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Respiratory Therapy Chapter Exam Questions - 580 Verified Questions

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Respiratory Therapy

Chapter Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Respiratory Therapy is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the principles and practices involved in assessing, treating, and managing patients with cardiopulmonary disorders. The curriculum covers topics such as respiratory anatomy and physiology, pathophysiology of common respiratory conditions, patient assessment techniques, airway management, mechanical ventilation, therapeutic interventions, and emergency care. Emphasis is placed on both theoretical knowledge and hands-on clinical skills, preparing students to work collaboratively within multidisciplinary healthcare teams. The course also explores patient education, ethical considerations, and advances in respiratory care technology.

Recommended Textbook

Clinical Manifestations Assessment of Respiratory Disease 6th Edition by Terry Des Jardins

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Chapter 1: The Patient Interview

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Sample Questions

Q1) The patient's history states that her chief compliant is shortness of breath. During the interview, the respiratory therapist should be observant for:

A) how many words the patient speaks with each breath.

B)changes in the pitch of the patient's voice.

C)the use of a medication inhaler.

D)productivity of the patient's cough.

Answer: A

Q2) The open-ended question format is generally used to: 1) gather information when a patient introduces a new topic.

2) introduce a new subject area.

3) begin the interview process.

4) gather specific information.

A)1, 3

B)2, 4

C)1, 2, 3

D)1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: C

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Chapter 2: The Physical Examination and Its Basis in Physiology

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Q1) A dull percussion note would be heard in all of the following situations EXCEPT: A) atelectasis.

B)pleural thickening.

C)chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

D)consolidation.

Answer: C

Q2) When would induced hypothermia be indicated?

A) During brain surgery

B)During bowel surgery

C)To break a fever

D)To treat carbon monoxide poisoning

Answer: A

Q3) Your 50-year-old patient has a heart rate by palpation of 120 bpm. How should this be interpreted?

A) Within the normal range for an adult

B)An error since a stethoscope was not used

C)Bradycardia

D)Tachycardia

Answer: D

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Chapter 3: Pulmonary Function Study Assessments

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Q1) Which of the following forced vital capacity test times should be interpreted as normal?

A) Less than 4 seconds

B)4 to 6 seconds

C)6 to 8 seconds

D)8 to 10 seconds

Answer: B

Q2) The FEF 25%-75% is used to evaluate:

A) flow in large airways.

B)restrictive lung disease.

C)maximum breathing effort.

D)flow in medium-size to small airways.

Answer: D

Q3) Overall characteristics of pulmonary function testing results on a patient with obstructive lung disease include that:

A) FEV<sub>1</sub> is reduced and FEV<sub>1</sub>% is normal.

B)FEV<sub>1</sub> and FEV<sub>1</sub>% are both increased.

C)FEV<sub>1</sub> and FEV<sub>1</sub>% are both reduced.

D)FEV<sub>1</sub> is increased and FEV<sub>1</sub>% is decreased.

Answer: C

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Chapter 4: Arterial Blood Gas Assessments

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Q1) All of the following will be seen in the arterial blood gas values of a patient with acute ventilatory failure EXCEPT:

A) an acidic pH.

B)a near-normal bicarbonate level.

C)an alkaline pH.

D)a high carbon dioxide level.

Q2) Which of the following would be a normal person's arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO<sub>2</sub>)?

A) 25 to 35 mm Hg

B)35 to 45 mm Hg

C)45 to 60 mm Hg

D)60 to 80 mm Hg

Q3) Your patient has had chronic ventilatory failure for several years. What is the primary factor that determines her breathing pattern?

A) Muscle efficiency

B)Ventilatory efficiency

C)Heart function

D)Work efficiency

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Chapter 5: Oxygenation Assessments

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Q1) A sample of blood has been taken from a patient's pulmonary artery. What mixed venous oxygen saturation value (SvO<sub>2</sub>) would indicate that the patient is normal?

A) 40 mm Hg

B)95 mm Hg

C)75%

D)97%

Q2) Your patient has been exposed to carbon monoxide during a house fire. How should the patient's PaO<sub>2</sub> value be interpreted?

A) Accurate oxygenation reading

B)Higher than actual oxygenation reading

C)False normal oxygenation reading

D)It should match the CO<sub>2</sub> value.

Q3) A person's C(a-v)O<sub>2</sub> increases in all of the following situations EXCEPT: A) seizures.

B)peripheral shunting.

C)hyperthermia.

D)exercise.

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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System Assessments

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Q1) A central venous pressure (CVP) catheter is used to:

A) measure left atrial pressure.

B)measure right ventricular work.

C)monitor right ventricular function.

D)monitor left ventricular function.

Q2) Which of the following hemodynamic changes are commonly seen in a patient with pulmonary edema?

1) Increased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP)

2) Increased pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)

3) Decreased mean pulmonary artery pressure (PA)

4) Decreased cardiac output (CO)

A)1, 4

B)2, 3

C)1, 2, 3

D)1, 2, 3, 4

Q3) The "T" wave represents:

A) depolarization of the ventricles.

B)repolarization of the ventricles.

C)depolarization of the atria.

D)repolarization of the atria.

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Chapter 7: Radiologic Examination of the Chest

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Q1) For most chest x-ray studies, what is usually done?

A) There is a full exhalation.

B)There is a full inspiration.

C)Separate inspiratory and expiratory films are taken.

D)The patient is told to pant to provide a middle lung volume.

Q2) A PET/CT scan can provide all of the following:

1) Early detection of cancer metastasis

2) Accurate staging of cancer

3) Radiation treatment of the cancer

4) Activation of chemotherapy drugs within the tumor

A)1, 2

B)3, 4

C)1, 2, 3

D)1, 2, 3, 4

Q3) The heart shadow on a chest radiograph will show up larger than normal on:

A) an AP film.

B)a PA film.

C)a left lateral film.

D)a computed tomography (CT) scan.

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Chapter 8: Other Important Tests and Procedures

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Q1) A 14-year-old patient has had a serious asthma attack. Her white blood cell count can be expected to show:

A) decreased neutrophils.

B)decreased erythrocytes.

C)increased eosinophils.

D)increased monocytes.

Q2) Your patient has pneumonia and a right pleural effusion. If the pleural exudate fluid is infected, it will show:

1) a low protein level.

2) a high white blood cell count.

3) bacteria.

4) many red blood cells.

A)1, 2

B)2, 3

C)1, 3, 4

D)1, 2, 3, 4

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Chapter 9: The Therapist-Driven Protocol Program and the

Role of the Respiratory Care Practitioner

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Sample Questions

Q1) A TDP can be started after:

A) the nurse finishes his/her assessment.

B)the treatment is selected.

C)a physician's order for the TDP is received.

D)the patient's insurance carrier is contacted.

Q2) Which of the following is/are associated with the bronchospasm clinical scenario?

1) Increased airway resistance

2) Decreased FRC

3) Bronchial breath sounds

4) Hyperresonant percussion note

A)3

B)1, 4

C)2, 3

D)1, 3, 4

Q3) Postural drainage, percussion, and vibration are part of what TDP?

A) Hyperinflation therapy

B)Bronchopulmonary hygiene therapy

C)Mechanical ventilation

D)Oxygen therapy

11

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Chapter 10: Recording Skills:

Assessment

Skills,

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Sample Questions

Q1) All of the following blocks of information will be found in a patient's source-oriented record EXCEPT:

A) laboratory reports.

B)history.

C)police record.

D)admission information.

Q2) A patient who had pneumonia, and her family, are suing the hospital, physician, and respiratory therapist. How can the patient's medical care and treatment be proved?

A) Care is documented in the chart.

B)The patient's testimony

C)The physician's testimony

D)The respiratory therapist's testimony

Q3) When reviewing a SOAPIER progress note, all of the following would be found in the O area EXCEPT:

A) hemodynamic data.

B)patient's admission complaint.

C)blood pressure.

D)sputum production.

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Chapter 11: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease Copd:

Chronic Bronchitis, and Emphysema

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following would indicate a diagnosis of advanced COPD?

1) Arterial blood gases show low O<sub>2</sub> and high CO<sub>2</sub>.

2) Arterial blood gases show high O<sub>2</sub> and low CO<sub>2</sub>.

3) Pulmonary function tests show low flow of air on expiration.

4) Pulmonary function tests show low flow of air on inspiration.

A)1, 3

B)2, 4

C)1, 4

D)2, 3

Q2) Which of the following terms is/are commonly applied to a patient with emphysema?

1) Pink puffer

2) Blue bloater

3) Type A COPD

4) Type B COPD

A)1

B)2

C)1, 3

D)2, 4

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Chapter 12: Asthma

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Q1) If an asthmatic patient is not properly treated and has long-term airway inflammation, what can occur?

A) Chronic bronchitis

B)Pulmonary fibrosis

C)Irreversible loss of airway caliber

D)Emphysema

Q2) Pulsus paradoxus would be manifested as:

A) a greater than 40 mm Hg difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressures.

B)inspiratory systolic blood pressure >10 mm Hg less than during expiration.

C)inspiratory diastolic blood pressure >10 mm Hg less than during expiration.

D)systolic and diastolic blood pressure reading being reversed.

Q3) If an asthmatic patient is given a sympathomimetic and parasympatholytic medication, what can be expected to happen?

A) Bronchial smooth muscle contraction will occur.

B)Airway edema will be reduced.

C)Nothing, since the two medications have opposite effects.

D)Bronchial smooth muscle relaxation will occur.

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Chapter 13: Bronchiectasis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Management of the patient with bronchiectasis may include:

1) Expectorants

2) Early childhood immunizations

3) Lung resection

4) Lung transplant

A)1, 3

B)3, 4

C)1, 2, 3

D)1, 2, 3, 4

Q2) Rigid and dilated bronchi are the key anatomic alterations found in which type of bronchiectasis?

A) Varicose

B)Cystic

C)Emphysematous

D)Cylindrical

Q3) The preferred radiographic method to evaluate a patient's bronchiectasis is:

A) posterior-anterior radiograph (x-ray).

B)anterior-posterior radiograph (x-ray).

C)computed tomography (CT).

D)bronchogram.

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Chapter 14: Cystic Fibrosis

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Sample Questions

Q1) If both the mother and the father are carriers for the cystic fibrosis gene, what are the chances that their child will be a cystic fibrosis carrier?

A) 0%

B)25%

C)50%

D)75%

Q2) If a cystic fibrosis patient is in generally good condition, what might be done to permanently fix the lung problem?

A) Cryosurgery

B)Total DNA replacement

C)Diaphragmatic pacemaker

D)Lung transplant

Q3) During the advanced stages of cystic fibrosis, the anatomic alterations cause the patient to have:

A) a primarily restrictive lung disease.

B)a primarily obstructive lung disease.

C)equal parts restrictive and obstructive lung disease.

D)normal airways with emphysema.

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Chapter 15: Pneumonia

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a patient has pneumonia, what would be found in the alveolar effusion fluids?

1) Mucus

2) Serum fluid

3) Saliva

4) Red blood cells

A)1, 3

B)2, 4

C)2, 3

D)1, 2, 3, 4

Q2) Your patient has a bacterial pneumonia. What kills the invading bacteria?

A) Macrophages

B)Red blood cells

C)Polymorphonuclear leukocytes

D)Serum fluid

Q3) Overall, most cases of pneumonia are caused by:

A) viruses.

B)Gram-negative bacteria.

C)protozoa.

D)fungi.

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Chapter 16: Lung Abscess

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Sample Questions

Q1) In severe cases of tissue necrosis related to an abscess, what can occur?

1) Fluid ruptures into a bronchus.

2) Broncholithiasis occurs.

3) Bronchospasm will close off the affected bronchi.

4) Fluid ruptures into the intrapleural space.

A)1, 2

B)1, 4

C)3, 4

D)1, 2, 3

Q2) When a lung abscess is seen on a chest radiograph, a distinguishing factor is the:

A) solid mass.

B)air bronchograms.

C)consolidation of the affected segment or lobe.

D)air-fluid level in the cavity.

Q3) In response to the patient having a lung infection, how does the body respond?

A) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes go to the area.

B)Erythrocytes go to the area.

C)Surface goblet cells increase mucus production.

D)Metabolism is decreased.

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Chapter 17: Tuberculosis

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a person has TB spread through the body, it is found in all of the following EXCEPT:

A) upper lobes.

B)kidneys.

C)brain.

D)lower lobes.

Q2) A patient who has an uncontrolled tuberculosis infection will show all of the following signs EXCEPT:

A) weight loss.

B)high fever.

C)bloody sputum.

D)night sweats.

Q3) What medication is used to treat a person who has converted to a positive TB skin test but does not have active disease?

A) Virazole

B)Isoniazid

C)Rifampin

D)Tetracycline

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Chapter 18: Fungal Diseases of the Lung

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Q1) In the midwestern part of the United States, what is the most common fungal infection of the lungs?

A) Cryptococcosis

B)Histoplasmosis

C)Blastomycosis

D)Coccidioidomycosis

Q2) A patient has an Aspergillus niger infection. What should be used to treat it?

A) Fluconazole (Diflucan)

B)Ribavirin (Virazole)

C)Metronidazole (Flagyl)

D)Ketoconazole (Nizoral)

Q3) Which type of fungal lung infection frequently results in productive cough with purulent sputum?

A) Staphylococcal infection

B)Blastomycosis

C)Klebsiella infection

D)Histoplasmosis

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20

Chapter 19: Pulmonary Edema

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Q1) Management of cardiogenic pulmonary edema includes the following:

1) giving the patient a low salt intake diet.

2) giving the patient a medication to lower blood pressure.

3) giving the patient a diuretic drug.

4) performing balloon angioplasty on the patient.

A)1, 4

B)2, 3

C)3, 4

D)1, 2, 3

Q2) Mask CPAP is used with pulmonary edema patients because it does all of the following EXCEPT:

A) decrease vascular congestion.

B)reduce work of breathing.

C)it is less expensive than mechanical ventilation.

D)improve lung compliance.

Q3) What is the normal hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary capillaries?

A) 0 to 5 mm Hg

B)5 to 10 mm Hg

C)10 to 15 mm Hg

D)15 to 20 mm Hg

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Chapter 20: Pulmonary Embolism

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Q1) Which of the following fibrinolytic agents is/are used to treat a pulmonary embolism?

1) Urokinase

2) Vitamin K

3) Heparin

4) Streptokinase

A)1, 4

B)2, 3

C)1, 3, 4

D)1, 2, 3, 4

Q2) The duplex venous ultrasonography test is used to:

A) diagnose a blood clot below the knee.

B)identify a saddle embolism.

C)diagnose a blood clot behind the knee or thigh.

D)identify a pulmonary infarction.

Q3) The best test for diagnosing a suspected pulmonary embolism is a/an:

A) spiral computerized tomography scan.

B)pulmonary function test.

C)electrocardiogram.

D)chest radiograph.

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Chapter 21: Flail Chest

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Q1) In severe cases of flail chest, all of the following will usually be needed:

1) Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)

2) Pain management

3) Mechanical ventilation

4) Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)

A)1, 2

B)2, 4

C)2, 3, 4

D)1, 2, 3, 4

Q2) If mechanical ventilation is required, how long will it be needed to allow sufficient time for bone healing?

A) up to 5 days

B)5 to 10 days

C)10 to15 days

D)greater than 15 days for full bone healing

Q3) Causes of a flail chest include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) blast injury.

B)motor vehicle accident.

C)split sternum for open heart surgery.

D)fall from high altitude.

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Chapter 22: Pneumothorax

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Q1) The lung on the affected side collapses.

2) The visceral and parietal pleura separate.

3) The visceral pleura adheres to the parietal pleura.

4) The chest wall moves outward.

A)1, 3

B)3, 4

C)2, 4

D)1, 2, 4

Q2) After the patient has had repeated pneumothoraces of her right lung, the physician has recommended that the patient have the problem permanently eliminated. What should be done?

A) Pleurodesis

B)Right pneumonectomy

C)Permanent right sided chest tube

D)Right upper lobectomy

Q3) An iatrogenic pneumothorax may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:

A) positive-pressure mechanical ventilation.

B)pleural biopsy.

C)subclavian vein cannulation.

D)endotracheal intubation.

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Chapter 23: Effusion and Empyema

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Q1) The major pathologic and structural changes associated with a significant pleural effusion include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) diaphragm elevation.

B)atelectasis.

C)compression of the great vessels.

D)lung compression.

Q2) While reviewing the upright chest radiograph of your patient, you see a fluid density in the right lung area that extends upward around the anterior, lateral, and posterior thoracic walls. What is this sign of a pleural effusion called?

A) Meniscus sign

B)Scarf sign

C)Transudate sign

D)Kerley B lines

Q3) The anatomic alteration caused by a pleural effusion is:

A) pulmonary fibrosis.

B)separation of the visceral and parietal pleura.

C)adhesion of the visceral and parietal pleura.

D)pulmonary edema.

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Chapter 24: Kyphoscoliosis

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Q1) Positive risk factor(s) for the development of kyphoscoliosis include:

1) male gender.

2) female gender.

3) taller person.

4) shorter person.

A)1

B)2

C)2, 3

D)1, 4

Q2) Your patient has a 45-degree curvature of her spine. The physician is most likely to recommend which of the following?

A) Surgery for rod instrumentation

B)Observation checkup in about 3 months

C)Milwaukee or other brace

D)Surgery for spinal fusion

Q3) Braces are most effective with which group of kyphoscoliosis patients?

A) Adolescents with idiopathic scoliosis

B)Patients with congenital scoliosis

C)Patients with neuromuscular scoliosis

D)Infants with idiopathic scoliosis

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Chapter 25: Interstitial Lung Diseases

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Q1) What group of people are the most likely to get sarcoidosis?

1) African-American women

2) White men

3) 20- to 30-year age bracket

4) >50-year age bracket

A)2

B)1, 3

C)1, 4

D)2, 3

Q2) Your patient with mild to moderate ILD has hypoxemia and will be given oxygen therapy. All of the following are possible causes of hypoxemia EXCEPT:

A) hypoventilation.

B)capillary shunting.

C)alveolar thickening.

D)fibrosis.

Q3) Generally, a patient with ILD will have a lung compliance that is:

A) higher than normal.

B)normal.

C)less than normal.

D)variable based on the etiology.

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Chapter 26: Cancer of the Lung

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Q1) Your patient with advanced lung cancer with metastasis to several organs has chosen palliative care. What does this mean?

A) Aggressive chemotherapy

B)Chemotherapy and radiation therapy

C)Surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy

D)Treating his symptoms

Q2) Which of the following is/are small cell lung cancer(s)?

1) Undifferentiated carcinoma

2) Squamous carcinoma

3) Adenocarcinoma

4) Oat cell carcinoma

A)4

B)1, 3

C)2, 4

D)1, 2, 3

Q3) The most common cause of lung cancer is:

A) smoking tobacco.

B)smoking marijuana.

C)inhaling asbestos.

D)inhaling radon gas.

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Chapter 27: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

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Q1) All of the following would be low tidal volume ventilation goals in a patient with ARDS, EXCEPT:

A) decrease barotraumas.

B)plateau pressure > 30 cm H<sub>2</sub>O.

C)decrease high transpulmonary pressures.

D)reduce overdistension of the lungs.

Q2) The ventilation strategy used with most patients with ARDS includes:

1) large tidal volume.

2) small tidal volume.

3) high respiratory rate.

4) low respiratory rate.

A)2

B)3

C)1, 4

D)2, 3

Q3) A chest radiograph finding indicative of ARDS is:

A) "ground-glass" appearance.

B)pleural effusion.

C)lung hyperinflation.

D)tracheal deviation.

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Chapter 28: Guillain-Barré Syndrome

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Q1) Guillain-Barré syndrome is most likely to be found in which demographic group?

A) African-American female 20-30 years of age

B)Hispanic male <45 years of age

C)Asian female 20-40 years of age

D)White male = 45 years of age

Q2) Common noncardiopulmonary manifestations associated with Guillain-Barré is/are:

1) difficulty swallowing.

2) leg pain.

3) distal paresthesia.

4) absent deep tendon reflexes.

A)1

B)2, 3

C)1, 2, 4

D)1, 2, 3, 4

Q3) Your patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome is developing atelectasis. His chest radiograph findings would show:

A) "ground-glass" appearance.

B)crackles.

C)increased opacity.

D)blunted costophrenic angles.

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Chapter 29: Myasthenia Gravis

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Q1) The major pathologic or structural changes of the lungs associated with ventilatory failure accompanying myasthenia gravis include:

1) bronchospasm.

2) airway obstruction.

3) mucus accumulation.

4) alveolar dilation.

A)1, 4

B)2, 3

C)1, 2, 3

D)1, 2, 3, 4

Q2) Your patient with myasthenia gravis is being given a corticosteroid medication. Long-term complications of this medication include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) infections.

B)cataracts.

C)bronchodilation.

D)osteoporosis.

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Chapter 30: Sleep Apnea

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Q1) All of the following are found during rapid eye movement sleep, EXCEPT:

A) the diaphragm functions normally.

B)the person is easy to awaken.

C)dreaming occurs.

D)skeletal muscles are paralyzed.

Q2) Sleep apnea would be diagnosed in a patient who has these findings:

1) More than 5 apnea episodes per hour over a 6-hour period

2) More than 5 apnea episodes per hour over an 8-hour period

3) Apnea episodes in non-REM sleep

4) Apnea episodes in REM sleep

A)1, 4

B)2, 3

C)2, 3, 4

D)1, 3, 4

Q3) All of the following are evaluated during a polysomnographic sleep study, EXCEPT:

A) breath sounds.

B)chest and/or abdominal movement.

C)electro-oculogram (EOG).

D)nasal and oral air flow.

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Page 32

Chapter 31: Newborn and Early Childhood Respiratory Disorders

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Q1) Your neonatal patient has PPHN. What may develop as a consequence of this?

A) Cardiomegaly

B)Pulmonary embolism

C)Mucosal edema

D)Cardiac tamponade

Q2) PPHN usually appears:

A) in utero during the last trimester.

B)within 1 hour of birth.

C)within the first 12 hours of birth.

D)between the 1st and 6th days of life.

Q3) A neonate in respiratory distress will often dilate his/her nostrils to:

A) facilitate inspiration.

B)nurse more easily.

C)sneeze out amniotic fluid.

D)raise its intrapleural pressure.

Q4) A newborn's 5-minute Apgar score is 7. How should this be interpreted?

A) Normal adjustment to being born

B)Moderate distress; intubate the airway and suction the lungs

C)Moderate distress; administer supplemental oxygen

D)Severe distress; begin bag-mask resuscitation

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Chapter 32: Meconium Aspiration Syndrome

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Q1) Infants who are older than 42 weeks' gestation are at greater risk for MAS because they have:

1) a full bowel.

2) strong peristalsis.

3) amniotic fluid in their stomach.

4) sphincter tone.

A)1, 3

B)2, 4

C)2, 3, 4

D)1, 2, 4

Q2) Hyperinflation is noted on the chest radiograph of your patient with MAS. What sudden development(s) must be watched for?

1) PPHN

2) Pneumothorax

3) Cardiomegaly

4) Pneumomediastinum

A)2

B)2, 4

C)1, 2, 3

D)2, 3, 4

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Chapter 33: Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn

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Q1) A newborn is suspected of having TTN. If this is true, what will the initial chest radiograph show?

A) Normal lung fields

B)Hyperlucency

C)Flattened diaphragms

D)Bulging intercostal spaces

Q2) In the first few hours after birth, TTN manifests itself clinically as:

A) a restrictive pulmonary disorder.

B)an obstructive pulmonary disorder.

C)equally restrictive and obstructive disorder.

D)obstructive initially and restrictive later.

Q3) Initially, TTN will have a clinical presentation similar to:

A) the early stage of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS).

B)the late stage of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS).

C)bronchial pneumonia.

D)meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS).

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Chapter 34: Respiratory Distress Syndrome

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Q1) Which of the following are usually seen in the lungs of a neonate with RDS?

A) Alveolar collapse (atelectasis)

B)Segmental atelectasis

C)Lobar atelectasis

D)Pulmonary fibrosis

Q2) It is likely that a neonate with RDS will have the following chest radiograph finding:

A) airway dilation and distortion.

B)fluffy infiltrates in the bases of the lungs.

C)ground-glass appearance.

D)cardiomegaly.

Q3) The neonate with RDS would have a phosphatidylglycerol (PG) level that is A) present.

B)absent.

C)above normal.

D)below normal.

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Chapter 35: Pulmonary Air Leak Syndromes

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Q1) Your patient is suspected of having a pneumothorax and the physician is performing transillumination to assess the situation. What finding would confirm that there is a pneumothorax?

A) The trachea will be illuminated.

B)Light will shine through the hole in the lung.

C)Increased illumination on the unaffected side

D)Increased illumination on the affected side

Q2) When trapped gas causes alveolar overdistention and rupture, does where the gas initially go?

1) Both pleural spaces

2) Tissue sheaths surrounding airways and capillaries

3) Interlobular septa containing pulmonary veins

4) Pericardial sac

A)2, 3

B)1, 4

C)1, 2, 3

D)2, 3, 4

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Chapter 36: Respiratory Syncytial Virus Infection

Bronchiolitis or Pneumonitis

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Q1) An infant with RSV will show what clinical manifestations associated with the more negative intrapleural pressures needed during inspiration?

1) See-saw breathing movement

2) Breath sounds reveal pleural friction rub

3) Inspiratory stridor

4) Cyanosis of the dependent abdominal areas

A)2, 4

B)1, 4

C)1, 3, 4

D)1, 2, 3, 4

Q2) Which of the following patients is least likely to experience a severe RSV infection?

A) A 6-month old recently diagnosed with cystic fibrosis

B)A 3-month old born who was born prematurely

C)A 2-year old undergoing chemotherapy for leukemia

D)A 3-year old with no siblings

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Chapter 37: Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia

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Q1) A very preterm infant has just been born. What would contribute to its development of the "new" bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)?

A) Interruption of the canalicular stage of lung development

B)Transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN)

C)Low Apgar scores

D)Laryngotracheobronchitis

Q2) All of the following methods or goals with mechanical ventilation have been used to help prevent the development of BPD, EXCEPT:

A) keep the PaCO<sub>2</sub> above 55 mm Hg.

B)low tidal volumes.

C)prevent the infant from triggering the ventilator.

D)high ventilator respiratory rate.

Q3) What can be given to a preterm infant to help reduce lung inflammation and the incidence of BPD?

A) Vitamin D

B)Exogenous surfactant

C)Ribavirin (Virazole)

D)Corticosteroids

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Chapter 38: Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia

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Q1) What will happen to the developing lungs of a fetus with a CDH?

A) Pulmonary hypoplasia

B)Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)

C)They will fill with amniotic fluid.

D)Meconium will be aspirated.

Q2) The major pathologic and structural changes associated with CDH include:

1) fewer bronchial generations.

2) complete lung collapse.

3) atelectasis.

4) mediastinal shift.

A)1, 2

B)3, 4

C)2, 3, 4

D)1, 2, 3, 4

Q3) All of the following chest radiograph findings would be found in a patient with a CDH, EXCEPT:

A) steeple point sign.

B)complete lung collapse.

C)lungs do not meet the chest wall.

D)heart is shifted to the unaffected side.

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Chapter 39: Croup Syndrome: Laryngotracheobronchitis and

Acute Epiglottitis

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Q1) You are the respiratory therapist working in the pediatric unit of the hospital. The physician who is caring for a 3-year-old boy with LTB asks what respiratory therapy treatments should be given. You would suggest which of the following?

1) Racemic epinephrine

2) Cool mist tent

3) Antibiotics

4) Endotracheal or tracheostomy tube

A)1, 2

B)2, 4

C)1, 2, 3

D)1, 2, 3, 4

Q2) Management of LTB usually includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A) close observation for breathing difficulties.

B)having the child drink fluids.

C)placement into a cool aerosol tent.

D)endotracheal intubation.

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Chapter 40: Near Drowning

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Q1) What water temperature has been shown to be a favorable prognostic factor in near drowning?

A) Higher than 104° F

B)98.6° F

C)Between 98° F and 70° F

D)Less than 70° F

Q2) Warming techniques for a cold-water near drowning victim include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) cooling the extremities and warming the body.

B)warming the inspired oxygen.

C)heated intravenous solutions.

D)heated lavage of the pericardial space.

Q3) A 10-year-old girl was rescued from a school swimming pool. She was unconscious and transported to the hospital. There, she awakened and it was found that her lungs were dry and normal. What could cause her to be a near drowning victim with dry lungs?

A) Her glottis spasmed to close the airway.

B)Chlorinated pool water is quickly absorbed.

C)Her young age and cool pool water

D)She swallowed all of the water.

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Page 42

Chapter 41: Smoke Inhalation and Thermal Injuries

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Sample Questions

Q1) Late stage complications of extensive body surface burns include:

1) sepsis.

2) cyanide poisoning.

3) pneumonia.

4) pulmonary embolism.

A)1, 2

B)3, 4

C)2, 3

D)1, 3, 4

Q2) Your patient has ARDS and is in acute ventilatory failure. As the respiratory therapist, what would you recommend be done?

A) Apply continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)

B)Provide 100% oxygen

C)Begin mechanical ventilation with positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)

D)Begin extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)

Q3) The long term effects of a smoke inhalation injury are:

A) obstructive lung disease.

B)restrictive lung disease.

C)obstructive and restrictive lung disease.

D)neither, there is normally complete healing.

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Chapter 42: Postoperative Atelectasis

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Q1) After open heart surgery, your patient has developed bronchitis with increased secretions and atelectasis. What respiratory therapy procedure(s) should initially be recommended?

1) Chest physical therapy

2) Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)

3) Incentive spirometry

4) Inhaled sympathomimetic medication

A)3

B)2, 4

C)1, 3

D)1, 2, 4

Q2) Which of the following patients should be placed on short-term mechanical ventilation because of the high risk of postoperative atelectasis?

A) Appendectomy

B)Tracheostomy

C)Bronchoscopy for tumor biopsy

D)Cardiac surgery

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