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Respiratory Therapy is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the foundational knowledge and practical skills necessary for the assessment, treatment, and management of patients with acute and chronic respiratory disorders. The course covers topics such as respiratory anatomy and physiology, common pulmonary diseases, diagnostic procedures, therapeutic modalities, and the operation of respiratory care equipment. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking, patient-centered care, and interdisciplinary collaboration in both clinical and laboratory settings, preparing students for professional roles in hospitals, clinics, and other healthcare environments.
Recommended Textbook
Respiratory Disease A Case Study Approach to Patient Care 3rd Edition by James R. Dexter
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20 Chapters
484 Verified Questions
484 Flashcards
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75737
Sample Questions
Q1) What is indicated by abdominal paradox?
A)Liver failure
B)Heart failure
C)Diaphragm fatigue
D)CNS disorder
Answer: C
Q2) Your patient has emphysema.What breath sounds do you expect to hear over most of the chest?
A)Vesicular
B)Bronchial
C)Normal
D)Diminished
Answer: D
Q3) Your patient has pneumonia and is having an asthma attack.Which of the following mechanisms would be contributing to the sensation of dyspnea?
A)Increase in the work of breathing due to high airway resistance
B)Increase in the work of breathing due to low lung compliance
C)Increase in the drive to breathe due to hypoxemia
D)All the above
Answer: D
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24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are monitoring a patient during mechanical ventilation and the peak pressure is reaching 55 cm H<sub>2</sub>0.What problem does this potentially cause?
A)Barotrauma
B)Renal failure
C)Hypertension
D)Auto-PEEP
Answer: A
Q2) What is the primary problem with using IMV for weaning?
A)The work of breathing through the circuit
B)Difficult to monitor lung function
C)Time consuming
D)Poor patient tolerance
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is least likely to be associated with ventilatory failure?
A)Neuromuscular disease
B)Cervical spinal cord injury
C)Drug overdose
D)Pneumonia
Answer: D
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23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following ventilator settings or measurements is most concerning to you during mechanical ventilation of a patient with acute asthma?
A)Plateau pressure of 45 cm H<sub>2</sub>O
B)Inspiratory flow of 80 L/min
C)Tidal volume set at 6-8 mL/kg of ideal body weight
D)Mechanical rate of 10/min
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following medications has recently been developed and has been shown to decrease the incidence of exacerbations in asthmatics but is expensive?
A)Atrovent
B)Xolair
C)Albuterol
D)Methylprednisolone
Answer: B
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What classification of COPD patient can benefit from pulmonary rehabilitation?
A)Mild disease
B)Moderate disease
C)Severe disease
D)All the above
Q2) What clinical finding in the COPD patient suggests that long-term oxygen therapy is likely to benefit the patient?
A)Loud P-2
B)Diminished heart sounds
C)Diminished PMI
D)Diminished breath sounds
Q3) What treatment is probably the most important during the initial care of the COPD patient experiencing an acute exacerbation due to pneumonia?
A)Antibiotics
B)Oxygen therapy
C)Bronchodilators
D)Corticosteroids
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Sample Questions
Q1) What finding during chest auscultation would suggest a more advanced case of cystic fibrosis?
A)Expiratory wheezing
B)Loud P-2
C)Coarse crackles
D)A gallop rhythm
Q2) Your patient with cystic fibrosis appears to have a pulmonary infection.What organism is most likely involved?
A)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B)Klebsiella
C)Staphyolococcus aureus
D)E.coli
Q3) Which of the following statements is most true regarding the prognosis of cystic fibrosis patients today?
A)Most don't live past the age of 15 years
B)Many now live past the age of 30 years
C)The prognosis has not changed in the past several decades
D)The prognosis varies with age of diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary problem in patients with septic shock with regard to hemodynamics?
A)Elevated filling pressures
B)Reduced contractility
C)High fever
D)Low systemic vascular resistance
Q2) Your patient has a history of heart disease and is now complaining of chest pain.What finding on the ECG would suggest coronary hypoperfusion?
A)Elevated ST segment
B)Depressed ST segment
C)Inverted T waves
D)All the above
Q3) What therapy is often needed for the patient with septic shock?
A)Vasopressors
B)Bronchodilators
C)Positive inotropics
D)Diuretics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What finding is most common in the ECG of the patient with pulmonary thromboembolism?
A)Elevated ST segment
B)Normal
C)First degree block
D)Frequent PVCs
Q2) What is the most common initial treatment for a patient with a small or moderate PTE?
A)Oxygen
B)Bronchodilators
C)Heparin
D)Streptokinase
Q3) When a larger pulmonary thromboembolism occurs in the lung,why does cardiac output drop?
A)Decreased filling of the left ventricle
B)Increased systemic vascular resistance
C)Increased filling of the right ventricle
D)Reduced contractility
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75730
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following mechanisms is NOT helpful to the heart in compensating for a failing left ventricle and a falling cardiac output?
A)Increased contractility due to increased stretch
B)Increased heart rate due to release of epinephrine by the nervous system
C)Increased system vascular resistance due to release of catecholemines
D)Increased myocardial muscle thickness due to chronic high work load
Q2) Which of the following findings on the chest radiograph suggests a more severe case of congestive heart failure?
A)Pleural effusions
B)Kerley A and B lines
C)Widening of the pulmonary arteries
D)Interstitial edema
Q3) If your patient with heart failure develops bradycardia,what drug would you suggest to be used?
A)Atropine
B)Isuprel
C)Epinephrine
D)Norepinephrine
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is/are a potential mechanism for the ARDS that accompanies some burns?
A)Surfactant dysfunction
B)Increased capillary permeability
C)Bacterial sepsis
D)All the above
Q2) What accounts for reduced cardiac output in burn patients?
A)Decreased circulating blood volume
B)Sympathetic nervous system stimulation
C)Kidney failure
D)All the above
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a cause of increased mortality among burn victims?
A)Greater total body surface (TBSA)involvement
B)Women ages 30 to 55
C)Significant smoke inhalation
D)None of the above
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the hemodynamic and electrolyte effects of near drowning?
A)Near drowning victims rarely show severe electrolyte or hemoglobin abnormalities
B)Hematocrit levels can be used to determine whether fresh or salt water has be aspirated
C)The type of fluid aspirated is not important in determining the hemodynamic response to near drowning
D)Pulmonary vascular resistance is elevated when hypoxia is present regardless of the tonicity of the aspirated water
Q2) Which of the following physical examination findings is/are suggestive of neurologic injury?
A)Dilated pupils that respond poorly or not at all to light
B)Pulse rate below 60/min
C)Hypothermia
D)All the above
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following measurements is obtainable only with a Swan-Ganz catheter?
A)PCWP
B)SaO<sub>2</sub>
C)CVP
D)None of the above (all are obtainable with a Swan-Ganz catheter)
Q2) All the following statements are true regarding the use of static compliance measurements in monitoring the ARDS patient except:
A)Is indicative of lung stiffness only
B)Is obtained with the following formula: Cst = Vt / (Pstat-PEEP)
C)Is obtained using a short inspiratory hold after a volume-limited breath
D)Plateau pressures of <30 cwp are usually indicative of acceptable static compliance in the adult
Q3) Which of the following is a common cause of acute lung injury?
A)Sepsis
B)Severe trauma
C)Aspiration
D)All the above
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Sample Questions
Q1) Simple (non-tension)pneumothorax generally does not cause significant physiologic impairment until what percentage of the lung has collapsed?
A)>10%
B)>30%
C)>50%
D)>75%
Q2) Which of the following factors is considered by most experts to be the most important factor in predicting the severity of a penetrating wound from a projectile?
A)Length of the missile
B)Mass (weight)of the missile
C)Velocity of the missile
D)Design of the missile
Q3) The primary survey of a chest trauma patient should be rapid,evaluating all of the following except:
A)Vital signs,e.g.,airway,breathing,heart rate,and blood pressure
B)Life-threatening hemorrhage
C)Level of consciousness
D)Chest x-ray
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a typical pathophysiologic change associated with atelectasis?
A)V/Q mismatching and hypoxemia
B)Reduced lung compliance and an increased work of breathing
C)Overinflation of unaffected lung regions during mechanical ventilation
D)Poor diffusion of oxygen across the AC membrane due to edema
Q2) What therapy should be added to the COPD patient with postoperative atelectasis?
A)High FIO<sub>2</sub>
B)Bronchodilators and humidity therapy
C)Ultrasonic mist with mucolytics
D)Intravenous steroids
Q3) What prior diagnosis increases the risk of postoperative atelectasis due to mucus plugging?
A)Chronic bronchitis
B)Pulmonary fibrosis
C)Sarcoidosis
D)Congestive heart failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) What medication is most commonly used to suppress the inflammatory process associated with ILD?
A)Acetaminophen
B)Solubilized ibuprofen
C)Prednisone
D)Amoxicillin
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of CT scan in ILD?
A)Normal CT examines slices of the tissue,10 mm thick
B)High-resolution CT scan increases the patient's exposure to radiation
C)High-resolution CT uses 1 mm thick "cuts" to examine the lung
D)All the above
Q3) Nitroturantoin,a well-known cause of ILD,belongs to which class of drugs?
A)Antibiotics
B)Chemotherapeutics
C)Anti-inflammatory
D)Cardiovascular
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory complications arising from neuromuscular conditions follow which of these sequences?
A)Respiratory muscle compromise \(\to\) decrease in lung volumes \(\to\) tachypnea \(\to\) dyspnea \(\to\) poor cough \(\to\) inability to express secretions \(\to\) mucus plugging \(\to\) atelectasis \(\to\) pneumonia
B)Decrease in lung volumes \(\to\) respiratory muscle compromise \(\to\) dyspnea \(\to\) tachpnea \(\to\) inability to express secretions \(\to\) poor cough \(\to\) mucus plugging \(\to\) pneumonia \(\to\) atelectasis
C)Either sequence is possible
D)Neither sequence is correct
Q2) Where does the phrenic nerve arise from the spine?
A)C1 to C2
B)C3 to C5
C)C5 to C7
D)T1 to T3
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these organisms is not a cause of pneumonia?
A)Viruses
B)Fungi
C)Algae
D)Bacteria
Q2) Criteria for a poor sputum sample include all of the following except
A)Many squamous epithelial cells surround the flora on the microscope slide
B)Sample was obtained from mouth in such a way as to suggest patient was merely clearing throat or spitting
C)No or very few WBCs are present in the sample
D)The sample was aspirated aseptically and taken to the lab promptly
Q3) What is the significance of increased immature WBCs (bands)in the peripheral blood?
A)Bacterial infection stimulates the bone marrow
B)Worsening infection may necessitate younger "soldiers"
C)A and B are correct
D)Significant only if all other blood cell types are elevated
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these is not a subgroup of T lymphocytes?
A)Helper T cells
B)Natural killer T cells
C)Polymorphonuclear T cells
D)Suppressor T cells
Q2) Which of the following white blood cells is the most common granulocyte and also has the most phagocytic capabillities?
A)Basophil
B)Neutrophil
C)Eosinophil
D)Monocyte
Q3) Which of these is not an autoimmune disease?
A)Rheumatoid arthritis
B)Leprosy
C)Scleroderma
D)Systemic lupus erythematosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following problems suggests that a sleep study should be done on a patient despite a lack of the obvious signs of sleep apnea?
A)Poorly controlled hypertension
B)Secondary polycythemia
C)Pulmonary hypertension
D)All the above
Q2) Your patient has an apnea/hypopnea index of 36.How severe is the problem in this case?
A)Mild
B)Moderate
C)Severe
D)Very severe
Q3) What is the treatment of choice for the patient with moderate to severe obstructive sleep apnea?
A)CPAP
B)Oral appliances
C)Surgery
D)Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are know to increase the risk of reactivating dormant TB?
A)Malnutrition
B)Alcohol abuse
C)Diabetes
D)All the above
Q2) The infected site in the lung is walled off by fibrosis in TB patients.What is this lung lesion called?
A)A lexon nodule
B)A primary TB nodule
C)A Hoover complex
D)A Ghon nodule
Q3) Which of the following is true regarding the use of laboratory data in the evaluation of a patient with TB?
A)The WBC count is usually elevated
B)A mild anemia is seen in chronic TB
C)Immature white cell counts usually decrease with TB
D)An anion gap is often seen
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75718
Sample Questions
Q1) What are the two most common clinical manifestations associated with the presence of bronchogenic carcinoma?
A)Fever and hemoptysis
B)Cough and fever
C)Dyspnea and weight loss
D)Cough and weight loss
Q2) Your patient has a solitary pulmonary nodule ("coin lesion")as seen on the chest radiograph.What characteristic(s)is/are used to describe this lesion?
A)It is a focal lesion surrounded by aerated lung
B)It is described in terms of margination
C)It is described in terms of size and shape
D)All the above
Q3) What are the criteria for an exudative pleural effusion?
A)Elevated LDH
B)Elevated pleural protein level
C)Both A and B
D)Neither A nor B
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