
Course Introduction

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Respiratory Therapy is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the essential principles, techniques, and equipment used in the diagnosis, treatment, and management of patients with respiratory and cardiopulmonary disorders. The course covers topics such as human respiratory anatomy and physiology, assessment of lung function, airway management, oxygen and aerosol therapy, mechanical ventilation, pharmacology relevant to respiratory care, and emergency interventions. Emphasis is placed on developing practical skills through laboratory exercises and clinical simulations, preparing students to work collaboratively with healthcare teams in hospitals, clinics, and other healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Respiratory Disease A Case Study Approach to Patient Care 3rd Edition by James R. Dexter
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20 Chapters
484 Verified Questions
484 Flashcards
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You suspect your patient may have congestive heart failure.What is the maximum width of the heart as seen on the chest x-ray that is considered within normal limits?
A)25% of the width of the chest
B)33% of the width of the chest
C)50% of the width of the chest
D)66% of the width of the chest
Answer: C
Q2) Your patient has pulmonary fibrosis (restrictive lung disease).What adventitious lung sound is expected during chest auscultation?
A)Coarse crackles
B)Fine crackles
C)Wheezing
D)Rhonchi
Answer: B
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary response of the brain to severe ventilatory failure with respiratory acidosis?
A)Somnolence and potentially coma
B)Excitement
C)Depends on the PaO<sub>2</sub>
D)Depends on the blood pressure
Answer: A
Q2) What clinical finding(s)is (are)consistent with diaphragm fatigue?
A)Tachypnea
B)Respiratory alterans
C)Abdominal paradox
D)All the above
Answer: D
Q3) Your patient has severe hypoxemia according to the blood gas analysis,but cyanosis is not seen.What may explain this?
A)Hypotension
B)Anemia
C)Leukocytosis
D)Fever
Answer: B
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What can be said about the incidence of asthma and the death rate from asthma in the past decade or so?
A)Both are on the decrease
B)Both are on the increase
C)Incidence is up,but death rate is down
D)Incidence is down,but death rate is up
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following pulmonary function tests is most useful during an acute attack?
A)Peak flow
B)Vital capacity
C)Total lung capacity
D)Terminal flow
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is NOT associated with provoking an asthma attack?
A)Aspirin use
B)Exercise
C)Viral respiratory infection
D)Use of Atropine to increase heart rate
Answer: D
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What abnormality on the ECG suggests right axis deviation due to cor pulmonale?
A)Positive QRS in lead II
B)Negative QRS in lead I
C)Tall QRS waves in the limb leads
D)Small QRS waves in the chest leads
Q2) COPD patients with cor pulmonale typically have which of the following physical examination findings?
A)JVD
B)Hepatomegaly
C)Pedal edema
D)All the above
Q3) Your COPD patient is suspected of having cor pulmonale.Which of the following clinical findings supports this diagnosis?
A)An enlarged spleen
B)Cyanosis of the mucous membranes
C)A gallop heart rhythm
D)JVD
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the chances that a couple will have a child with cystic fibrosis if both parents are carriers of the gene?
A)1:2
B)1:4
C)1:8
D)1:16
Q2) What finding on the chest radiograph is NOT typical for patients with cystic fibrosis?
A)Tram tracks
B)Hilar adenopathy
C)Enlarged heart
D)Atelectasis
Q3) Which of the following pulmonary problem(s)is/are seen in cystic fibrosis patients with an advanced stage of the disease?
A)Cor pulmonale
B)Respiratory failure
C)Severe hemoptysis
D)All the above
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not related to production of stroke volume?
A)Circulating blood volume
B)Vascular resistance
C)Cardiac contractility
D)Pulse pressure
Q2) Which of the following medications is likely to increase cardiac contractility?
A)Atropine
B)Lasix
C)Inderal
D)Levophed
Q3) What percent of patients who have a myocardial infarction develop cardiogenic shock?
A)Less than 10%
B)About 25%
C)About 50%
D)About 75%
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percent of the pulmonary vascular bed must be occluded by emboli before cardiac output drops and hypotension is present?
A)10%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
Q2) What test is used to monitor oral anticoagulation therapy?
A)PTT
B)PT
C)Platelet count
D)Sedimentation rates
Q3) Your patient has a fairly large pulmonary thromboembolism.What physical exam finding(s)is/are expected?
A)Loud P2
B)Jugular venous distention
C)Hypotension
D)All the above
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23 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT associated with acute left ventricular failure?
A)Elevated pulmonary artery diastolic pressure
B)Increased blood flow to the apical regions of the lung
C)Pulmonary edema
D)Portal hypertension
Q2) Which of the following clinical findings is least associated with congestive heart failure?
A)Presence of an S3 or S4 or both
B)Expiratory polyphonic wheezing
C)Prolonged inspiratory time
D)Pedal edema
Q3) Which two clinical findings are NOT typical for congestive heart failure patients?
A)Dyspnea and cough
B)Reduced exercise tolerance and anxiety
C)Inspiratory crackles and peripheral pallor
D)Bradycardia and warm extremities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is appropriate treatment to relieve the compressive effect of circumferential burns to the thorax?
A)Silvadene applied topically
B)Diuretics
C)Escharatomy
D)Closed chest drainage
Q2) A 40-year-old patient was found unconscious in a running vehicle parked in a garage.Burns to the neck appear to have come from the cigarette he had been smoking.Arterial blood gases are as follows: pH = 7.36
PaCO<sub>2 </sub>= 46
PaO<sub>2</sub> = 90
HCO<sub>3</sub> = 24
BE = 0
Regarding oxygen administration,which is the most appropriate device?
A)No oxygen necessary
B)Cannula at 6 L/min
C)Face tent with cool humidity at 40%
D)100% non-rebreathing mask at 10 L/min
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can increase intracranial pressure in the near drowning victim?
A)Hypoxia
B)Mechanical ventilation
C)Airway suctioning
D)All the above
Q2) What is the key to reducing the number of drowning victims in the future?
A)Better CPR training
B)Reducing the number of pools and spas
C)Prevention
D)Providing defibrillators at public pools
Q3) Your patient has just entered the ER and was pulled from a swimming pool unconscious.Which of the following factors predicts a poor prognosis?
A)Elevated serum glucose levels
B)Hyperthermia
C)Hyperactive pupil response to light
D)All the above
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When ARDS was first recognized the mortality rate was about 90%.What is the mortality rate currently?
A)It remains about 90%
B)About 60-75%
C)About 35-40%
D)25%
Q2) All of the following are indicative of failure in an ARDS patient being weaned from a mechanical ventilator except:
A)>20% change in blood pressure,heart rate,or respiratory rate
B)Drop in SpO<sub>2</sub>
C)Decrease in P(A-a)O<sub>2</sub>
D)Decreased sensorium
Q3) All the following statements are true regarding the use of static compliance measurements in monitoring the ARDS patient except:
A)Is indicative of lung stiffness only
B)Is obtained with the following formula: Cst = Vt / (Pstat-PEEP)
C)Is obtained using a short inspiratory hold after a volume-limited breath
D)Plateau pressures of <30 cwp are usually indicative of acceptable static compliance in the adult
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percent of chest trauma patients have injuries to the heart?
A)60%
B)40%
C)25%
D)10%
Q2) Open or "sucking" chest wounds
A)Act as a one-way valve allowing air to exit chest during inspiration
B)Act as a one-way valve to allow air to enter chest upon inspiration
C)Act as a one-way valve to allow air to enter chest upon exhalation
D)Act as a one-way valve to allow air to exit chest upon exhalation
Q3) Simple (non-tension)pneumothorax generally does not cause significant physiologic impairment until what percentage of the lung has collapsed?
A)>10%
B)>30%
C)>50%
D)>75%
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What therapy is often very effective in treating lobar atelectasis in the postoperative patient?
A)A short,vigorous course of chest physical therapy
B)IPPB
C)CPAP with humidity therapy
D)Simulated coughing
Q2) What is the primary objective when intrapulmonary percussive ventilation (IPV)is applied to the postoperative patient with atelectasis?
A)Hyperinflate the lung
B)Enhance secretion removal
C)Improve surfactant production
D)Improve CO<sub>2</sub> removal
Q3) In the fully awake and cooperative patient,what lung inflation technique may be best for treating and preventing postoperative atelectasis?
A)IPPB
B)Deep breathing and coughing
C)PEP therapy
D)CPAP by mask
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of CT scan in ILD?
A)Normal CT examines slices of the tissue,10 mm thick
B)High-resolution CT scan increases the patient's exposure to radiation
C)High-resolution CT uses 1 mm thick "cuts" to examine the lung
D)All the above
Q2) Which of these interstitial lung diseases is of unknown etiology?
A)Sarcoidosis
B)Silicosis
C)Bagassosis
D)Asbestosis
Q3) Your patient has a number of nodules in her lung with hilar lymphadenopathy.These findings are most suggestive of what?
A)Asbestosis
B)Wegeneris granulomatosis
C)Coal worker's lung
D)Sarcoidosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the major muscle of inspiration?
A)Rectus abdominus
B)Diaphragm
C)External oblique
D)Internal intercostals
Q2) Which of these statements best describes the overall neurological control of respiration?
A)The rate,rhythm,and depth of respiration is predetermined by brain centers but subject to modification by incoming (sensory)stimuli
B)The brain centers pattern respiration partly using sensory input and partly by inherent autorhythmicity
C)The peripheral chemoreceptors contribute the most to the ventilatory response to hypercapnia
D)None of the above
Q3) Which peripheral nerve concerned with breathing is most vulnerable to injury?
A)Vagus
B)Phrenic
C)Thoracic nerves 1-12
D)None of the above
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these is not a typical early sign or symptom of pneumonia?
A)Fever
B)Pleuritic pain
C)Dyspnea
D)Nausea
Q2) What is the significance of increased immature WBCs (bands)in the peripheral blood?
A)Bacterial infection stimulates the bone marrow
B)Worsening infection may necessitate younger "soldiers"
C)A and B are correct
D)Significant only if all other blood cell types are elevated
Q3) Factors that suppress the immune system include all of the following except:
A)Transplantation
B)AIDS
C)Leukemia
D)Poor hand washing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these is not a subgroup of T lymphocytes?
A)Helper T cells
B)Natural killer T cells
C)Polymorphonuclear T cells
D)Suppressor T cells
Q2) Which of these is not an autoimmune disease?
A)Rheumatoid arthritis
B)Leprosy
C)Scleroderma
D)Systemic lupus erythematosis
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a common opportunistic pulmonary infection seen in a patient with a compromised immune system?
A)P.jaroveci
B)Mycobacterium avium complex
C)Candida albicans
D)Streptococcal pneumoniae
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Sample Questions
Q1) After falling asleep,how much time usually passes before the healthy sleeper experiences a REM episode?
A)20 minutes
B)40 minutes
C)90 minutes
D)120 minutes
Q2) Your patient has an apnea/hypopnea index of 36.How severe is the problem in this case?
A)Mild
B)Moderate
C)Severe
D)Very severe
Q3) In some cases of obstructive sleep apnea an automatic in-home CPAP titrating device may be useful.What does this machine do that others cannot?
A)Measures the amount of sleep the patient is getting
B)Adjusts the CPAP level as needed by the patient during the night
C)Adjusts the inspiratory time as needed
D)Sends signals to the sleep lab when apnea worsens
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are know to increase the risk of reactivating dormant TB?
A)Malnutrition
B)Alcohol abuse
C)Diabetes
D)All the above
Q2) The spread of TB can occur through all the following mechanisms except:
A)Active TB patient coughing near other people
B)Ingestion of unpasteurized milk from infected cattle
C)Contact with fomites
D)Direct inoculation through the skin
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a known side effect of the medications used to treat TB?
A)Chemical hepatitis
B)Skin eruptions
C)Bluish discoloration of the urine and saliva
D)Gastrointestinal upset
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of these are major histological types of bronchogenic carcinoma except:
A)Small-cell
B)Hamartoma
C)Large-cell
D)Squamous cell
Q2) Bronchoscopes can be used with all of the following appliances to extend their usefulness except:
A)Brush
B)Forceps
C)Needle
D)Continuous suction
Q3) Your patient has one eyelid drooping with a pinpoint pupil,with lack of sweating and arm weakness on that same side.What is the likely cause?
A)Horner's syndrome
B)Erb's paralysis
C)Bell's palsy
D)Eaten-Lambert syndrome
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