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Respiratory Therapy Pharmacology is a specialized course that explores the principles and applications of medications used in the management of respiratory disorders. Students will gain an in-depth understanding of the pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, indications, contraindications, side effects, and therapeutic uses of drugs commonly administered in respiratory care settings, including bronchodilators, corticosteroids, mucolytics, and antibiotics. Emphasis is placed on safe medication administration, monitoring patient responses, and integrating pharmacological knowledge into comprehensive respiratory therapy care plans.
Recommended Textbook
Egans Fundamentals of Respiratory Care 9th Edition by Robert M. Kacmarek
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3410 Verified Questions
3410 Flashcards
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Q1) Today, respiratory care educational programs in the United States are accredited by what organization?
A)National Board for Respiratory Care (NBRC)
B)American Association for Respiratory Care (AARC)
C)Committee on Accreditation for Respiratory Care (CoARC)
D)Joint Review Committee for Respiratory Therapy Education (JRCRTE)
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following was one of the first positive-pressure ventilators developed?
A)MA-1
B)Bird Mark 7
C)Dräger Pulmotor
D)Engstrom
Answer: C
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Q1) Which of the following factors is important in determining the quality of care delivered by a respiratory therapist?
A)education
B)experience
C)training
D)all the above
E)none of the above

Answer: D
Q2) What is one advantage that has been shown of respiratory care protocols?
A)increase in the number of procedures performed by respiratory care providers
B)decrease in the overordering of respiratory care services
C)decrease in the cost savings to respiratory care departments
D)decrease in the cost of performing each respiratory care procedure
E)decrease in the demand for qualified respiratory care providers
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) To check on the results of a patient's recent blood work, you would go to which section of the medical record?
A)vital signs sheet
B)laboratory sheet
C)flowsheet
D)progress notes
Answer: B
Q2) What is the primary factor determining the effect of an electrical shock?
A)current
B)temperature
C)resistance
D)voltage
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the five key recommended components of an infection control program in the hospital setting?
A)development
B)surveillance
C)investigation
D)reporting
Q2) What is the recommended dilution level of bleach according to the CDC for cleaning up blood spills?
A)1:1
B)1:5
C)1:10
D)1:20
Q3) What should be used to wipe down the surface of devices that cannot be immersed in water?
A)70% ethyl alcohol
B)warm soapy water
C)strong detergent
D)bleach
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Q1) HIPAA primarily is referred to as the Privacy Rule and is concerned with PHI. What do the letters PHI stand for?
A)patient health information
B)protected health information
C)past health information
D)protected health insurance
Q2) Which of the following has played a major role in increasing the cost of health care?
A)beneficence
B)compensatory justice
C)distributive justice
D)role fidelity
Q3) What is the term for a civil wrong committed against an individual or property, for which a court provides a remedy in the form of damages?
A)tort
B)misdemeanor
C)felony
D)litigation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is/are TRUE about molecular water vapor?
I.Water vapor exhibits kinetic activity.
II.Molecular water vapor can be seen.
III.Water vapor exerts pressure.
A)I and II
B)II and III
C)I, II, and III
D)I and III
Q2) What is the internal force that opposes the flow of fluids (equivalent to friction between solid substances)?
A)conductivity
B)kinetic energy
C)viscosity
D)density
Q3) What is the equilibrium condition in which a gas holds all the water vapor molecules that it can?
A)evaporation
B)stabilization
C)saturation
D)body humidity
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Q1) What program offers access to medically underserved communities through the use of telephones and computer-based education?
A)telecare
B)teletreatment
C)telemedicine
D)teleheart
Q2) Which of the following devices would be most useful for point-of-care access to data bases related to evidence-based care?
A)laptop
B)desktop
C)personal digital assistant (PDA)
D)pocket file (PF)
Q3) What is the name of the database often purchased and used by hospitals and university libraries to provide key research information on a large variety of medical topics?
A)SPAN
B)OVID
C)CINUP
D)MITO
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Sample Questions
Q1) What position is used to open the airway in an unconscious patient?
A)neck extension
B)neck flexion
C)recovery position
D)sniff position
Q2) What is normal amount of anatomic deadspace found in a healthy lung?
A)1 ml/kg ideal body weight
B)2 ml/kg ideal body weight
C)3 ml/kg ideal body weight
D)4 ml/kg ideal body weight
Q3) Infants are more susceptible to profound hypoxemia than are adults.
A)true
B)false
C)unable to determine
Q4) Developmental morphogenesis of the human respiratory system can be categorized into:
A)three periods
B)five stages
C)6 weeks
D)40 weeks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where are the central centers responsible for regulating the cardiovascular system located?
A)aortic bodies
B)brainstem
C)carotid arteries
D)cerebral hemispheres
Q2) Toward the end of systole, as repolarization starts (indicated by the T wave), the ventricles begin to relax. Which of the following will occur next?
A)rapid rise in ventricular pressures
B)arterial pressures exceed ventricular pressures
C)closure of the atrioventricular valves
D)opening of semilunar valves
Q3) During blood loss due to hemorrhage, perfusing pressures can be kept near normal until the volume loss overwhelms the system. Why is this so?
A)Arteries constrict, increasing vascular resistance.
B)Arterioles dilate, decreasing vascular capacity.
C)Muscle vessels dilate, increasing vascular capacity.
D)Venules constrict, decreasing vascular capacity.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following factors would tend to increase the elastic component of the work of breathing?
I.decreased compliance of the lungs or thorax
II.high frequencies of breathing
III.increased V<sub>T</sub>
A)I and III
B)I, II, and III
C)II and III
D)I and II
Q2) During normal inspiration, which of the following occurs?
A)Alveoli at the apexes expand less than those at the bases.
B)Alveoli at the apexes expand more than those at the bases.
C)Alveoli at the bases expand less than those at the apexes.
D)Central alveoli expand more than those at the periphery.
Q3) Which of the following statements about alveolar pressure (P<sub>alv</sub>) during normal quiet breathing is true?
A)It is positive during inspiration and negative during expiration.
B)It is the same as intrapleural pressure (P<sub>pl</sub>).
C)It is negative during inspiration and positive during expiration.
D)It always remains less than atmospheric pressure.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following applies to the following reaction: Prot-NH<sub>2</sub> + CO<sub>2</sub> \(\leftrightarrow\) Prot-NHCOO<sup>-</sup> + H<sup>+</sup>?
A)About 20% of the total blood carbon dioxide is carried in this form.
B)It is second in importance to only the bicarbonate buffer system.
C)It represents the formation of blood carbamino compounds.
D)The resulting H<sup>+</sup> ions are buffered by reduced HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>.
Q2) What is the primary determinant of the PAO<sub>2</sub>?
A)body's \(\dot { V }\) CO<sub>2</sub>
B)metabolic rate of the body tissues
C)PaO<sub>2</sub>
D)PO<sub>2</sub> in the inspired gas
Q3) What role does the Bohr effect play in oxygen transport?
A)describes the affect of varying enzyme levels on Hb and oxygen affinity
B)diminishes tissue oxygenation due to electrolyte imbalances
C)enhances oxygen delivery to tissues and oxygen pickup at lungs
D)explains the affect that oxygen levels have on carbon dioxide transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a major extracellular electrolyte?
A)Cl<sup>-</sup>
B)HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
C)K<sup>+</sup>
D)Na<sup>+</sup>
Q2) If a patient's pH were to drop from 7.40 to 7.10, the H<sup>+</sup> concentration will increase by how much?
A)*2
B)*3
C)*5
D)*10
Q3) Insensible water loss occurs through what organs?
I.gastrointestinal tract
II.kidneys
III.lungs
IV.skin
A)III and IV
B)I, II, and IV
C)II and III
D)II and IV
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Sample Questions
Q1) In acute respiratory acidosis, what would you expect the BE range to be?
A)-4 to -6 mEq/L
B)+2 to -2 mEq/L
C)+4 to +6 mEq/L
D)+22 to +26 mEq/L
Q2) In the face of uncompensated respiratory acidosis, which of the following blood gas abnormalities would you expect to encounter?
I.decreased pH
II.increased HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
III.increased PCO<sub>2</sub>
IV.increased pH
A)I, II, and IV
B)I and III
C)III only
D)II, III, and IV
Q3) What is the main compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis?
A)excretion of HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
B)hyperventilation
C)hypoventilation
D)retention of CO<sub>2</sub>
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following centers respond more strongly to high levels of CO<sub>2</sub>?
A)aortic chemoreceptors
B)carotid chemoreceptors
C)central chemoreceptors
D)ventral respiratory centers
Q2) What negative responses can be elicited by suctioning a patient's airway?
I.bradycardia
II.coughing
III.laryngospasm
IV.severe bronchospasm
A)I, II, and III
B)II and IV
C)III only
D)I, II, III, and IV
Q3) What is the effect when the deflation reflex is stimulated?
A)a strong inspiratory effort
B)expiration is initiated
C)cuts off all inspiratory signals
D)stimulates the termination of expiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following causes decreased breath sounds?
I.air or fluid in the pleural space
II.hyperinflation of lung tissue
III.mucus plugging of the airways
IV.shallow or slow breathing
A)II and IV
B)I, II, and III
C)I, II, III, and IV
D)II, III, and IV
Q2) What term is used to describe difficult breathing in the reclining position?
A)orthopnea
B)platypnea
C)eupnea
D)apnea
Q3) What change in the patient's respiratory breathing pattern is commonly seen with significant fever?
A)slower rate
B)more rapid rate
C)more prolonged expiratory time
D)more prolonged inspiratory time
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following values represents a normal serum potassium level?
A)137 to 147 mEq/L
B)98 to 105 mEq/L
C)7 to 20 mEq/L
D)3.5 to 4.8 mEq/L
Q2) What term is used to describe a sodium concentration that is below normal in the blood serum?
A)hypokalemia
B)hyponatremia
C)hypocalcemia
D)hypochloremia
Q3) What should be done in response to a sputum sample that has many epithelial cells in it?
A)repeat Gram stain
B)sputum culture
C)sputum sensitivity
D)obtain new sputum sample
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Q1) The electrocardiogram (ECG) is primarily used to evaluate the patient with symptoms suggestive of acute myocardial disease.

A)True B)False
Q2) Which of the following waves represents depolarization of the ventricles?
A)P wave
B)QRS wave
C)T wave
D)U wave
Q3) An occasional premature ventricular complex (PVC) is not of major concern.
A)True B)False
Q4) Atrial flutter is considered to be a life-threatening arrhythmia.
A)True B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are grounds for finding an alternative site for arterial puncture except:
A)negative modified Allen test
B)history of peripheral vascular disease
C)anticoagulation therapy
D)presence of a surgical shunt
Q2) Which of the following indicates venous admixture during arterial puncture?
I.need to use syringe suction
II.dark-colored blood
III.small sample volumes
A)I and II
B)I and III
C)II and III
D)I, II, and III
Q3) Before connecting the sample syringe to an adult's arterial line stopcock, what would you do?
A)Flush the line and stopcock with the heparinized intravenous solution.
B)Aspirate at least 5 ml of fluid or blood using a waste syringe.
C)Align the stopcock off to the patient and on to the flush solution.
D)Increase the flush-solution bag pressure by 20 to 30 mm Hg.
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Sample Questions
Q1) After a resting expiration, air still remains in the lungs. What is this volume called?
A)functional residual capacity (FRC)
B)vital capacity (VC)
C)residual volume (RV)
D)expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
Q2) What is the most common lung volume measured during spirometry?
A)tidal volume
B)vital capacity
C)total lung capacity
D)expiratory reserve volume
Q3) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding measurement of the patient's forced vital capacity (FVC)?
A)The patient can be sitting or standing.
B)Nose clips are not required.
C)It is an effort-dependent test.
D)Accurate results can be obtained without patient cooperation.
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Q1) In what pulmonary condition does the chest radiograph often "lag behind" the clinical status of the patient?
A)pulmonary embolism
B)emphysema
C)pneumonia
D)congestive heart failure
Q2) Which radiographic view of the chest allows the physician to read the best quality film?
A)anteroposterior
B)posteroanterior
C)lateral
D)lordotic
Q3) What is the cause of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?
A)a virus
B)inhaled dusts
C)drug reaction
D)unknown
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Q1) Which of the following is associated with acute cardiac muscle weakness and potential cardiopulmonary failure?
A)hyperkalemia
B)hypophosphatemia
C)hypernatremia
D)low folic acid levels
Q2) What tube feeding method must be used when the food substance is delivered beyond the pylorus?
A)bolus
B)intermittent
C)continuous drip
D)pressurized
Q3) Which of the following situations is NOT an indication for enteral nutritional support?
A)burns over 30% of the body surface area
B)persistent inability to eat orally
C)severe pancreatitis
D)renal failure
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Q1) Which of the following types of pneumonia suggests that the patient acquired it because of the reactivation of a latent infection, often in the setting of immunosuppression?
A)cytomegalovirus
B)Haemophilus influenzae
C)histoplasmosis
D)Staphylococcus
Q2) In the patient suspected of having tuberculosis, what finding on Gram stain would result in the initiation of antituberculosis medications?
A)acid-fast bacilli
B)gram-negative rods
C)pleomorphic cocci
D)presence of gram-negative cocci
Q3) Which of the following symptoms is typical for pneumococcal pneumonia?
A)foul-smelling sputum
B)low-grade fever
C)minimal sputum production
D)pleuritic chest pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately how many individuals died of COPD in the United States in 2000?
A)120,000
B)210,000
C)550,000
D)1,000,000
Q2) What percentage of all cases of COPD is caused by an \(\alpha\)<sub>1</sub>-antitrypsin deficiency?
A)2% to 3%
B)10% to 15%
C)25% to 40%
D)50% to 75%
Q3) What stimulus is most commonly used in bronchoprovocation testing in the patient suspected to have asthma?
A)acetylcysteine
B)leukotriene inhibitors
C)methacholine
D)methylprednisolone
Q4) Which form of COPD is most common?
A)chronic bronchitis
B)emphysema
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Q1) Most patients with asbestosis have considerable asbestos exposure for many years before manifestation of the disease.

A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following interstitial lung diseases (ILDs) is NOT occupationally related?
A)asbestosis
B)berylliosis
C)sarcoidosis
D)silicosis
Q3) Chest radiographs will show hilar lymphadenopathy in most cases of asbestosis.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Iatrogenic pneumothorax is the most common type of traumatic pneumothorax.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What anatomical position is most likely to show the presence of a small pleural effusion in the upright chest radiograph?
A)apical regions
B)costophrenic angles
C)fissures
D)subdiaphragmatic region
Q3) What underlying lung disease is most often present in a patient with secondary spontaneous pneumothorax?
A)asthma
B)chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
C)interstitial pulmonary fibrosis
D)pneumonia
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Q1) What type of drug is Bosentan?
A)Corticosteroid
B)Endothelin antagonists
C)Phosphodiesterase inhibitors
D)Prostanoids
Q2) What percentage of the pulmonary vascular bed must be occluded by emboli before pulmonary hypertension occurs?
A)25%
B)33%
C)50%
D)75%
Q3) Venous thromboembolism is a major national health issue in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the main hemodynamic consequence of pulmonary emboli?
A)increased pulmonary vascular resistance
B)increased systemic vascular resistance
C)pulmonary instability
D)pulmonary vasodilation
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Q1) What time does the exudative phase of ARDS typically presents?
A)between days 1 and 3
B)between days 4 and 7
C)after 1 week
D)after 1 month
Q2) Which of the following systems is the primary operant to rid the body of fluid accumulation in nonpathologic conditions?
A)respiratory
B)cardiac
C)lymphatic
D)renal
Q3) Which of the following complications has been associated with the use of PEEP in patients with ARDS?
A)lung infection
B)reduced cardiac output
C)hepatic failure
D)myocardial infarction
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Q1) On a chest radiograph, large-cell carcinoma is commonly seen as what type of lesion?
A)central lesion
B)well-defined mass
C)bilateral nodules
D)unilateral nodules
Q2) What minimum size does a lesion in the lung need to be in order to be called a nodule?
A)1 cm
B)2 cm
C)3 cm
D)4 cm
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a common purpose for staging a case of lung cancer?
A)selection of therapy
B)assessment of extent of the disease
C)prognosis
D)etiology
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Q1) Cobb angles are used to measure the severity in which disorder of the thoracic cage?
A)ankylosing spondylitis
B)flail chest
C)scoliosis
D)pectus excavatum
Q2) What is the approximate mean age of onset for amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
A)26 years
B)36 years
C)46 years
D)56 years
Q3) Peripheral nerve disorders that cause respiratory muscle dysfunction can be caused by all of the following except:
A)inflammatory processes
B)vascular disorders
C)metabolic imbalances
D)fluid imbalances
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a parameter used to confirm the metabolic syndrome associated with obstructive sleep apnea?
A)low triglycerides
B)insulin resistance
C)hypertension
D)impaired glucose intolerance
Q2) Which of the following factors has been shown to positively correlate with obstructive sleep apnea?
A)age
B)height
C)obesity of the upper body
D)blood pressure at rest
Q3) The definition of sleep apnea uses what criteria for defining an episode of apnea?
A)5 seconds
B)10 seconds
C)15 seconds
D)20 seconds
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Q1) Which of the following therapies has little effect on long-term outcome such as mortality and duration of oxygen therapy in infants with BPD?
A)diuretics
B)steroids
C)antibiotics
D)bronchodilators
Q2) Which of the following diagnostic tools serves to confirm the diagnosis of CDH?
A)sweat test
B)fluoroscopy
C)chest radiography
D)ultrasound
Q3) What are the three fundamental pathophysiologic events that explain PPHN?
I.vascular spasm
II.hypoxemia
III.increased muscle wall thickness
IV.decreased cross-sectional area
A)I only
B)I and II
C)I and III
D)I, II, III, and IV
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Q1) Which of the following are assessment features for evaluating patient response to bronchodilator therapy?
I.reversibility of airflow obstruction
II.changes in flow rates using a peak flowmeter or portable spirometry
III.changes in vital signs
IV.changes in ventilation and oxygenation
V.the patient's subjective reaction to treatment
A)II, III, and IV
B)II, III, and V
C)I, II, III, and V
D)I, II, III, IV, and V
Q2) Which of the following antifungal dugs has been approved for inhalation?
A)amphotericin B
B)nystatin
C)isoconazole
D)no antifungal has yet been approved
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Q1) Repeated connecting and disconnecting of a cuff pressure manometer to the pilot tube of a cuffed tracheal airway will do which of the following?
A)increase cuff pressure
B)not affect cuff pressure
C)decrease cuff pressure
D)rupture the cuff
Q2) Which of the following factors should be considered when deciding to change from an endotracheal tube to a tracheostomy tube?
I.patient's tolerance of the endotracheal tube
II.relative risks of continued intubation versus tracheostomy
III.patient's severity of illness and overall condition
IV.length of time that the patient will need an artificial airway
V.patient's ability to tolerate a surgical procedure
A)I, III, and IV
B)III, IV, and V
C)II, III, IV, and V
D)I, II, III, IV, and V
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Q1) After two attempts at securing the airway and ventilating an infant in respiratory arrest, you still cannot confirm adequate air movement. At this point, what should you do?
A)Provide external cardiac compressions.
B)Apply 6 to 10 strong abdominal thrusts.
C)Apply back blows, followed by chest thrusts.
D)Try to ventilate again with smaller puffs.
Q2) Which of the following best describes the position of a correctly sized and properly inserted oropharyngeal airway?
A)distal tip at the base of tongue, flange inside anterior teeth
B)distal tip at level of uvula, flange extending outside the teeth
C)distal tip at the base of tongue, flange outside the teeth
D)distal below the epiglottis, flange extending outside the teeth
Q3) During properly performed external chest compression on infants, how much should the sternum be compressed?
A)0.5 to 1.0 inch
B)1.0 to 1.5 inches
C)1.5 to 2.0 inches
D)2.0 to 2.5 inches
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Q1) What are some types of passover humidifiers?
I.simple reservoir
II.membrane
III.wick
A)I and II
B)II and III
C)I and III
D)I, II, and III
Q2) A heat-moisture exchangers has an efficiency rating of 80%. What does this mean?
A)Of the exhaled water vapor, 80% returns to the patient on inspiration.
B)The inspired temperature is 80% of the expired temperature.
C)Of the exhaled water vapor, 20% returns to the patient on inspiration.
D)The device provides 80% relative humidity at body temperature.
Q3) Indications for warming inspired gases include all of the following except:
A)treating a patient whose airways are reactive to cold
B)providing humidification when the upper airway is bypassed
C)treating a patient with a low body temperature (hypothermia)
D)reducing upper airway inflammation or swelling
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Q1) Factors associated with reduced pulmonary deposition of aerosolized drugs include all of the following except:
A)mechanical ventilation
B)artificial airways
C)poor patient technique
D)mouth breathing
Q2) When fired inside the mouth, what percentage of the drug dose delivered by a simple metered-dose inhaler (MDI) deposits in the oropharynx?
A)about 20%
B)about 40%
C)about 60%
D)about 80%
Q3) Which of the following is false about the use of the peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) in assessing a patient's response to bronchodilator therapy?
A)PEFR and lab spirometry forced vital capacity values may correlate poorly.
B)PEFR is the standard for determining bronchodilator response.
C)Some peak flowmeters are more accurate and reliable than others.
D)The peak flow measure is effort and volume dependent.
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Q1) What key property of He makes it useful as a therapeutic gas?
A)low solubility
B)chemical inertness
C)low cost
D)low density
Q2) When full, a gas cylinder registers a pressure of 2200 psig. After a few hours of use, the pressure gauge reads 550 psig. The cylinder is now how full?
A)one half
B)one third
C)one fourth
D)two thirds
Q3) You are planning a patient transport that will take about 1 \(\frac { 1 } { 2 }\) hours. The patient requires manual ventilation with 10 L/min of O<sub>2</sub>. What is the minimum number of full E cylinders you would take with you?
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)5
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Q1) A physician wants a stable FIO<sub>2</sub> of 0.5 for a newborn infant with severe hypoxemia. Which of the following systems would you select?
A)O<sub>2</sub> hood with blender and heated humidifier
B)pediatric ("croup") tent with O<sub>2</sub> input of 8 L/min
C)O<sub>2</sub> hood with blender and unheated humidifier
D)infant incubator with O<sub>2</sub> input of 10 L/min
Q2) Which of the following typically occurs first when monitoring the earliest physiologic response to breathing 100% O<sub>2</sub>?
A)substernal chest pain
B)decreased diffusing capacity (DLCO)
C)decreased lung compliance (C<sub>L</sub>)
D)decreased vital capacity (VC)
Q3) You must deliver the highest possible FIO<sub>2</sub> to a 67-year-old man with pulmonary edema breathing at a rate of 35/min. Which of the following O<sub>2</sub> delivery systems would be most appropriate?
A)nonrebreathing mask at 12 to 15 L/min
B)simple mask at 12 to 15 L/min
C)partial rebreathing mask at 12 to 15 L/min
D)aerosol mask with nebulizer set to 100%
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Q1) Which of the following is FALSE about flow-oriented incentive spirometry devices?
A)Inspired volume is estimated as the product of flow and time.
B)Motivation is based on keeping the indicator balls elevated.
C)They have proved less effective than volumetric systems.
D)They provide only an indirect measure of inspired volume.
Q2) The general assessment, common to all patients for whom intermittent positive-pressure breathing (IPPB) is ordered, should include which of the following?
I.measurement of vital signs
II.appearance and sensorium
III.chest auscultation
IV.arterial blood gas analysis
V.peak expiratory flow rates
A)I and IV
B)II and V
C)III and IV
D)I, II, and III
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Q1) Which of the following airway clearance techniques would you recommend for a 15-month-old infant with cystic fibrosis?
A)postural drainage, percussion, and vibration
B)positive expiratory pressure therapy
C)mechanical insufflation-exsufflation
D)intrapulmonary percussive ventilation
Q2) Which of the following should be charted after completing a postural drainage treatment?
I.amount and consistency of sputum produced
II.patient tolerance of procedure
III.position(s) used (including time)IV.any untoward effects observed
A)I, II, and III
B)II and IV
C)I, II, III, and IV
D)III and IV
Q3) Which of the following is false about the FET?
A)It causes less bronchiolar collapse than traditional coughing.
B)It occurs from mid to low lung volume without glottis closure.
C)It has a period of diaphragmatic breathing and relaxation.
D)It occurs from mid to high lung volume without glottis closure.
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Q1) What happens to the P(A-a)O<sub>2</sub> with \(\dot { V } / \dot { Q }\) mismatch and shunt?
A)increases with \(\dot { V } / \dot { Q }\) mismatch and decreases with shunt
B)decreases with both \(\dot { V } / \dot { Q }\) mismatch and shunt
C)increases with both \(\dot { V } / \dot { Q }\) mismatch and shunt
D)it does not change
Q2) Which of the following is false about the "acute-on-chronic" form of respiratory failure?
A)It usually involves patients with hypoxemic respiratory failure.
B)It is most common in patients with chronic airway obstruction.
C)Bacterial or viral infections are common precipitating factors.
D)Mortality is associated with severity of acidosis.
Q3) What are some causes of dynamic hyperinflation?
I.increased expiratory time
II.increased airway resistance
III.decreased expiratory flow rate
A)I and II
B)I and III
C)II and III
D)I, II, and III
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Q1) During volume-targeted ventilation, which of the following settings determine I:E ratio?
I.volume
II.flow
III.rate
A)I and II
B)I and III
C)II and III
D)I, II, and III
Q2) Which of the following modes is a good example of adaptive control?
A)intermittent mandatory ventilation
B)airway pressure release ventilation
C)continuous mandatory ventilation (CMV)
D)pressure-regulated volume control (PRVC)
Q3) A patient receiving time-triggered continuous mechanical ventilation at a preset rate of 10/min stops breathing. Which of the following will occur?
A)The high-pressure limit alarm will sound (if properly set).
B)The patient will continue to receive 10 breaths/min.
C)The low tidal volume (V<sub>T</sub>) alarm will sound (if properly set).
D)Ventilation will drop to zero and the apnea alarm will sound.
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Q1) Which level of FIO<sub>2</sub> and what time of exposure have been associated with oxygen toxicity?
I. \(\quad \mathrm { FIO } _ { 2 } \geq 0.5\)
II. \(\quad \mathrm { FIO } _ { 2 } \geq 0.7\)
III. \(\quad \mathrm { FIO } _ { 2 } \geq 0.6\)
IV. \(\quad\)24 to 48 hours
V. \(\quad\)48 to 96 hours
A)I and V
B)III and IV
C)III and V
D)I and IV
Q2) All of the following factors would tend to increase mean airway pressure except:
A)short inspiratory times
B)increased mandatory breaths
C)increased levels of positive inspiratory pressure (PIP)
D)increased levels of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
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Q1) When titrating the FIO<sub>2</sub> level downward from 100% to 40%, what is the maximum increment that should be applied between estimates of oxygenation?
A)5%
B)10%
C)20%
D)25%
Q2) When a patient is initially started on mechanical ventilation common orders from the physician in the patient's chart include all the following except:
A)FIO<sub>2</sub>
B)mode
C)sensitivity
D)tidal volume
Q3) Which of the following remedies is NOT commonly used in patients ventilated in the assist-control mode with a high ventilatory drive to avoid hyperventilation?
A)synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation
B)tranquilizers
C)analgesics
D)reduced inspiratory flow
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Q1) Which of the following are contraindications for the use of noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation (NPPV)?
I.nonsupportive family
II.lack of financial resources
III.copious amounts of secretions
IV.uncooperative behavior on the part of the patient
A)I, II, and III
B)II and IV
C)I, II, and IV
D)I, II, III, and IV
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a goal of noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation (NPPV) in the acute care setting?
A)avoid intubation
B)decrease incidence of ventilation-associated pneumonia
C)decrease length of stay
D)improve mobility
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Q1) What is the normal range for lung compliance?
A)40 to 60 ml/cm H<sub>2</sub>O
B)60 to 100 ml/cm H<sub>2</sub>O
C)80 to 120 ml/cm H<sub>2</sub>O
D)100 to 120 ml/cm H<sub>2</sub>O
Q2) Which of the following should be considered first if medical and mechanical problems have been excluded and the patient continues to fight the ventilator or exhibit high levels of agitation or distress?
A)paralytics
B)sedatives
C)narcotics
D)anesthetics
Q3) What is the normal range for mean arterial pressure?
A)60 to 80 mm Hg
B)50 to 100 mm Hg
C)80 to 100 mm Hg
D)90 to 120 mm Hg
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Q1) Treatment options for severe postextubation stridor include all of the following except:
A)nebulized racemic epinephrine
B)heated saline aerosol
C)nebulized dexamethasone
D)He-O<sub>2</sub> mixtures
Q2) While monitoring a patient during a T-tube weaning trial, you notice the following: increased patient agitation; increased heart rate (from 90 to 118/min); increased respiratory rate (from 17 to 33/min with some paradoxical motion); and premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) increasing to an average of 5/min. Which of the following actions would be appropriate at this time?
A)Reconnect the patient to the ventilator with prior settings.
B)Encourage the patient to relax, and continue careful monitoring.
C)Request that the patient be given a stat (immediate) bolus of lidocaine.
D)Request that the patient be given a strong sedative or hypnotic.
Q3) Common causes for weaning failure include all of the following except:
A)myocardial ischemia
B)critical illness polyneuropathy
C)psychological dependence
D)secondary polycythemia
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Q1) In which of the following conditions may bronchial hygiene therapy be considered for infants or children?
I.hyaline membrane disease
II.foreign body aspiration
III.cystic fibrosis
IV.bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)
A)II and IV
B)I, III, and IV
C)II, III, and IV
D)I, II, III, and IV
Q2) Which of the following mean airway pressures is considered potentially deleterious when applying positive airway pressure?
A)2 cm H<sub>2</sub>O
B)5 cm H<sub>2</sub>O
C)10 cm H<sub>2</sub>O
D)15 cm H<sub>2</sub>O
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an accepted phrase for writing an educational objective? 1. Begin with the phrase "At the end of the lesson, the patient will be able to:"
2) Write the action verb (e.g., list, describe, demonstrate, etc.).3. Write a condition if needed (e.g., with or without the use of notes).4. Write a standard if needed (e.g., how fast, how accurate, etc.).
A)"At the end of the lesson, the patient will be able to list "
B)"At the end of the lesson, the patient will be able to understand "
C)"At the end of the lesson, the patient will be able to describe "
D)"At the end of the lesson, the patient will be able to demonstrate "
Q2) What percentage of smokers has been reported to want to stop the smoking habit?
A)10%
B)25%
C)50%
D)70%
Q3) Which of the following is the goal of tertiary prevention?
A)to prevent acceleration of the disease process once it has occurred
B)to cure the disease
C)to prevent related diseases
D)to stop recurrent episodes
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Q1) A patient in your pulmonary rehabilitation program has an orthopedic disability that precludes her from walking or using a stationary bicycle. Which of the following activities would you recommend to help recondition the lower extremities?
A)use of a rowing machine
B)calisthenic exercises
C)aquatic exercises
D)use of a treadmill
Q2) The physical reconditioning component of a pulmonary rehabilitation program usually includes which of the following?
I.aerobic exercises for the extremities
II.timed walking exercise
III.ventilatory muscle training
A)I, II, and III
B)II and III
C)I and III
D)III
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Q1) Components of a typical adult home nasal CPAP apparatus include all of the following except:
A)CPAP pressure valve
B)flow-generating device
C)high-pressure gas source
D)form-fitting nasal mask
Q2) You have been asked to organize a patient and family education program as part of a discharge plan for a patient requiring home ventilatory support. Which of the following methods would be best for training the family in the operation of the ventilator chosen?
A)Put the patient on the selected device while still hospitalized.
B)Set up and review the ventilator after the patient gets home.
C)Take the family into a back room and show them a ventilator.
D)Give the family the operating manual for the ventilator.
Q3) Advantages of O<sub>2</sub> concentrators for home O<sub>2</sub> therapy include all of the following except they:
A)operate at safe low pressures
B)are cost-effective for continuous use
C)do not waste or lose any O<sub>2</sub>
D)can power most pneumatic equipment
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