Respiratory Therapy Procedures
Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Respiratory Therapy Procedures provides students with comprehensive knowledge and hands-on skills essential to the practice of respiratory care. The course covers the assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation of therapeutic interventions for patients with acute and chronic cardiopulmonary disorders. Students will learn to administer oxygen therapy, perform airway management, operate mechanical ventilators, assist with bronchial hygiene therapies, and utilize diagnostic tools such as arterial blood gas analysis and pulmonary function testing. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based practices, infection control, interprofessional collaboration, and patient education, preparing students to deliver safe and effective respiratory care in clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Clinical Lab Competencies for Respiratory Care An Integrated Approach 5th Edition by Gary
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Basics of Asepsis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are precautions that should be taken with sharps?
1)Do not attempt to force a needle or sharp instrument into an already full container.
2)Do not attempt to remove discarded needles or syringes from sharps containers.
3)Do not ever attempt to recap a needle.
A)2 and 3
B)1,2,3
C)1 only
D)3 only
Answer: B
Q2) What precaution should be followed for all health care settings and with all patients regardless of diagnosis?
A) Standard precautions
B) Use of a cover gown
C) Use of a mask
D) Droplet precautions
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Basic Patient Assessment: Vital Signs and Breath
Sounds
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Q1) The practitioner auscultates the chest of an asthmatic patient and notes wheezing bilaterally.When describing the wheezing,what things should be documented when charting these breath sounds?
I.Location
II.Intensity
III.Inspiratory or expiratory
IV.Pitch of the wheezing sounds
A) I and II
B) III and IV
C) III only
D) I, II, III, IV
Answer: D
Q2) A patient is brought to the emergency department after being involved in a motor vehicle accident.She has had massive blood loss and hypotension.What should the practitioner expect the heart rate to be?
A) Tachycardic
B) Bradycardic
C) High pulse pressure
D) Absent
Answer: A
4
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Chapter 3: Advanced Patient Assessment: Inspection,
Palpation, and Percussion
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Q1) Immediately lateral to the sternal angle is (are)the _________________.
A) fourth rib.
B) clavicles.
C) manubrium.
D) second rib.
Answer: D
Q2) What is normal I:E ratio?
A) 1:2
B) 1:4
C) 1:6
D) 1:8
Answer: A
Q3) What is defined as vibration felt on the palpation of the chest during phonation,or speech?
A) Pectus carinatum
B) Subcutaneous emphysema
C) Tactile fremitus
D) Hyperresonance
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Radiologic Assessment
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Q1) A 2 year-old patient is admitted to the emergency department with a suspicion of epiglottitis.Which of the following would you recommend to confirm the diagnosis?
A) Lateral neck
B) Lateral chest
C) Apical lordotic
D) Left or right anterior oblique
Q2) The most radiodense material viewed on a chest x-ray will _______________.
A) appear black.
B) not show up on a standard chest x-ray.
C) appear as gray shadows.
D) appear white.
Q3) The respiratory care practitioner evaluates the patient's chest x-ray to determine any abnormalities.The practitioner evaluates the lung field and the diaphragms.Which hemidiaphragm should be higher than the other?
A) The right hemidiaphragm
B) The left hemidiaphragm
C) They both should be at the same level
D) The hemidiaphragm over the stomach
Q4) What can be evaluated on a chest radiograph besides the heart and lungs?
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Chapter 5: Pulmonary Function Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which gas law or calculation is used in the body plethysmograph to measure lung volumes?
A) Nitrogen Washout Law
B) Boyles' Law
C) C1V1 = C2V2
D) Gas Dilution Technique
Q2) If a patient's minute volume is measured at 3 LPM,which of the following would you expect to be present?
I.Hypoxemia
II.Hypocapnia
III.More gas exchange at the alveolar level
A) I only
B) I, II, III
C) II and III
D) II only
Q3) The patient's tidal volume can be calculated by ________________
A) MVV divided by the respiratory rate.
B) Vt multiplied by the respiratory rate.
C) Vt divided by the respiratory rate.
D) Vt divided by the MVV.
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Chapter 6: Electrocardiography
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Q1) What lead is placed 5th intercostal space,mid-axillary line?
A) V6
B) V5
C) V4
D) V3
Q2) Which of the following waves in an ECG tracing represents ventricular repolarization?
A) 'P' wave
B) 'QRS' complex
C) 'T' wave
D) 'U' wave
Q3) A female patient comes to the emergency department complaining of chest pain.She is from a very conservative culture and objects to a male performing her EKG.How should the male practitioner approach this problem since no female is available to do the EKG?
Q4) Which of the following is the heart's pacemaker?
A) Right and left bundle branches
B) Vagus nerve
C) AV node
D) SA node
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Chapter 7: Phlebotomy
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Q1) What is the therapist's obligation to the lab related to the performance of phlebotomy?
A) Use of aseptic techniques to prevent contamination of the specimen.
B) Labeling each blood sample correctly with the patient's identification.
C) Properly dress the blood draw site after the sample is drawn
D) a and b
Q2) Which of the following techniques will reduce the probability of infection with a blood draw?
A) Proper cover over the site
B) Good aseptic technique before venipuncture
C) Reviewing the chart for infections
D) Both a and b
Q3) Which of the following transporting methods is LEAST reliable?
A) The drawing therapist carrying the blood to the lab him- or herself
B) The lab picks up the blood samples at some collection point
C) Sending the blood specimen through the pneumatic tube system
D) Having another therapist carry the blood sample to the lab
Q4) How does the phlebotomist gain the confidence of the patient for a blood draw?
Q5) How can the phlebotomist enhance sites to draw blood from a patient?
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Chapter 8: Arterial Blood Gas Sampling
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Q1) Hyperventilation may lower the patient's ___________
A) PaCO .
B) anxiety.
C) pH.
D) PaO .
Q2) What is the purpose of the modified Allen's test?
A) To determine the adequacy of circulation supplied by the ulnar artery
B) To determine the adequacy of circulation supplied by the brachial artery
C) To determine the adequacy of circulation supplied by the radial artery
D) To determine the adequacy of circulation supplied by the femoral artery
Q3) Pressure should be held after arterial blood gas sampling for a minimum of _____________.
A) 5 minutes.
B) 1 minute.
C) 20 to 30 minutes.
D) 15 minutes.
Q4) How should the practitioner ensure that the arterial line's measured blood pressure is accurate?
Q5) What should the practitioner teach the patient concerning an arterial line?
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Chapter 9: Hemodynamic Monitoring
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the 2 main concepts in Pascal's law?
I.Cardiac output = stroke volume X rate.
II.The pressure of a fluid in a closed container is equal at all points within the container.
III.The pressure acts perpendicularly against the walls of the container.
IV.The pressure of the systemic vessels is proportional to the viscosity of the fluid.
A) II and IV
B) I and III
C) I and IV
D) II and III
Q2) During diastole when the ventricles are filling,the tricuspid valve is open,allowing the pressure in the right ventricle to be reflected back to the vena cava.Which law does this represent?
A) Starling's law
B) Pousieille's law
C) Dalton's law
D) Pascal's law
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Chapter 10: Noninvasive Monitoring
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Q1) Which of the following areas of the body can be used as probes sites for a pulse oximeter?
I.Ear
II.Finger
III.Toes
IV.Foot
A) I and II only
B) I, II, III, and IV
C) III and IV only
D) II, III, and IV only
Q2) How do the transcutaneous PO and PCO arterialize the sample site?
A) Oximetry
B) Red and infrared light
C) Photospectrometry
D) Heat
Q3) Pressure sores are a potential hazard of __________________.
A) pulse oximetry monitoring.
B) transcutaneous CO monitoring.
C) transcutaneous O monitoring.
D) end-tidal CO monitoring.
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Chapter 11: Documentation and Goals Assessment
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Q1) Legally,if an event is not documented in the patient's medical record,_______________.
A) it can be documented up to one week after the event.
B) it can be charged to the patient's hospital bill.
C) it was not done.
D) it is valid only if the patient remembers the event.
Q2) How are entries entered into the medical record?
A) In chronological order
B) In random order
C) In order of department
D) Alphabetical order
Q3) A patient was given a respiratory treatment by a practitioner who did not chart the treatment immediately on the patient's chart due to an excessive workload.Ultimately,the treatment was not charted on the medical record.What problem is associated with the therapist's judgement?
Q4) How is the history of the patient obtained by the physician?
A) From the patient
B) From the physical examination
C) From the patient's family
D) a and c
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Oxygen Supply Systems
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Q1) What is the color code for a helium and oxygen mixture?
A) White
B) Brown
C) Brown and green
D) Gray and green
Q2) A piping system is required to have a reserve or backup supply of oxygen.What is the minimum amount of time the reserve system must be able to meet a facility's oxygen needs?
A) 12 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 36 hours
D) 48 hours
Q3) Hydrostatic testing is required for all cylinders every _____________
A) year.
B) 5 to 10 years.
C) 10 to 15 years.
D) 15 to 20 years.
Q4) You attach a pressure reducing valve to a 'M' sized gas cylinder.When you open the cylinder valve you hear gas leaking from of near the valve-cylinder connection.What should you do?
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Oxygen Administration
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Q1) Which type of oxygen analyzer uses an oxidation-reduction reaction to measure the FO of an oxygen sample?
A) Galvanic oxygen analyzer
B) Polarographic oxygen analyzer
C) Electrical oxygen analyzer
D) a and b
Q2) The oxygen percentage being delivered to a newborn by way of an oxygen hood needs to be analyzed.Where should the oxygen within the hood be analyzed?
A) At the oxygen source outlet
B) Any place where the analyzer probe can be placed
C) As close to the patient's airway as possible
D) At the highest point of the oxygen hood
Q3) A patient is admitted to the emergency department.The patient's minute volume is steady and an exact FIO is not required.Which oxygen delivery device would be best to administer approximately 30% oxygen?
A) 40% Venturi
B) Nasal cannula at 2.5 LPM
C) Simple oxygen mask at 7 LPM
D) Non rebreathing mask at 15 LPM
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Introduction to Respiratory Care Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the receptor sites that are located in the peripheral vasculature,the heart,bronchial muscle,and bronchial blood vessels?
A) Beta 2 receptors
B) Gamma receptors
C) Alpha receptors
D) Beta 1 receptors
Q2) Salmeterol and Fluticasone are combined into a DPI preparation.What is the purpose of these two drugs combined?
A) Maintenance bronchodilation and Mast cell stabilization
B) Mucolysis and anti-inflammation
C) Bronchodilation by stimulating the sympathetic nervous system and inhibiting the parasympathetic nervous system
D) Maintenance bronchodilation and anti-inflammation
Q3) Which of the following would NOT cause a bronchospasm or bronchoconstriction?
A) Leukotrienes
B) Beta 1 receptors
C) Histamine
D) Prostaglandins
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Chapter 15: Humidity and Aerosol Therapy
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Q1) If a gas is fully saturated with water vapor (100% saturated),what can be stated about the gas?
A) It is at body humidity.
B) It is at maximum humidity.
C) The relative humidity is 50%.
D) The temperature of the gas is 37°C.
Q2) Despite having the flowrate set on 15 LPM on a 30% aerosol to a T-piece,there is very little aerosol seen coming out of the aerosol tubing.What should the practitioner check?
Q3) Which type of humidifier is described as a small hygroscopic device placed proximal to a patient's artificial airway,where it absorbs water vapor from the patient's exhaled gas.When the patient breathes or the mechanical ventilator delivers the next breath,moisture in the device evaporates,humidifying the airway?
A) Bubble humidifier
B) Conventional humidifier
C) Wick humidifier
D) Heat and moisture exchanger (HME)
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Chapter 16: Bronchial Hygiene Therapy
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Q1) Vibration is an isometric maneuver performed with the arm and hand.It is only performed on:
A) inspiration.
B) the posterior portion of the chest.
C) expiration.
D) areas of the chest not percussed.
Q2) Lifting should be performed with the ________________ A) back.
B) legs.
C) arms.
D) fingers.
Q3) A patient with cystic fibrosis is going to be sent home.The physician wants the practitioner to recommend bronchial hygiene at home.The patient has an active lifestyle and both parents have arthritis and cannot perform percussion and postural drainage (PPD)on the patient.What should be recommended for the patient?
Q4) A patient who is receiving postural drainage and percussion desaturates during therapy,complains of dizziness,and states he cannot tolerate the treatment any longer.What should the practitioner do?
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18
Chapter 17: Hyperinflation Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 35 year-old patient is admitted for gall bladder surgery.The patient has a 40 pack/year smoking history,and has a past history of minor health problems.Breath sounds reveal expiratory wheezing and coarse crackles bilaterally.The patient is 5'6" and weighs 250 lbs.What risk factors does this patient have for post-operative atelectasis and what should be done?
Q2) During IPV,what happens to the peak pressures during percussion when the source pressure is increased?
A) The peak pressures decrease
B) The peak pressures increase
C) Nothing, but the frequency of the percussion increases
D) The peak pressures remain the same as preset at the factory
Q3) What is defined as a combination of high-frequency phased pulse gas delivery and the administration of a dense aerosol?
A) Incentive spirometry (IS)
B) Intermittent positive pressure breathing (IPPB) therapy
C) Intrapulmonary percussive ventilation (IPV) therapy
D) High frequency chest wall oscillation (HFCWO) therapy
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Chapter 18: Bronchoscopy Assisting
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Q1) Which type of brush/needle/mechanical device is/are used to obtain a sample that cannot become contaminated during retrieval through the suction channel?
A) Unsheathed cytology brush
B) Sheathed cytology brush
C) Forceps
D) Wang needle
Q2) Which type of sample obtained by bronchoscopic analysis should be fixated in a formalin solution?
A) Sample for cytological analysis
B) Sample for histological analysis
C) Sample for microbiological analysis
D) Sample for fungal analysis
Q3) What procedure should follow a bronchoscopic procedure involving a transbronchial biopsy?
A) Microscopic sputum examination
B) Chest x-ray
C) Mechanical ventilation
D) Bronchoalveolar lavage
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Chapter 19: Equipment Processing and Surveillance
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Q1) Which of the following processes are disinfection methods?
I.Steam autoclaving
II.Pasteurization
III.Ethylene oxide
IV.Glutaraldehyde
V.Quaternary ammonium compounds
A) I, III, IV
B) II and V
C) III, IV, V
D) I only
Q2) What is defined as the complete destruction of all forms of microorganisms,including spores?
A) Antisepsis
B) Sterilization
C) Disinfection
D) Pasteurization
Q3) A serious H1N1 influenza outbreak takes place in a skilled care facility.Outline the isolation methods and treatments that should be implemented to help prevent the spread of the virus.
Q4) What types of vaccines should a health care worker undergo routinely?
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Chapter 20: Emergency Airway Management
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Q1) A respiratory care practitioner is attempting to place an oral endotracheal tube in a patient.The attempt is unsuccessful.What should be done before attempted reintubation?
A) Reventilation
B) Reoxygenation
C) Suctioning the airway
D) a and b
Q2) What is the purpose of all valves used in manual resuscitators?
A) To determine the compliance of a patient's lung and thorax
B) To deliver gas to the patient during inspiration
C) To allow the patient to exhale to the ambient atmosphere on exhalation
D) b and c
Q3) A patient is intubated and the physician would like the respiratory care practitioner to use a manual resuscitator to deliver 100% oxygen.Which of the following devices could be used to satisfy the order?
A) Self-inflating resuscitator
B) Flow-inflating resuscitator
C) Gas-powered resuscitator
D) All of these devices
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Artificial Airway Care
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Q1) A physician orders nasotracheal suctioning to be done as needed on a 72 year-old patient with pneumonia.Which of the following would indicate that the patient may have problems clearing secretions from the large/central airways?
I.Decreased tactile fremitus
II.Increased tactile fremitus
III.Clear chest radiograph
IV.Diminished breath sounds
A) I and III
B) II and IV
C) I only
D) II, III, and IV
Q2) Tissue trauma is a hazard of suctioning.All of the following will prevent tissue trauma
EXCEPT ____________________
A) hyperinflation of the patient's lungs before and after the procedure.
B) limiting the suction attempt to no more than 15-seconds.
C) vacuum pressures between -80 and -120 mmHg.
D) pressures should be set as low as possible while still permitting effective removal of secretions.
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Chapter 22: Chest Tubes
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Q1) If the respiratory care practitioner observes continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber,what is the problem causing this phenomenon?
A) Air leak within the thorax
B) Air leak on the chest tube
C) Air leak at the tubing connections
D) Any of these
Q2) A patient with a chest tube in place suddenly develops chest pain and severe respiratory distress.What could be causing this?
Q3) What should be done to the connections of the chest tube to prevent leaks?
A) Apply a water soluble jelly to the connections
B) Tape the connections with a watertight /airtight tape
C) Cut the ends of the connections to make them wider
D) Dry the connections with sterile gauze
Q4) After insertion of a chest tube,how should the position of the chest tube be assessed?
A) By auscultating the patient's chest
B) By percussing the patient's thoracic cavity
C) By having the patient cough and observing the drainage chamber bottle
D) By obtaining a chest radiograph
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Chapter 23: Insertion and Maintenance of Intravenous Lines
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Q1) You are asked to start an IV on a 94 year-old,115 lb (52.3 kg)patient.What precautions,if any,should you take with this geriatric patient?
Q2) What is an IV solution called that has the same tonicity as measured by solute concentration?
A) Hypotonic solution
B) Lactated Ringer's solution
C) Hypertonic solution
D) Isotonic solution
Q3) What is inflammation of the vein called?
A) Phlebitis
B) Cellulitis
C) Thrombosis
D) Arteriosclerosis
Q4) A 0.225% NaCl solution is classified as which type of solution?
A) Hypotonic solution
B) Hypertonic solution
C) Isotonic solution
D) Lactated Ringer's solution
Q5) What is the purpose of transparent dressings on a IV?
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Chapter 24: Noninvasive Positive-Pressure Ventilation
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Q1) In the spontaneous mode of NPPV,how long is the EPAP pressure maintained during the expiratory phase?
A) Until the ventilator senses the next spontaneous breath
B) After a set amount of time
C) Until the % EPAP time has expired
D) Until a specific volume is delivered to the patient
Q2) The post-operative patient is placed on NPPV to increase alveolar ventilation.After 4 hours the patient has arterial blood gases drawn that reveal hypoxemia and hypercarbia.Which of the following could be the cause of these arterial blood gas abnormality?
A) A proper size fitting face mask
B) A leak in the NPPV circuitry
C) A pressure sore on the patient's face
D) Too much pressure being delivered
Q3) If the patient's airway resistance increases during NPPV,what will happen to the patient's inspiratory time?
A) Inspiratory time will increase
B) Inspiratory time will decrease
C) The inspiratory time will not change
D) The inspiratory time will decrease if the compliance increases
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Chapter 25: Continuous Mechanical Ventilation
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Q1) The high pressure limit alarm is used to ____________________
A) prevent ventilator disconnect from the patient.
B) protect the lungs from over distention and injury.
C) identify when unauthorized individuals decrease the volume setting.
D) adjust the pressure limit in PCV.
Q2) Use of high pressure,large volume and increased oxygen tension can result in
A) VAP (ventilator associated pneumonia).
B) VILI (ventilator induced lung injury).
C) RSBI (rapid shallow breathing index).
D) MOV (maximum occluding volume).
Q3) In the face of changing airway resistance or thoracic compliance,which of the following will occur in volume ventilation?
A) Pressure is selected as the controlled variable
B) Volume will change while pressure will stay the same
C) Pressure will vary but the tidal volume will remain unchanged
D) Pressure will stay the same but FIO will vary with back pressure
Q4) How does a practitioner measure airway resistance on a ventilator?
Q5) What is the difference in calculating dynamic compliance vs static compliance?
Q6) How is tubing compliance determined?
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Advanced Modes of Mechanical Ventilation
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Q1) Tidal volume delivery during APRV is __________________
A) affected by lung compliance.
B) affected by airway resistance.
C) affected by Phigh and Plow.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Benefits of APRV are which of the following?
A) Increased secretion mobilization
B) Improved gas exchange, reduced dead space, less sedation
C) Reduction of ventilating pressures
D) Reversal of bronchospasm
Q3) Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation is _______________________
A) spontaneous breathing between machine breaths.
B) periodic pressure breathing in between volume breaths.
C) the same as control ventilation.
D) used to improve arterial oxygenation.
Q4) What is the key indicator of ventilation?
A) Tidal volume
B) RSBI
C) PaCO
D) PaO
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Chapter 27: Wave Form Analysis
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Q1) The respiratory care practitioner wants to use the graphic display to determine the ventilator's tidal volume.Which of the following should he do?
A) Read the Vt from the horizontal axis of the pressure time display
B) Read the Vt from the vertical axis of the volume time display
C) Read the Vt from the horizontal axis of the volume time display
D) Read the Vt from the vertical axis of the flow volume display
Q2) Combinations of ventilator wave forms can indicate __________________
A) Airway resistance
B) Air trapping
C) Increased work of breathing
D) All of the above
Q3) The wave form variables of flow,volume and pressure are most often plotted against
A) SpO .
B) mode.
C) time.
D) FIO .
Q4) Which graphic displays can indicate adequacy of inspiratory flow during a ventilator inspiration and how are they used?
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Chapter 28: Weaning and Discontinuance of Mechanical Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory care practitioner must be aware that a patient may be difficult to wean from the ventilator if ___________________
A) they are deprived of sleep due to activity, lights and noise in the ICU.
B) they are psychologically dependent on the machine.
C) they are still on significant levels of sedation.
D) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is true of the method of ventilator weaning called spontaneous breathing trials (SBT)?
A) Mechanical ventilation can be discontinued if patient cannot tolerate as little as 30 minutes off
B) SBT is the same as SIMV mode of ventilation
C) Measurements of cardiac output and SvO are essential
D) Sedation can be given if a patient begins to have difficulty with breathing
Q3) Which of the following is true regarding a protocol?
A) It prevents non-therapists from performing respiratory care.
B) It reduces the need for continual physician input and involvement.
C) It can lengthen the time a patient spends on a ventilator.
D) It gives the respiratory care practitioner a duty that nurses are not allowed to perform.
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Chapter 29: Neonatal Mechanical Ventilation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40363
Sample Questions
Q1) According to the AARC Clinical Practice Guidelines for application of CPAP to neonates which of the following are true?
I.CPAP maintains inspiratory and expiratory pressure above ambient
II.CPAP improves static lung compliance
III.CPAP can decrease airway resistance
IV CPAP increases mean airway pressure
A) I, II, III and IV
B) I, II and III
C) II and III
D) I and III
Q2) According to the AARC Clinical Practice Guidelines for application of CPAP to neonates,which of the following is a contraindication for its use?
A) ROP
B) Need for intubation
C) Stable respiratory drive without apneas
D) Prematurity
Q3) Describe how the initial newborn ventilator alarm setting are determined.
Q4) Describe how the initial newborn ventilator setting are determined for inspiratory time,I:E ratio and peak inspiratory pressure.
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