Respiratory Therapy Final Exam
Course Introduction
Respiratory Therapy is a comprehensive course designed to introduce students to the roles, responsibilities, and core competencies of respiratory therapists in various healthcare settings. The course covers the anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system, mechanisms of breathing, gas exchange, and common respiratory diseases and disorders. Students will learn about assessment techniques, interpretation of diagnostic tests, and therapeutic interventions such as oxygen therapy, aerosol medication delivery, airway management, and mechanical ventilation. Emphasis is placed on patient safety, ethical considerations, interdisciplinary collaboration, and the use of evidence-based practices to promote optimal respiratory health and patient outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Integrated Cardiopulmonary Pharmacology 3rd Edition by Bruce J. Colbert
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Chapter 1: General Pharmacologic Principles
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Q1) Repeated use of the same drug may result in a decreased response,requiring an increased amount of the drug to produce the same effect.This phenomenon is known as ________________.
Answer: tolerance
Q2) Treatment for drug overdoses and poisoning includes all of the following except the:
A)Administration of antidotes.
B)Use of an adsorbent.
C)Administration of emetics.
D)Use of a metabolite.
Answer: D
Q3) Drugs given parenterally go directly to the ________________ and result in rapid absorption.
Answer: bloodstream
Q4) What is the difference between an endogenous and exogenous chemical?
Answer: An endogenous chemical is one that is produced physiologically,while an exogenous chemical is pharmacologically administered.
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Chapter 2: The Metric System and Drug Dosage
Calculations
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Sample Questions
Q1) An adult female patient weighs 125 lb.In order to determine a mechanical tidal volume,you must convert her weight to kilograms.What is her weight in kilograms?
A)275 kg
B)63 kg
C)57 kg
D)28 kg
Answer: C
Q2) If a drug contains 6% active ingredient,how many grams of the active ingredient would you need in a 30-ml dose?
A)18 g
B)36 g
C)1.8 g
D)3.6 g
Answer: C
Q3) The Joint Commission standards recommend the use of ________________ rather than centimeters (cc)to avoid misinterpretation of the ordered amount.
Answer: milliliters (ml)
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Chapter 3: Pharmacology of the Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Catecholamines are adrenergic agents such as ________________.
Answer: dobutamine,dopamine,epinephrine,isoproterenol,or norepinephrine
Q2) The peripheral nervous system is composed of all the following except:
A)Afferent and efferent nerves.
B)Brain and spinal nerves.
C)Sympathetic and parasympathetic branches.
D)The somatic and autonomic nervous systems.
Answer: B
Q3) When a drug stimulates a receptor,it can be classified as all the following except:
A)Direct acting.
B)An agonist.
C)Sympathomimetic.
D)Parasympatholytic.
Answer: D
Q4) The branch of the ANS responsible for fight-or-flight reactions is the ________________ branch.
Answer: sympathetic
Q5) The action of norepinephrine is terminated by a process called ________________.
Answer: reuptake
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Chapter 4: Medicated Aerosol Treatments
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Sample Questions
Q1) While treating a 3-year-old patient at a hospital clinic,you are asked to select an aerosol device for bronchodilator therapy at home.The most appropriate device for this patient is:
A)A bulb nebulizer.
B)A dry powder inhaler.
C)An MDI with a spacer.
D)An MDI.
Q2) The category of drugs that desensitize the allergic response and prevents asthma is ____________.
Q3) When administering a spontaneous aerosol treatment with an SVN,a mouthpiece is recommended for better deposition than with a mask.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Aerosol particles that are 10 to 15 microns deposit in the large bronchi.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When delivering aerosolized drugs by SVN to mechanically ventilated patients,the respiratory therapist should adjust the flow rate to ____________ and the tidal volume to ____________.
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Chapter 5: Bronchodilators
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Sample Questions
Q1) Albuterol is metabolized by the enzyme COMT.
A)True
B)False
Q2) While administering an aerosol bronchodilator to a pediatric patient,the parent asks if the child can be given an oral medication to open her airways.Which of the following could you suggest?
A)Albuterol
B)Salmeterol
C)Formoterol
D)Xopenex
Q3) At the synapse where the neuron meets the muscle,sympathetic fibers release acetylcholine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Beta<sub>1</sub> receptors stimulate the heart,while beta<sub>2</sub> receptors stimulate the lungs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How do resorcinols differ from catecholamines?
Q6) Albuterol and levalbuterol are classified as ____________-acting beta-agonists.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Mucokinetics and Surfactants
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Q1) Surfactant is required to increase the surface tension in the alveoli and make inflation easier with less pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Lack of surfactant in premature infants less than 34 weeks' gestation is a result of:
A)Damaged type I pneumocytes.
B)Aspiration.
C)Perinatal asphyxia.
D)Immature type II pneumocytes.
Q3) Methods for delivering liquid particles of water to the lung include all the following except:
A)Humidifiers.
B)Large-volume nebulizers.
C)Direct instillation.
D)Ultrasonic nebulizers.
Q4) The role of goblet cells and clara cells is to produce about 100 ml of mucus each day.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Anti-Inflammatory and Antiasthmatic Agents
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Q1) During an asthmatic attack,the production of fatty acid arachidonic acid results in all of the following except:
A)Mast cell membrane destruction.
B)Leukotriene release.
C)A cascade of chemical mediators.
D)Prostaglandin release.
Q2) The most common side effect of inhaled steroids is:
A)Hypocalcemia.
B)Candidiasis.
C)Hypertension.
D)Hypoglycemia.
Q3) The most commonly produced immune system antibody is the ________________.
Q4) Which of the following would indicate that an asthma attack is allergy related?
A)The presence of eosinophils
B)Mast cell degranulation
C)An early phase response
D)A late-phase response
Q5) What is meant by immunotherapy?
Q6) The immune response is not involved in ________________ asthma.
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Q7) Histamine smooth muscle contraction is controlled by ________________ receptors.
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Chapter 8: Anti-Infective Agents
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Q1) A patient who is prescribed cephalexin will not have to take the medication as often as he or she would have to take amoxicillin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A systemic infection is easier to treat than a localized infection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Of the following,which should be used cautiously in children because they can inhibit cartilage formation?
A)Aminoglycosides
B)Penicillins
C)Quinolones
D)Tetracyclines
Q4) When using the inhalation route to administer anti-infective agents,a respiratory therapist should first administer which of the following?
A)Inhaled corticosteroids
B)Bronchodilators
C)Topical anesthetics
D)Oxygen
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Chapter 9: Cardiac Agents
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Q1) ________________ is beneficial in heart failure for its coronary vasodilating properties.
Q2) What medications could be prescribed to a patient who has just been diagnosed with angina? Discuss agents that would be administered to provide immediate relief and those that would be used prophylactically.
Q3) Beta blockers used to treat a heart condition can cause bronchoconstriction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Diabetic care includes monitoring of all of the following except:
A)Glucose levels.
B)Potassium levels.
C)Triglycerides.
D)Cholesterol.
Q5) Vasodilators that are used to decrease the afterload forces on the heart include all the following except:
A)Hydralazine.
B)ACE inhibitors.
C)Digoxin.
D)Nitrates.
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Chapter 10: Blood Pressure and Antithrombotic Agents
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Q1) Heparin can be administered by all of the following routes except:
A)IV infusion.
B)IV bolus.
C)Orally.
D)Subcutaneously.
Q2) Which of the following vessels contain more vascular smooth muscle and are considered the main resistance vessels?
A)Veins
B)Venules
C)Arterioles
D)Capillaries
Q3) Stimulation of alpha<sub>2</sub> receptors found mainly within blood vessels causes vasoconstriction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A side effect of using minoxidil in the treatment of hypertension is hypertrichosis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When is hypertension considered an emergency,and how should it be treated?
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Chapter 11: Neuromuscular, sedative, anesthetic, and Analgesic Agents
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Q1) Administration of a/an ________________ inhibitor will reverse neuromuscular blockade.
Q2) Patients receiving NMBAs during mechanical ventilation frequently need to be medicated with ________________ because they can still feel pain and are alert.
Q3) Vicodin,an effective analgesic,combines acetaminophen with which of the following?
A)Codeine
B)Hydrocodone
C)Morphine
D)Fentanyl
Q4) What are the different mechanisms of action for analgesic medications?
Q5) Central-acting skeletal muscle relaxants decrease muscle tone by acting directly on ________________.
Q6) The ability of one drug to suppress the physical withdrawal produced by another drug is referred to as _______________.
Q7) NMBAs must be pharmacologically reversed when paralysis is no longer needed.
A)True B)False
Q8) The ________________ pathway is the site of action for analgesics. Page 14
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Chapter 12: Therapeutic Medical Gases
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Q1) The PaO<sub>2</sub> represents the amount of oxygen that is dissolved in the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q2) You are called to the ER to see a 37-year-old female with multiple trauma from a car accident.The physician asks that you give her oxygen with as high an FIO<sub>2</sub> as you can provide.Which of the following devices would you select?
A)A nasal cannula
B)A simple mask
C)An air-entrainment mask
D)A nonrebreathing mask
Q3) Helium/oxygen mixtures have been shown to be beneficial with _______________ airway obstructions.
Q4) Hypoxemia exists when the levels of oxygen in the blood are below normal and can be verified by measuring an arterial blood gas sample.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the three primary goals of oxygen therapy?
Q6) Is cyanosis a good indicator of hypoxemia?
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Chapter 13: Pharmacologic Management of Obstructive
Pulmonary Disease: Asthma, chronic Bronchitis, and Emphysema
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Q1) The pharmacologic agent _____________ is recommended for patients who are severely limited by their COPD to improve their activities of daily living.
Q2) Alpha<sub>1</sub>-antitrypsin augmentation therapy is administered on a ________________ basis.
Q3) Of the following,which products combine LABAs and corticosteroids? I.Combivent II.Advair
III.Symbicort
A)I and II
B)I and III
C)II and III
D)I,II,and III
Q4) The most effective agents for long-term control of asthma are ______________.
Q5) The primary cause of COPD includes which of the following conditions?
A)Exposure to tobacco
B)Alpha<sub>1</sub>-antitrypsin deficiency
C)Environmental pollution
D)Exposure to allergens
Q6) ________________ is the most common chronic disease among children and young adults. Page 17
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Chapter 14: Pharmacologic Treatment of Respiratory
Infectious Disease
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Q1) Aerosolized antimicrobials are indicated with all except which of the following?
A)Severe RSV infections
B)Exacerbation of COPD
C)Cystic fibrosis
D)Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
Q2) Therapy that is begun before identifying the pathogenic organism is referred to as _______________ therapy.
Q3) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)is a common causative agent in which of the following conditions?
I.Bronchiolitis
II.Bronchitis
III.Pharyngitis
A)I and II
B)II and III
C)I and III
D)I,II,and III
Q4) What are the causative agents for croup and how is it treated?
Q5) Why is aspiration pneumonia that is acquired in the community setting treated with different antibiotic agents than aspiration pneumonia that is acquired while hospitalized?
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Chapter 15: Medications for Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support
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Q1) What advantage does diltiazem have compared to verapamil?
Q2) Pulseless cardiac arrest is produced by all except which of the following arrhythmias?
A)Asystole
B)PEA
C)Atrial fibrillation
D)Ventricular fibrillation
Q3) When calcium-channel blockers or beta blockers are ineffective in controlling heart rate in atrial fibrillation,________________ should be administered.
Q4) The acceptable dosage for vasopressin during resuscitation is:
A)40 units IV or IO given once.
B)20 units IV given every 10 minutes.
C)40 units IV or IO given alternately with epinephrine.
D)20 units IV or IO given alternately with epinephrine.
Q5) Epinephrine should be used with caution in which of the following situations?
A)Profound symptomatic bradycardia
B)Patients receiving digitalis
C)Severe allergic reactions
D)Pulseless ventricular tachycardia
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Q6) Why is ventricular fibrillation life threatening,and how is it treated?
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