Respiratory Therapy Skills and Competencies Exam Bank
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of the essential skills and competencies required for effective respiratory therapy practice. Students will develop proficiency in performing patient assessments, administering oxygen and aerosol therapies, managing airways, and operating ventilators and other respiratory equipment. Emphasis is placed on understanding respiratory pathophysiology, clinical decision-making, and adhering to safety and infection control protocols. Through hands-on training, laboratory simulations, and case-based learning, students will build the foundational abilities necessary to deliver high-quality care to patients with respiratory disorders across a variety of healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Clinical Lab Competencies for Respiratory Care An Integrated Approach 5th Edition by Gary
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
29 Chapters
852 Verified Questions
852 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2242 Page 2
Chapter 1: Basics of Asepsis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44594
Sample Questions
Q1) Respiratory care equipment is usually _______ because it is too difficult and costly to keep it _______.
A)disinfected;aseptic
B)in standard precaution states;isolated
C)aseptic;sterile
D)isolated;aseptic
Answer: C
Q2) If two patients are infected with the same microorganism and neither patient has another infection,they may be placed in the same room.This is defined as
A)contact precaution.
B)cohorting.
C)standard precaution.
D)respiratory hygiene/cough etiquette.
Answer: B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 3
Chapter 2: Basic Patient Assessment: Vital Signs and Breath
Sounds
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44595
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following steps is not correct when systematically auscultating a patient's chest?
A)Listen for one complete inspiratory and expiratory cycle
B)Contrast breath sounds with the patient nasal to oral breathing
C)Compare one side of the chest to the other side
D)Progress from the superior to the inferior segments of the lung
Answer: B
Q2) What are continuous abnormal breath sounds described low-pitched and thought to be produced by fluid or secretions vibrating in the airways?
A)Tracheal
B)Wheezes
C)Crackles
D)Rhonchi
Answer: D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 4
Chapter 3: Advanced Patient Assessment: Inspection, Palpation, and Percussion
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44596
Sample Questions
Q1) Upon percussing the patient's chest,a dull percussion note is heard over the left lower lobe.What other findings would be expected to be found over the left lower lobe?
Answer: A dull percussion note is heard over areas containing a greater proportion of tissue or fluid than of air.This occurs in the lungs as a result of consolidation,atelectasis,or the presence of fluid in the pleural space.Breath sounds would be diminished in the area of the dull percussion note.There would be increased vocal fremitus.Chest movement would lag on the left side of the thoracic cavity due to diminished air entry.
Q2) Immediately lateral to the sternal angle is (are)the _________________.
A)fourth rib.
B)clavicles.
C)manubrium.
D)second rib.
Answer: D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5
Chapter 4: Radiologic Assessment
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44597
Sample Questions
Q1) When the practitioner needs to focus attention on the upper lobes of the lungs,which x-ray view should be utilized?
A)Posterior-anterior (PA)view
B)Anterior-posterior (AP)view
C)Lateral view
D)Apical lordotic view
Q2) The respiratory care practitioner evaluates the patient's chest x-ray to determine any abnormalities.The practitioner evaluates the lung field and the diaphragms.Which hemidiaphragm should be higher than the other?
A)The right hemidiaphragm
B)The left hemidiaphragm
C)They both should be at the same level
D)The hemidiaphragm over the stomach
Q3) Which of the following is the most radiodense?
A)Air
B)Water
C)Fat
D)Bone
Q4) What can be evaluated on a chest radiograph besides the heart and lungs?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6
Chapter 5: Pulmonary Function Testing
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44598
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be used to measure a patient's tidal volume and minute volume?
A)Peak flowmeter
B)Manometer
C)Respirometer
D)Mini-Wright device
Q2) Which of the following measurements can not be monitored at the patient's bedside?
I.Minute volume
II.Peak flow
III.Tidal volume
IV.Negative inspiratory force
A)I and II
B)III and IV
C)I,II,III,IV
D)I,III,and IV
Q3) A patient comes to the PFT lab to get an annual pulmonary function test.What factors would cause changes in the results from year to year?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
7
Chapter 6: Electrocardiography
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44599
Sample Questions
Q1) When the heart is stimulated and contracts,this is termed _____________.
A)depolarization.
B)repolarization.
C)pacing.
D)voltage.
Q2) What lead(s)is (are)placed at the fifth intercostal space,mid-clavicular line?
A)V1 and V2
B)V3
C)V3.
D)V4
Q3) When atrial fibrillation occurs atrial depolarization does not occur.How is this identified on the ECG tracing?
A)The are multiple 'P' waves to each 'QRS' complex on the ECG tracing
B)The 'P' is inverted in lead 2
C)The 'QRS' complex is irregularly spaced
D)There is no 'P' wave on the ECG tracing
Q4) The patient wants an exercise EKG.To ensure the electrodes stay remain in the proper position,what precautions should be taken?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 8
Chapter 7: Phlebotomy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44600
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a therapist's obligation to themselves related to the performance of phlebotomy?
A)Knowing what is to be done for their own protection
B)Preparing for the phlebotomy procedure by assembling the correct materials
C)Performing the phlebotomy procedure step-by-step
D)Using proper aseptic technique when preparing the skin for venipuncture.
Q2) There is an obligation for the respiratory therapist to protect himself from inadvertent exposure to blood specimens.How is this accomplished?
A)Knowledge
B)Preparation
C)Procedure
D)All of these
Q3) If the vacuum tube is pushed in too soon or attached to the needle too soon,what would happen?
A)Unnecessary contamination will occur at the draw site.
B)The angle of the needle stick should be increased.
C)A larger needle needs to be used.
D)The negative pressure stored in the tube will be lost.
Q4) How does the phlebotomist gain the confidence of the patient for a blood draw?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: Arterial Blood Gas Sampling
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44601
Sample Questions
Q1) Arterial blood gas (ABG)analysis is used for which part of the clinical assessment?
I.Ventilation
II.Acid-base status
III.Oxygenation
A)II only
B)I and II
C)I,II,and III
D)I and III
Q2) Which of the following is a disadvantage of drawing blood from the radial artery?
A)The small size of the artery
B)The presence of collateral circulation
C)There are no veins or nerves immediately adjacent to the artery.
D)It is close to the surface of the skin.
Q3) Why is the radial artery a commonly used site for arterial blood sampling?
A)Its location to the inside of the patient's arm
B)It is commonly used for taking a patient's pulse.
C)There is collateral circulation through the ulnar artery.
D)It is the largest artery used for arterial blood drawing.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10
Chapter 9: Hemodynamic Monitoring
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44602
Sample Questions
Q1) What happens if the right ventricular preload is increased too much?
A)The cardiac output is optimized.
B)The myocardium loses efficiency.
C)Oxygen consumption decreases.
D)Deadspace ventilation increases.
Q2) A patient has a CVP reading of 12 mmHg.What does this indicate?
A)Hypervolemia
B)Hypovolemia
C)Decreased right ventricular preload
D)Increased left atrial preload
Q3) The hemodynamic data are recorded from a pulmonary artery catheter on a patient who is being mechanically ventilated.
Cardiac Output 2.5 L/min
PAP 22/10 mmHg
PCWP 2 mmHg
CVP 1 mmHg
HR 125/min
How should the practitioner interpret this data and what treatment should be recommended?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 11
Chapter 10: Noninvasive Monitoring
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44603
Sample Questions
Q1) Skin burns are hazards of ______________
A)pulse oximetry.
B)transcutaneous monitoring.
C)end-tidal C02 monitoring.
D)a and b
Q2) What is considered the standard of care during anesthesia?
A)Exhaled volume monitoring
B)Transcutaneous monitoring
C)Oximetry
D)Capnography
Q3) What would allow the respiratory care practitioner to monitor in real time a patient's partial pressure of oxygen?
A)Capnography
B)Pulmonary artery pressure monitoring
C)Noninvasive monitoring
D)Arterial blood gases
Q4) How does the pulse oximeter measure O saturation in the capillary bed?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 12
Chapter 11: Documentation and Goals Assessment
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44604
Sample Questions
Q1) Where are the consents for surgery contained in the patient's chart?
A)Operative data
B)Progress notes
C)Physician orders
D)Multidisciplinary records
Q2) Why are the medical record is used by third-party payers?
A)For patient information for future care
B)To assist physician's diagnose patients
C)For purposes of reimbursement
D)To provide patient's a copy of their chart
Q3) What is a compilation of pertinent facts of a patient's life and health history,illness(es),and treatment(s)written by health care professionals who have contributed to the care of that patient?
A)Risk management
B)The medical record
C)Clinical goals
D)Physician's orders
Q4) Upon entering a severe asthmatic's room to deliver bronchodilator therapy,the patient expresses displeasure with his physician and the hospital.What should the practitioner do at this time?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 13
Chapter 12: Oxygen Supply Systems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44605
Sample Questions
Q1) Which organization recommends the standards for construction of medical gas piping systems?
A)Compressed Gas Association (CGA)
B)National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
C)Department of Transportation (DOT)
D)Bureau of Standards (BOS)
Q2) A device that reduces the pressure in the medical gas cylinder from 2200 psi to 50 psi is termed a ________________ A)riser.
B)flowmeter.
C)reducing valve.
D)station outlet.
Q3) The ____________ has developed a color code for the different gases and gas mixtures.
A)U.S.Department of Transportation (DOT)
B)Compressed Gas Association (CGA)
C)Pin Index Safety System (PISS)
D)National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 13: Oxygen Administration
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44606
Sample Questions
Q1) If an air entrainment device is set to deliver an FIO of 60% with the flowmeter set at 15 LPM,what would be the total flow delivered by the device?
A)40.5 LPM
B)60 LPM
C)15 LPM
D)30 LPM
Q2) Which type of oxygen analyzer uses an oxidation-reduction reaction to measure the FO of an oxygen sample?
A)Galvanic oxygen analyzer
B)Polarographic oxygen analyzer
C)Electrical oxygen analyzer
D)a and b
Q3) A patient is admitted to the emergency department.His minute volume is 9 LPM on admission but increases to 15 LPM as his dyspnea increases.Which oxygen delivery device would be best to administer 30% oxygen?
A)30% Venturi
B)Nasal cannula at 2.5 LPM
C)Simple mask at 7 LPM
D)Non-rebreathing mask set to keep the reservoir full during inspiration
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 15
Chapter 14: Introduction to Respiratory Care Pharmacology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44607
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would NOT cause a bronchospasm or bronchoconstriction?
A)Leukotrienes
B)Beta 1 receptors
C)Histamine
D)Prostaglandins
Q2) After delivery of an adrenergic bronchodilator with a small volume nebulizer,a patient complains of "shakiness" and feeling "nervous".He notes palpitations and his heart feels like it is racing.What is happening and how could these problems be corrected?
Q3) Which of the following is caused by histamine release from the mast cells?
I.Bronchodilation
II.Increased bronchial gland secretion
III.Increased amount of mucus present in the airways
A)I and II only
B)II and III only
C)III only
D)I,II,III
Q4) A small volume nebulizer is ordered for a patient on a mechanical ventilator.To prevent condensation and secretions from draining into the nebulizer and contaminating it,what could be done?
Page 16
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 15: Humidity and Aerosol Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44608
Sample Questions
Q1) When administering a medication via a small volume nebulizer to a patient,instruct the patient to take slow,deep breaths with a slight pause before exhaling.What is the purpose of the pause before exhaling?
A)Allow deeper penetration of the medication into the lungs.
B)Decrease the risk of medication side effects.
C)Help the aerosol to deposit in the lungs.
D)Increase the delivered FI02 from the small volume nebulizer.
Q2) When utilizing a Brigg's adaptor to connect the aerosol unit to a tracheostomy tube,a 6 inch piece of wide-bore tubing should be attached to the adaptor opposite the aerosol tubing coming from the nebulizer.What is the purpose of this tubing?
A)To maintain a constant FIO
B)To collect expectorated secretions from the patient
C)To act as a reservoir for the couplant
D)To decrease the risk of contamination from aerosolized droplets
Q3) Back pressure exerted downstream from the nebulizer will cause
A)the aerosol output to increase.
B)the total flow output of the unit to increase.
C)the delivered FIO to increase.
D)the amount of air entrained through the entrainment ports to increase.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter 16: Bronchial Hygiene Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44609
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the ideal breathing pattern for PEP therapy?
A)The patient should take a larger than normal tidal breath (but not to TLC),and then exhale forcefully against the resistance to FRC.The patient should cough after each PEP breath.
B)The patient should take a larger than normal tidal breath (but not to TLC),and then exhale actively,but not forcefully,against the resistance to FRC.The patient should be relaxed,and diaphragmatic breathing should be emphasized.The patient should take between 10 and 20 PEP breaths and then cough.
C)The patient should take normal tidal breath and then exhale actively,but not forcefully,against the resistance to RV.The patient should be relaxed,and diaphragmatic breathing should be emphasized.The patient should take between 10 and 20 PEP breaths and then cough.
D)The patient should take a deep breath to TLC,and then exhale forcefully against the resistance to FRC.The patient should be relaxed,and diaphragmatic breathing should be emphasized.The patient should take between 10 and 20 PEP breaths and rest.The patient should cough only if necessary.
Q2) A patient has severe hypoxemia despite high levels of oxygen.To help alleviate the hypoxemia the patient is positioned with the good lung down.How does this work?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 18
Chapter 17: Hyperinflation Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44610
Sample Questions
Q1) While administering IPPB with a inspiratory pressure of 25 cmH O,a patient develops sudden shortness of breath.When assessing the patient it is noted that breaths are absent on the right side.Percussion of the right side yields a hyperresonant percussion note.No chest tube has been placed yet.Which way would the patient's trachea shift?
A)Toward the right
B)Cephalid
C)Toward the left
D)It will remain midline
Q2) An increase in ________ will enable the patient to generate greater flows and volumes during a cough.
A)peak pressure
B)tidal volume
C)residual volume
D)intrathoracic pressure
Q3) All hyperinflation modalities provide methods for increasing _____________
A)expiratory flow rates.
B)inspiratory volumes.
C)peak expiratory flow rate.
D)residual volume.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 19
Chapter 18: Bronchoscopy Assisting
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44611
Sample Questions
Q1) Bronchoscopy is visual examination of the tracheobronchial tree.This procedure may be performed __________________
A)with a fiberoptic bronchoscope.
B)with a rigid bronchoscope
C)anywhere,because emergency equipment is not needed. D)a and b
Q2) A resident is called to the medical intensive care unit to perform an intubation of a COPD patient with acute respiratory failure.A several unsuccessful attempts the physician asks the respiratory care practitioner for recommendations.Which of the following should the practitioner recommend?
A)Use a rigid bronchoscope to expose the larynx and facilitate the placement of the endotracheal tube
B)Perform a diagnostic bronchoscopy with a flexible bronchoscope to remove all tissue that may be obstructing the view of the airway
C)Perform a therapeutic bronchoscopy with a flexible bronchoscope to facilitate the placement of the endotracheal tube
D)Use a bronchoscope to locate the tracheal rings to mark the area where a surgeon can perform an emergency tracheotomy
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 20
Chapter 19: Equipment Processing and Surveillance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44612
Sample Questions
Q1) Some bacteria secrete a slimy or gummy material on the surface of the cell wall.When this material forms a closely compacted structure,it is termed a/an\ ________________:
A)endospore.
B)capsule.
C)endotoxin.
D)prokaryotic.
Q2) Hospital acquired infections are also called _______________ A)spores.
B)Bacillus.
C)nosocomial infections.
D)Clostridium.
Q3) The practitioner has just performed a bedside pulmonary function test on a patient who tests positive for tuberculosis.This is detected only 1 hour before the next test is to be performed.What should be done?
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a main area of an equipment processing facility?
A)Decontamination
B)Processing
C)Storage
D)Manufacture
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21
Chapter 20: Emergency Airway Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44613
Sample Questions
Q1) What endotracheal tube cuff pressure should be maintained to minimize tracheal damage?
A)25 cmH O or greater
B)20 cmH O or less
C)1.5 inHg
D)25 mmHg or greater
Q2) Which of the following reflexes of the upper airway are cough reflexes?
I.Carinal reflex
II.Tracheal reflex
III.Laryngeal reflex
IV.Gag reflex
V.Swallow reflex
A)I and II
B)III and V
C)II only
D)I,III,IV,V
Q3) A 6'5",300-lb male patient is admitted to ICU for mechanical ventilation via an endotracheal tube.A 7.5 mm-ID tube is in place.What problems could be present with this patient and how could they be treated?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 22
Chapter 21: Artificial Airway Care
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44614
Sample Questions
Q1) You are suctioning a patient with a metal (silver)tracheostomy with an inner cannula that has a one-way valve.You insert the catheter through the one-way valve to suction the patient but are unable to remove the catheter because the valve closes on the catheter.What should you do now?
Q2) When using a fenestrated tracheostomy tube to facilitate weaning the patient from the tracheostomy tube,what procedure(s)should be performed?
A)The cuff should be deflated
B)The inner cannula should be removed
C)The minimum occluding volume should be done
D)a and b
Q3) A patient requires nasotracheal suctioning as evidenced by coarse breath sounds.How should the patient be positioned for the procedure?
A)Semi-Fowler's position
B)Sniffing position
C)Prone position
D)Either a or b
Q4) You cannot pass the suction catheter down the endotracheal tube on an intubated patient.What should you do and how would you correct the problems?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 23
Chapter 22: Chest Tubes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44615
Sample Questions
Q1) Chest tubes are indicated to remove which of the following from a patient's thoracic cavity?
I.Pus
II.Air
III.Blood
IV.Fluid
A)I and II
B)III and IV
C)II only
D)I,II,III,IV
Q2) What controls the amount of suction applied to a patient's chest tube?
A)The vacuum regulator on the wall outlet
B)The depth of water in the suction control chamber
C)The direction the chest tube is positioned in the patient's chest
D)The diameter of the patient's chest tube
Q3) What should be done to the connections of the chest tube to prevent leaks?
A)Apply a water soluble jelly to the connections
B)Tape the connections with a watertight /airtight tape
C)Cut the ends of the connections to make them wider
D)Dry the connections with sterile gauze
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 24
Chapter 23: Insertion and Maintenance of Intravenous Lines
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44616
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the preferred IV site on an adult patient?
A)The smallest artery that can be accessed
B)In the radial artery of the non-dominant hand
C)The temporal vein
D)A vein on the non-dominant hand or arm of the patient
Q2) What is inflammation of the vein called?
A)Phlebitis
B)Cellulitis
C)Thrombosis
D)Arteriosclerosis
Q3) A 0.225% NaCl solution is classified as which type of solution?
A)Hypotonic solution
B)Hypertonic solution
C)Isotonic solution
D)Lactated Ringer's solution
Q4) What is the purpose of transparent dressings on a IV?
Q5) What happens to the small air bubbles that pass through the IV tubing and enter into the patient?
Q6) You are asked to start an IV on a 94 year-old,115 lb (52.3 kg)patient.What precautions,if any,should you take with this geriatric patient?
Page 25
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 24: Noninvasive Positive-Pressure Ventilation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44617
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is set up on NPPV without humidification.Which of the following should the practitioner tell the nurse are potential hazards of inadequate humidification?
A)Drying of the respiratory mucosa
B)Mucous plugging
C)Gastric insufflation
D)a and b
Q2) If the patient's airway resistance increases during NPPV,what will happen to the patient's inspiratory time?
A)Inspiratory time will increase
B)Inspiratory time will decrease
C)The inspiratory time will not change
D)The inspiratory time will decrease if the compliance increases
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a nasal mask for NPPV?
A)Improved verbal communication
B)Decreased risk of aspiration
C)Ability to eat and drink
D)Improved humidification
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 25: Continuous Mechanical Ventilation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44618
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference in calculating dynamic compliance vs static compliance?
Q2) How is tubing compliance determined?
Q3) A practitioner is assigned to a patient on a ventilator.Which of the following is the most appropriate time to do a patient-ventilator system check?
A)After obtaining an arterial blood gas sample.
B)After obtaining a cardiac output measurement.
C)After making changes in the ventilator settings.
D)Prior to changing from PEEP level.
Q4) Recommend tidal volume for initial ventilator setting is
A)400 mL for women and 500 ml for men.
B)4-9 mL/Kg of ideal body weight.
C)10-15 mL/kg of ideal body weight.
D)800 mL for both males and females.
Q5) A practitioner should not use the assist ventilation mode in which of the following conditions?
A)Asthmatic patient prior to extubation
B)Congestive heart failure after delivery of diuretics
C)Resolving pneumonia
D)Post-operative abdominal surgery with sedation
Page 27
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 26: Advanced Modes of Mechanical Ventilation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44619
Sample Questions
Q1) A respiratory care practitioner may use which of the following to eliminate the airway resistance caused by an artificial airway?
A)APRV
B)Automatic tube compensation
C)Inverse ratio ventilation
D)Automode
Q2) The practitioner wants to improve the gas exchange and reduce sedation for a patient on pressure control ventilation.The therapist should consider
A)decreasing plateau pressure.
B)switching to volume assist control ventilation.
C)changing to APRV.
D)increasing the PEEP.
Q3) The Nellcor Puritan Bennett 840 recommends an operational check of the BDU,sensors,resistance and compliance of the circuit prior to use.This is called
A)tubing compliance.
B)The short self test.
C)the power on self test
D)the user verification test
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 28
Chapter 27: Wave Form Analysis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44620
Sample Questions
Q1) If the volume wave form does not reach zero on exhalation,the practitioner can determine which of the following?
A)Air trapping is present
B)PEEP has been turned on
C)There are secretions in the airway that should be suctioned
D)Tidal volume control is set too low
Q2) You have just place a patient with early ARDS onto a mechanical ventilator.Using ventilator graphics how will you monitor the patient's changing lung compliance?
Q3) As the respiratory care practitioner assigned to a ventilator patient,how would you use ventilator graphics to identify patient effort?
Q4) A breath that rises and then remains at a specific cmH O pressure for varying lengths of inspiratory is which type of breath?
A)Spontaneous
B)Volume control
C)Pressure support
D)Pressure control
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
29
Chapter 28: Weaning and Discontinuance of Mechanical Ventilation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44621
Sample Questions
Q1) What should the respiratory therapist do if the patient does not pass the SBT?
Q2) What four general questions should the respiratory care practitioner assess prior to weaning from mechanical ventilation?
Q3) Which of the following is the best predictor of successfully weaning a patient from a ventilator?
A)f/Vt ratio of less than 105
B)PaO /FIO ratio greater than 150-200
C)VD/VT ratio less than 0.55-0.60
D)MIP less than -20 to -30 cm H O
Q4) A patient with an irreversible disease,like high spinal cord injury,should not be considered permanently ventilator dependent until __________________
A)a fenestrated tracheostomy tube is inserted.
B)there are three or more apneas per day.
C)3 months of weaning attempts have failed.
D)all of the above
Q5) How do cardiovascular problems result in ventilator dependence?
Q6) How do respiratory conditions result in ventilator dependence?
Q7) How do neurological problems result in ventilator dependence?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 30
Chapter 29: Neonatal Mechanical Ventilation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44622
Sample Questions
Q1) Describe how the initial newborn ventilator setting are determined for tidal volume,oxygen percent and PEEP/CPAP
Q2) Which of the following is a complication due to high PaO levels?
A)Barotrauma
B)Retinopathy of prematurity
C)Reduced intracranial pressure
D)Subcutaneous emphysema
Q3) According to the retired AARC Clinical Practice Guidelines for Patient Ventilator System checks,how often should patient ventilator checks be done?
A)Hourly
B)Every 2-4 hours
C)Every 2-4 hours until hs then every 6 hrs
D)No specific recommendations are given.
Q4) Which of the following indicates poor ventilatory status?
A)PaO less than 50 mmHg
B)SPO below 60%
C)PaCO greater than 55 mmHg
D)pH greater than 7.35
Q5) Describe the 5 characteristics of the Apgar scoring system.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 31