)feeling the abdomen to detect tender organs
C)listening for crackling sounds during breathing
D)examining the surface of patient's skin for presence of a rash
E)feeling the gonads to detect abnormal masses
Answer: D
Q3) A component that detects decreasing oxygen concentrations in blood would be the
A)receptor
B)muscle
C)response
D)effector
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) This type of protein is involved with shortening of muscle cells to produce movement.
A)contractile
B)structural
C)regulatory
D)catalytic
E)transport
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following can lower the amount of free radicals in the body?
A)x-rays
B)ultraviolet radiation
C)oxygen
D)carbon tetrachloride
E)antioxidants
Answer: E
Q3) List the six major functions of proteins.
Answer: Proteins have 1)structural,2)regulatory,3)contractile,4)immunological,5)transport,and 6)catalytic functions.
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of membrane protein extends across the entire lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane touching both intracellular fluid and the extracellular fluid?
A)complement protein
B)transmembrane protein
C)peripheral protein
D)lipoprotein
E)All of these choices are correct.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following types of membrane proteins function by recognizing and binding to hormones and neurotransmitters?
A)transporters
B)receptors
C)enzymes
D)linkers
E)cell identification markers
Answer: B
Q3) Define homologous chromosomes.
Answer: Homologous chromosomes contain similar genes arranged in the same (or almost the same)order.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant has a genetic disorder that affects the thermogenic gene in brown fat.What may be an outcome of this disorder?
A)difficulty absorbing nutrients from the intestines
B)difficulty regulating body temperature
C)difficulty protecting organs
D)difficulty in reserving energy
E)difficulty in repairing tissue
Q2) Discuss the three functional classifications of exocrine glands secretions.
Q3) Name and briefly describe the two types of growth seen in cartilage.
Q4) Support electrical excitable cells fround in the nervous system?
A)neuroglial cells
B)neurons.
C)axon
D)muscle cells
E)dendrites
Q5) Which membrane lines freely moveable joints?
A)Mucous membrane
B)Serous membrane
C)Cutaneous membrane
D)Synovial membrane
6
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The buildup of bilirubin in an infant's blood can occur if the liver does not remove the chemical.This condition is
A)cyanosis
B)pallor
C)jaundice
D)alopecia
E)erythema
Q2) An individual allergic to peanut butter eats a snack containing trace amounts.While the reaction is not severe,the individual shows signs of elevated patches all over their skin.These patches are
A)urticaria
B)contusions
C)papules
D)cysts
E)calluses
Q3) Briefly describe the steps in deep wound healing
Q4) Describe the major differences between thin skin and thick skin.
Q5) Briefly describe the steps in epidermal wound healing.
Q6) List and briefly describe the major functions of the skin.
Q7) Describe the structure and function of arrector pili.
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Chapter 6: The Skeletal System: Bone Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) If collagen is removed from bone,what happens to the bone? Choose the best answer.
A)The bone becomes stiff and brittle.
B)The bone becomes soft and flexible.
C)The bone shows no noticeable difference.
D)The bone will break into numerous pieces.
Q2) The shaft of a long bone is the A)diaphysis.
B)epiphysis.
C)metaphysis.
D)periosteum.
E)medullary cavity.
Q3) Briefly describe the steps in bone deposition.
Q4) Which of the following hormones are more important post-puberty for bone growth?
A)insulinlike growth factors
B)thyroid hormones
C)human growth hormone
D)insulin
E)sex hormones
Q5) Briefly describe the major differences between compact and spongy bone.
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Chapter 7: The Skeletal System: the Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which gender shows the coccyx pointed inferiorly?
A)females
B)males
C)Both genders
D)The coccyx does not point inferiorly in either gender.
Q2) Which of the following bones houses a sac that collects tears and passes them into the nasal cavity?
A)maxilla
B)sphenoid
C)nasal
D)ethmoid
E)lacrimal
Q3) Which of the following types of bone is the occipital bone?
A)long bone
B)short bone
C)flat bone
D)irregular bone
E)sesamoid bone
Q4) Briefly describe the bones that make up the orbit of the eye.Include a description of the portion of the orbit formed by each bone.
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a condition where the medial longitudinal arch of the foot is decreased,resulting in fallen arches?
A)patellofemoral stress syndrome
B)bunions
C)flatfoot
D)clawfoot
E)clubfoot
Q2) Why does a fracture of the clavicle usually occur in the mid-region of the bone?
A)Due to the medial pressure from the inflated lungs
B)Due to the ligament-reinforced strength of the acromial joint
C)Due to weakness at the junction of the two curves of clavicle
D)Due to position of the clavicle relative to the humerus
E)Due to fusion of the ends of the clavicle to the sternum and scapula
Q3) Damage to the talus would cause
A)achilles tendinitis.
B)bunions.
C)inability to perform weight bearing activities.
D)flatfeet.
E)claw foot.
Q4) Compare and contrast the male and female pelvis.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gliding occurs between
A)flat bones or slightly curved bones.
B)a rounded bone and a ring.
C)an oval shaped projection and an oval shaped depression.
D)a ball like surface and a cuplike depression.
E)a convex surface and a concave surface.
Q2) Arrange the ligaments in order from superior to inferior location in an anterior view of the shoulder joint.
1)coracoacromial ligament
2)coracohumeral ligament
3)glenohumeral ligament
4)acromioclavicular ligament
A)1,2,3,4
B)2,4,3,1
C)3,2,4,1
D)1,3,4,2
E)4,1,2,3
Q3) Describe the general effects that aging has on joints.
Q4) Briefly describe the functions of synovial fluid.
Q5) List and briefly describe the three common types of arthritis.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Muscular Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which region of a sarcomere contain thin filaments?
A)I band
B)A band
C)H zone
D)Both I band and A band.
Q2) What is the major difference between the two types of smooth muscle tissue?
Q3) )Skeletal muscle contraction is triggered to begin when calcium is released from A)myofibrils
B)mitochondria
C)terminal cisterns of sarcoplasmic reticulum
D)T-tubules
Q4) Why would cardiac muscles have longer refractory periods than skeletal muscles.Choose the best answer?
A)to preserve the normal rhythm of the heart and prevent fatigue
B)the muscle types contain different contractile proteins
C)skeletal muscle is autorhythmic
D)skeletal muscles have prolonged calcium influx
E)cardiac muscle is not dependent on aerobic respiration to produce ATP
Q5) Discuss the steps involved in contraction of smooth muscle and explain why smooth muscle has a slower contraction cycle.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The muscle that serves as the "prime mover" during a movement is called the A)antagonist.
B)agonist.
C)synergist.
D)asynergist.
E)fixator.
Q2) Tim ate something that is not agreeing with his digestive tract.He needs to go to the bathroom to defecate,but there is a line.What muscle helps keep the anal canal and anus closed?
A)bulbospongious.
B)ischiocavernosus
C)obturator internus
D)external anal sphincter
E)sphincter urethrovaginalis
Q3) Chuck has a rotator cuff injury.Which muscles and associated structures are most commonly involved in this type of injury? What sorts of activities commonly cause this injury?
Q4) Name the three groups of muscles constituting the intrinsic muscles of the hand.Briefly describe the structure and function of each of these groups.
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the difference between spatial and temporal summation in a postsynaptic neuron.
Q2) As the action potential nears its peak,the voltage-gated [dropdown 1] channels close,and voltage-gated [dropdown 2] channels open,allowing cations to flow out of the cell to restore the resting membrane potential. Dropdown 1& 2 choices: calcium chloride potassium sodium
Q3) What factors limit neurogenesis in the CNS of adults?
Q4) List the three major factors that contribute to the creation of the resting membrane potential in excitable cells.
Q5) What specific type of unipolar neuron detects a sharp pain?
A)tactile epithelial cells (Merkel disc)
B)corpuscle of touch (Meissner corpuscle)
C)lamellated (Pacinian)corpuscle
D)nociceptor
Q6) Describe four ways drugs can modify the effects of neurotransmitters.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cell bodies of the neurons that carry information from the periphery to the spinal cord are structurally classified as [dropdown 1] and functionally classified as [dropdown 2] and their cell bodies are located in [dropdown 3].
Dropdown 1 & 2 choices:
Sensory Motor
Integrative
Dropdown 3choices:
anterior gray horn
anterior root
dorsal root ganglion lateral gray horn
posterior gray horn
Q2) Which of the following parts of a reflex arc monitors the rectus femoris muscle stretching?
A)Sensory receptor
B)Integrating center
C)Motor neuron
D)Effector
E)Interneuron
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conducts nerve impulses between the two different hemispheres of the cerebrum?
A)Association tracts
B)Basal nuclei
C)Projection tracts
D)Septum pellucidum
E)Commissural tracts
Q2) Which of the following brain structures consists of the medulla oblongata,pons and midbrain?
A)Brainstem
B)Cerebrum
C)Cerebellum
D)Diencephalon
E)Dura mater
Q3) A patient with Wernicke's aphasia would exhibit what issues upon examination?
A)Slow,non-fluent speech devoid of meaning
B)Can understand what is being said,but unable to repeat the words
C)Difficulty pronouncing multisyllabic words
D)No expression of fear or emotions
E)Unable to recognize faces
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify which ANS motor neurons are cholinergic and describe the potential roles that these neurons perform in the ANS.Be sure to describe the location of various postsynaptic effector cells including the type of receptor that could be potentially activated by acetylcholine.
Q2) A postganglionic neuron in the ANS A)releases neurotransmitter that binds to the effector cell.
B)is the first part of an autonomic motor pathway.
C)has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.
D)has its axons exiting the CNS through cranial nerves.
E)carries information into the sympathetic chain ganglia.
Q3) Describe the possible ways in which the axon of a sympathetic preganglionic neuron connects with postganglionic neurons after it reaches the sympathetic trunk ganglia.
Q4) Which parasympathetic terminal ganglion is associated with the parotid salivary gland?
A)Ciliary ganglion
B)Pterygopalatine ganglion
C)Submandibular ganglion
D)Otic ganglion
E)both otic and submandibular
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Chapter 16: Sensory, Motor, and Integrative Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are playing outside in -9° C (15° F).Why do you feel sharp pains in your hands when you grab material.
A)Cold receptors are found throughout the entire dermis.
B)Pain receptors are stimulated by extreme temperatures.
C)Cold receptors only work between 30-45° C.
D)Pain and cold receptors are the same free nerve ending.
E)Cold receptors halt sending signals after the initial stimulus.
Q2) The postcentral gyri of the parietal lobes of the cerebral cortex
A)are considered the primary gustatory area.
B)receives primary somatic sensory information.
C)controls voluntary body movements.
D)receives visual information.
E)provides the ability to move the eyeballs.
Q3) The descending pathway
A)controls sensory functions.
B)consists of upper and lower motor neurons.
C)consists of neurons located completely within the spinal cord.
D)begins in the spinal cord and ends in the brain.
E)is only involved with involuntary muscle movements.
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) [___] provide for the sense of taste.
*Dropdown choices:
-Basal stem cells
-Hair cells
-Gustatory cells
-Olfactory cilia
-Photoreceptors
Q2) Which is the transparent layer on the anterior of the eyeball through which the iris can be observed?
A)Retina
B)Choroid
C)Sclera
D)Ciliary body
E)Cornea
Q3) Emily was very ill with an upper respiratory infection.Her roommate gave her some chicken soup to make her feel better.Neither Emily nor her roommate realized that the soup was too hot to eat until after Emily put a spoonful in her mouth.Now Emily says she can't taste anything.Why? When will she be able to taste again?
Q4) Explain what happens when rods are exposed to light.
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following hormones opposes the action of parathyroid hormone?
A)Thyroid-stimulating hormone
B)Testosterone
C)Insulin
D)Calcitonin
E)Calcitriol
Q2) In addition to increasing growth of bones and soft tissues,somatotropin
A)enhances lipolysis
B)decreases glucose uptake by cells
C)stimulates liver cells to release glucose
D)increases cellular uptake of glucose
Q3) Explain the mechanism by which a deficiency of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRh)will lead to infertility in both a male and a female.
Q4) Which of the following hormones plays key regulatory roles in the body's long-term response to stress?
A)Insulin,Glucagon,Thyroid hormone
B)hGH,Insulin,Aldosterone
C)Cortisol,hGH,Thyroid hormone
D)Parathyroid hormone,Cortisol,hGH
E)Calcitonin,Thyroid hormone,Insulin
Page 20
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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: the Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does damaged endothelium present an increased risk of blood clotting?
Q2) An individual with leukemia requires a bone marrow transplant.The donor may be a person who gives the recipient stem cells that are in the bone marrow from his or her [dropdown 1] or the stem cells may come from a(n)[dropdown 2].
Dropdown 1 Choices:
femur
hip bone
humerus
skull
Dropdown 2 Choices
blood transfusion
large muscle
liver
umbilical cord
Q3) Which of the following are characteristics of BOTH erythrocytes and platelets?
A)no nucleus
B)large segmented nucleus
C)cytoplasmic granules
D)lifespan of 5 to 9 days
E)develop from myeloblasts
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Chapter 20: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain how the heart pumps blood into two separate closed circuits that are arranged in series.
Q2) What is the relationship between an individual who is exercising strenuously causing his or her heart rate to exceed 160 beats/minute and the Frank-Starling law of the heart?
Q3) Contraction of the ventricles of the heart leads to blood moving directly A)into arteries.
B)into capillaries.
C)into veins.
D)through an atrioventricular valve.
E)through the apex.
Q4) The difference between a person's maximum cardiac output and resting cardiac output is called the A)stroke volume.
B)peripheral resistance.
C)afterload.
D)cardiac reserve.
E)venous return.
Q5) Briefly describe why cardiac tissue cannot repair itself after damage?
Q6) Define arrhythmia and discuss different categories of arrhythmias.
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Chapter 21: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels and Hemodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the umbilical cord is tied after birth,the umbilical arteries close by filling in with
A)placental fluid.
B)platelet plugs.
C)connective tissue.
D)smooth muscle.
E)epithelial tissue.
Q2) The pulmonary circulatory route carries blood from the
A)right atrium to the right ventricle.
B)right ventricle to the left atrium.
C)left atrium to the left ventricle.
D)left ventricle to the right atrium.
E)left ventricle to the coronary sinus.
Q3) If the foramen ovale doesn't close at birth,the result will be
A)overloading the lungs with blood
B)excessive volume in the pulmonary trunk
C)a reduction of volume in the aorta
D)introducing deoxygenated blood into the systemic circulation
E)no change in the content of the systemic or pulmonary circulations
Q4) What is a portal vein? Describe the hepatic portal circulation.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) An acute (Type I)allergic response can lead to:
A)delayed hypersensitivity
B)autoimmunity
C)anaphylactic shock
D)passive immunity
E)immunodeficiency
Q2) Which of the following induces the production of a specific antibody?
A)Phagocytosis
B)Antigen
C)Antibody
D)Defensin
E)Immunoglobulin
Q3) Which of these chemicals do NOT induce vasodilation,increased permeability,and increased fluid flow to an infection site?
A)Histamines
B)Kinins
C)Perforin
D)Leukotrienes
E)Complement proteins
Q4) Describe how lymphatic capillaries are one-way only vessels.
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In chronic emphysema,some alveoli merge together and some are replaced with fibrous connective tissue.In addition,the bronchioles are often inflamed,and expiratory volume is reduced.Using proper respiratory system terminology,explain at least four reasons why affected individuals will have problems with ventilation and external respiration.
Q2) Which of the following is a deep inhalation through a widely opened mouth producing an exaggerated depression of the mandible,the precise cause of which is unknown?
A)sobbing
B)yawning
C)coughing
D)laughing
E)hiccupping
Q3) The neurons of the pontine respiratory group transmit nerve impulses to the A)hypothalamus
B)medulla
C)cerebellum
D)thalamus
E)spinal cord
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Page 25
Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of following processes is the function of the smooth muscle layer of the digestive system?
A)Ingestion
B)Secretion
C)Mixing and propulsion
D)Absorption
E)None of these choices
Q2) Which major duct carries a fluid rich in bicarbonate ions?
A)Pancreatic duct
B)Hepatopancreatic duct
C)Cystic duct
D)Bile duct
E)Hepatic duct
Q3) Which hormone functions to counteract the effect of gastric acid in the small intestine?
A)Pepsin
B)Secretin
C)Gastrin
D)Cholecystokinin
E)Amylase
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Chapter 25: Metabolism and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a mechanism of heat transfer that involves direct contact?
A)Conduction
B)Convection
C)Radiation
D)Evaporation
E)Metabolic rate
Q2) Which of the following is a derivative of riboflavin?
A)NAD
B)FAD
C)Lactic acid
D)Pyruvic acid
E)ADP
Q3) Keto acids
A)Can enter the Krebs cycle
B)Are used for ATP production
C)Can be used to make lipids
D)Can enter the Krebs cycle or be used for ATP production
E)Convert into aldehydes in the liver
Q4) How does the hypothalamus regulate food intake?
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Shock wave lithotripsy is often used to treat which condition?
A)renal calculi
B)urinary tract infections
C)glomerulonephritis
D)polycystic kidney disease
E)urinary bladder cancer
Q2) This is smooth dense irregular connective tissue that is continuous with the outer coat of the ureter.
A)adipose capsule
B)renal capsule
C)renal hilus
D)renal cortex
E)renal medulla
Q3) The portion of the kidney that extends between the renal pyramids is called the A)renal columns
B)renal medulla
C)renal pelvis
D)calyces
E)renal papilla
Q4) Discuss the importance of countercurrent flow to the functioning of the nephron.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acidbase Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What part of the brain contains the thirst center?
A)Thalamus
B)Hypothalamus
C)Midbrain
D)Brain stem
E)Cerebrum
Q2) Which imbalance results when systemic arterial blood HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup> levels drop significantly (below 22 mEq/liter)?
A)Metabolic alkalosis
B)Metabolic acidosis
C)Respiratory acidosis
D)Respiratory alkalosis
E)None of these choices
Q3) Metabolic acidosis may develop following which situations? Select all that apply.
A)a severe gastrointestinal virus
B)diabetic ketoacidosis
C)renal dysfunction
D)emphysema
E)airway obstruction
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Chapter 28: The Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the positive feedback loop involved in ovulation.
Q2) The male reproductive system arises from
A)paramesonephric (Mullerian)ducts
B)mesonephric (Wolffian)ducts
C)spermatic ducts
D)oviducts
E)none of these
Q3) Describe the contributions of the reproductive systems to the integumentary systems.
Q4) Which of the following cells may eventually become spermatozoa?
A)Sertoli cells
B)Sustentacular cells
C)Spermatogonia
D)Chief cells
E)Speciation cells
Q5) Describe the roles of estrogens and progesterone.
Q6) What is the mode of action of oral contraceptives (birth control pills)?
Q7) Trace the path of a sperm cell from the site of its maturation to the site where it leaves the male body.Include descriptions of fluids added along that path.
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
83 Verified Questions
83 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67083
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a function of the hormone corticotropin-releasing hormone?
A)Maintain endometrium of uterus during pregnancy
B)Help prepare mammary glands for lactation
C)Establish the timing of birth
D)Increase flexibility of the pubic symphysis
E)All of these are functions of CRH
Q2) Which condition listed is a sex chromo some aneuploidy,caused by the presence of a single X chromosome designated XO?
A)Emesis gravidarum
B)Deformation
C)Turner's syndrome
D)Breech presentation
E)Klinefelter's syndrome
Q3) An example of incomplete dominance is
A)ABO blood groups
B)Sickle-cell disease
C)Angelman Syndrome
D)Prader-Willi Syndrome
E)PKU
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