Respiratory Therapy Techniques
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Respiratory Therapy Techniques is a comprehensive course designed to provide students with a thorough understanding of the principles and practical skills essential for supporting patients with respiratory disorders. The course covers a range of therapeutic interventions, including airway management, oxygen therapy, mechanical ventilation, aerosol and humidification therapy, bronchial hygiene, and non-invasive ventilation techniques. Emphasis is placed on patient assessment, equipment operation, infection control protocols, and evidence-based practices. Through a combination of lectures, laboratory simulations, and clinical experience, students develop the competency needed to assess patient needs, implement appropriate respiratory therapies, and evaluate patient outcomes in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
ECGs Made Easy 6th Edition by Barbara J Aehlert
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Anatomy and Physiology
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Q1) The primary neurotransmitters of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system are _____.
A) dopamine and acetylcholine
B) muscarine and norepinephrine
C) acetylcholine and epinephrine
D) norepinephrine and epinephrine
Answer: D
Q2) Explain the Frank-Starling law of the heart.
Answer: According to the Frank-Starling law of the heart, to a point, the greater the volume of blood in the heart during diastole, the more forceful the cardiac contraction, and the more blood the ventricle will pump (stroke volume). This is important so that the heart can adjust its pumping capacity in response to changes in venous return, such as during exercise. If, however, the ventricle is stretched beyond its physiologic limit, cardiac output may fall because of volume overload and overstretching of the muscle fibers.
Q3) What factors affect stroke volume?
Answer: Stroke volume is determined by the degree of ventricular filling when the heart is relaxed (preload), the pressure against which the ventricle must pump (afterload), and the myocardium's contractile state (contracting or relaxing).
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Chapter 2: Basic Electrophysiology
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Q1) In the heart's conduction system, the _____ receive(s) an electrical impulse from the bundle of His and relay(s) it to the Purkinje fibers in the ventricular myocardium.
A) atrioventricular (AV) node
B) atria
C) sinoatrial (SA) node
D) right and left bundle branches
Answer: D
Q2) Which part of the conduction system receives an impulse from the bundle of His and relays it to the Purkinje fibers?
A) SA node
B) AV node
C) Right and left atria
D) Right and left bundle branches
Answer: D
Q3) List four major electrolytes that influence cardiac function.
Answer: Sodium, potassium, calcium, and chloride.
Q4) An ECG lead that has a positive and negative electrode is called a(n) _____ lead.
Answer: bipolar
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4
Chapter 3: Sinus Mechanisms
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Q1) List three significant signs and/or symptoms that, if observed with a sinus bradycardia, would require management of this dysrhythmia.
Answer: Clinical signs and symptoms of hemodynamic compromise can include acute changes in mental status; chest pain or discomfort; cold, clammy skin; fall in urine output; heart failure; low blood pressure; pulmonary congestion; shock; and shortness of breath.
Q2) Which of the following are possible causes of sinus tachycardia?
A) Hypothermia, hypovolemia
B) Hypoxia, calcium channel blocker overdose
C) Fever, pain, anxiety
D) Vomiting, vagal maneuvers
Answer: C
Q3) The rate of a sinus rhythm is ____ beats/min.
A) slower than 60
B) 60 to 100
C) 80 to 120
D) faster than 100
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Atrial Rhythms
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Q1) A 77-year-old woman is complaining of a sudden onset of palpitations. The cardiac monitor reveals atrial fibrillation with a ventricular response of 144 to 210 beats/min while the patient is at rest. In this situation, the ventricular rate associated with this rhythm is considered to be _____.
A) controlled
B) uncontrolled
Q2) A macroreentrant circuit is one that involves a small area of heart tissue, usually a few centimeters or less.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To determine whether the ventricular rhythm on an ECG tracing is regular or irregular, compare _____ intervals.
A) PR
B) R-R
C) TP
D) P to P
Q4) Multifocal atrial tachycardia is another name for atrial fibrillation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Junctional Rhythms
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Q1) The usual rate of nonparoxysmal junctional tachycardia is _____ beats/min.
A) 50 to 80
B) 80 to 120
C) 101 to 140
D) 150 to 300
Q2) A junctional escape rhythm occurs because of _____.
A) severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
B) multiple irritable sites firing within the AV junction
C) slowing of the rate of the heart's primary pacemaker
D) intrathoracic pressure changes associated with the normal respiratory cycle
Q3) The pacemaker cells in the AV junction are located near the nonbranching portion of the bundle of His.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following medications increases heart rate by accelerating the SA node discharge rate and blocking the vagus nerve?
A) Digitalis
B) Atropine
C) Amiodarone
D) Beta-blocker
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Chapter 6: Ventricular Rhythms
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Sample Questions
Q1) List four common causes of premature ventricular complexes.
Q2) List three potential sites of origin of ectopic beats.
Q3) Which of the following best describes an idioventricular rhythm?
A) Rapid, chaotic rhythm with no pattern or regularity
B) Gradual alteration in the amplitude and direction of the QRS; atrial rate indiscernible; ventricular rate 150 to 250 beats/min
C) Essentially regular ventricular rhythm with QRS complexes measuring 0.12 second or greater; atrial rate not discernible; ventricular rate 20 to 40 beats/min
D) Regular ventricular rhythm with QRS complexes measuring less than 0.10 second; P waves may occur before, during, or after the QRS; ventricular rate 40 to 60 beats/min
Q4) List four reasons when the ventricles may assume responsibility for pacing the heart.
Q5) What is meant by the term pulseless electrical activity (PEA)?
A) A chaotic rhythm that is likely to degenerate into cardiac arrest
B) An organized rhythm on the cardiac monitor (other than VT), although a pulse is not present
C) A slow rhythm with a wide QRS complex
D) A flat line on the cardiac monitor
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Chapter 7: Atrioventricular Blocks
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Q1) The PR interval of a first-degree AV block _____.
A) is constant and less than 0.12 second in duration
B) is constant and more than 0.20 second in duration
C) is generally progressive until a P wave appears without a QRS complex
D) gradually decreases in duration until a P wave appears without a QRS complex
Q2) Indicate the ECG criteria for the following dysrhythmias.
\[\begin{array} { | l | l | l }
\hline & \begin{array} { l }
\text { Second-Degree AV } \\
\text { Block Type I }
\end{array} & \begin{array} { l }
\text { Third-Degree AV } \\
\text { Block }
\end{array} \\
\hline \text { Ventricular } & & \\
\hline \text { Rhythrm } & & \\
\hline \text { PR Irteryal } & & \\
\hline \text { RRS Width } & & \\
\hline
\end{array}\]
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Chapter 8: Pacemaker Rhythms
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Q1) Describe what is meant by the term overdrive pacing.
Q2) In pacing, threshold refers to _____.
A) the ability of a pacemaker to recognize and respond to intrinsic electrical activity
B) the minimum level of electrical current needed to consistently depolarize the myocardium
C) a pacing lead with a single electrical pole at the distal tip of the pacing lead through which the stimulating pulse is delivered
D) the ability of a pacemaker to increase the pacing rate in response to physical activity or metabolic demand
Q3) Explain the benefits of a dual-chamber pacemaker.
Q4) The second letter of the pacemaker identification code represents _____.
A) programmable functions
B) the chamber sensed
C) the mode of response
D) the chamber paced
Q5) A(n) __________ is a vertical line on the ECG that indicates the artificial pacemaker has discharged.
Q6) Explain the difference between electrical capture and mechanical capture.
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Chapter 9: Introduction to the 12-Lead Electrocardiogram
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Q1) Which leads face the septum?
A) II, aVF
B) V1, V2
C) V5, V6
D) I, aVL
Q2) Acute coronary syndromes consist of three major syndromes that are related. List the three syndromes.
Q3) Lead V<sub>5</sub> views the _____ wall of the left ventricle.
A) lateral
B) anterior
C) posterior
D) inferior
Q4) An abnormal (i.e., pathologic) Q wave indicates the presence of dead myocardial tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When reviewing a 12-lead ECG, intervals and duration are usually expressed in _____.
Q6) The coronary arteries originate at the base of the _____.
Q7) Describe the appearance of a pathologic Q wave.
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Chapter 10: Posttest
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Sample Questions
Q1) A macroreentrant circuit is one that involves a small area of heart tissue, usually a few centimeters or less.
A)True
B)False
Q2) List five signs or symptoms of decreased cardiac output.
Q3) The axes of leads I, II, and III form an equilateral triangle with the heart at the center (Einthoven's triangle). If the augmented limb leads are added to this configuration and the axes of the six leads moved in a way in which they bisect each other, the result is the
Q4) When is the term intraventricular conduction delay used?
Q5) Where is the positive electrode placed in lead III?
A) Right arm
B) Left arm
C) Left leg or foot
D) Right leg or foot
Q6) A delay or block that occurs in one of the bundle branches affects ventricular depolarization.
A)True
B)False
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