Respiratory Care Technology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Respiratory Care Technology is a comprehensive course designed to introduce students to the foundational principles and practices of respiratory therapy. The course covers the physiology of the respiratory system, common respiratory diseases and disorders, and the therapeutic interventions used in their management. Students will learn about the operation and maintenance of equipment such as ventilators, oxygen delivery systems, and aerosol therapy devices. Emphasis is placed on patient assessment, evidence-based clinical practices, airway management, and infection control procedures. Through a combination of theoretical instruction and hands-on laboratory experience, students gain the skills necessary to effectively support and treat patients with respiratory compromise in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Manifestations and Assessment of Respiratory Disease 7th Edition by Terry Des
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Page 2
Jardins
Chapter 1: The Patient Interview
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist is conducting a patient interview and recording responses in the patient's electronic health record. The respiratory therapist should take which of the following into account regarding the use of the computer to record responses?
A) The therapist's attention may be shifted from the patient to the computer.
B) The patient will feel more important than if the information is recorded on paper.
C) The therapist will be less likely to make spelling errors if using a spell-check program.
D) The environment will be more professional and the patient will be more likely to open up if the interview is conducted with paper.
Answer: A
Q2) The physical setting for the interview should provide for all of the following EXCEPT: A) minimize or prevent interruptions.
B) ensure privacy during discussions.
C) interviewer is the same sex as the patient to prevent bias.
D) be comfortable for the patient and interviewer.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: The Physical Examination and Its Basis in Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) While assessing an unconscious patient, the respiratory therapist observes that the patient's breathing becomes progressively faster and deeper and then progressively becomes slower and shallower. After that, there is a period of apnea before the cycle begins again. This breathing pattern would be identified as:
A) Cheyne-Stokes.
B) tachypnea.
C) Kussmaul.
D) hyperventilation.
Answer: A
Q2) When would induced hypothermia be indicated?
A) During brain surgery
B) During bowel surgery
C) To break a fever
D) To treat carbon monoxide poisoning
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Pulmonary Function Study Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pulmonary diffusion capacity of the carbon monoxide test is used to:
A) assess the patient's blood carbon monoxide level.
B) remove carbon monoxide from the patient's blood.
C) measure the residual volume.
D) assess the alveolar-capillary membrane.
Answer: D
Q2) The respiratory therapist is performing a pulmonary function study on a patient who has periodic symptoms of asthma. The pulmonary function results are within normal limits. What further testing can the therapist recommend to aid in either confirming or negating the possible diagnosis?
A) Inhaled methacholine challenge testing
B) Body plethysmography
C) Inhaled digitalis
D) Warm, humid air challenge
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 4: Arterial Blood Gas Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) An anion gap of 15 would indicate:
A) metabolic acidosis.
B) respiratory alkalosis.
C) respiratory acidosis.
D) metabolic alkalosis.
Q2) Which of the following would be found in a stable patient with long-standing obstructive lung disease?
A) Low bicarbonate level and low carbon dioxide level
B) Low bicarbonate level and high carbon dioxide level
C) High bicarbonate level and low carbon dioxide level
D) High bicarbonate level and high carbon dioxide level
Q3) All of the following will be seen in the arterial blood gas values of a patient with acute ventilatory failure EXCEPT a(n):
A) acidic pH.
B) near-normal bicarbonate level.
C) alkaline pH.
D) high carbon dioxide level.
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6
Chapter 5: Oxygenation Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) An increased cardiac output causes the:
1) C(a-v)O<sub>2 </sub> to decrease.
2) SvO<sub>2 </sub> to increase.
3) total O<sub>2 </sub> delivery to decrease.
4) O<sub>2 </sub> ER to increase.
A) 1
B) 2, 3
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 2
Q2) A patient is mildly hypoxemic. Which of the following signs would the respiratory therapist expect to find in this patient?
A) An increase in the patient's breathing rate and heart rate
B) A decrease in systemic blood pressure
C) Cardiac dysrhythmias on an EKG
D) Anemia
Q3) A condition that will cause anemic hypoxia is:
A) cyanide poisoning.
B) decreased cardiac output or heart failure.
C) polycythemia.
D) carbon monoxide poisoning.
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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist is monitoring a patient in the medical ICU and notes multiple premature ventricular complexes (PVCs) on the cardiac monitor. The respiratory therapist elects to review the patient's medication administration record (MAR) for medications the patient is receiving to rule out medication toxicity as a cause of the PVCs. Which of the following medications should the therapist evaluate as a possibility of inducing PVCs?
A) Theophylline
B) Beta blockers
C) Vitamin D
D) Acetaminophen
Q2) A pulmonary artery (Swan-Ganz) catheter can be used for all of the following EXCEPT:
A) measuring cardiac output.
B) arterial blood sampling.
C) measuring left atrial pressure.
D) measuring pulmonary artery pressure.
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8
Chapter 7: Radiologic Examination of the Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chest radiograph shows blunting of the patient's costophrenic angles. What does this suggest?
A) The patient did not take a deep enough breath.
B) Lung cancer
C) Pleural fluid
D) Underpenetrated exposure on the film
Q2) Which of the following are evaluated on a chest radiograph?
1) The bony structures
2) Exposure quality
3) The heart shadow
4) The tracheobronchial tree
A) 4
B) 1, 4
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) Which of the following is true of a chest radiograph?
A) Lateral films are shot through one side of an upright patient.
B) AP films are typically taken in the x-ray department.
C) PA films artificially increase the size of the heart shadow.
D) Lateral decubitus films are shot with the patient lying supine.
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Chapter 8: Other Important Tests and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) In response to a viral infection, which of the following can be expected to be seen in the white blood cell count?
A) Increased lymphocytes
B) Decreased monocytes
C) Increased basophils
D) Decreased platelets
Q2) The respiratory therapist is caring for a patient who is receiving diuretic therapy as part of the medication regimen for her congestive heart failure. Which of the following would the therapist MOST likely monitor in watching for common side effects associated with diuretic therapy?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hyperchloremia
C) Hyperbilirubinemia
D) Hyponatremia
Q3) After a thoracentesis procedure, it is important to monitor the patient for:
A) bronchospasm.
B) hemoptysis.
C) increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN).
D) pneumothorax.
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Chapter 9: The Therapist-Driven Protocol Program and the
Role of the Respiratory Therapist
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Sample Questions
Q1) Postural drainage, percussion, and vibration are part of what TDP?
A) Lung expansion protocol
B) Bronchopulmonary hygiene therapy protocol
C) Aerosolized medication therapy protocol
D) Oxygen therapy protocol
Q2) Which of the following pathophysiologic mechanisms would be expected in the excessive bronchial secretions clinical scenario?
1) Decreased ventilation/perfusion ratio
2) Increased airway resistance
3) Stimulation of the deflation reflex
4) Stimulation of the irritant reflex
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 4
Q3) A TDP can be started after:
A) the nurse finishes his or her assessment.
B) the treatment option is selected.
C) a physician's order for the TDP is received.
Page 11
D) authorization is received from the patient's insurance carrier.
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Chapter 10: Respiratory Failure and the Mechanical
Ventilation Protocol
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism in alveolar hypoventilation?
A) Decreased minute ventilation
B) Increased ventilation/perfusion ratio
C) Decreased venous admixture
D) Decreased inspired oxygen pressure
Q2) Which of the following are clinical indicators of Type I respiratory failure?
1) Decreased PaO<sub>2</sub>
2) Increased P(A-a)O<sub>2</sub>
3) Decreased PaO<sub>2</sub>/FIO<sub>2</sub>
4) Decreased ÓS/ÓT
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) All of the following are causes of hypercapnic respiratory failure EXCEPT:
A) impending ventilatory failure.
B) apnea.
C) severe refractory hypoxemia.
D) acute ventilatory failure.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Recording Skills: The Basis for Data Collection,
Organization, Assessment Skill
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Sample Questions
Q1) Computer-based records are commonly used for which of the following?
1) Retrieving pulmonary function studies
2) Storing treatment information
3) Storing admission data
4) Ordering patient supplies
A) 3, 4
B) 1, 2
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) When the respiratory therapist is entering a SOAPIER progress note in a patient's chart, the A stands for:
A) application of the data.
B) acceptance of the treatment options by the patient.
C) affect of the patient.
D) assessment of the data by the respiratory therapist.
Q3) When reviewing a SOAPIER progress note, the R stands for:
A) revisions made in the original plan.
B) reimbursement by the insurance carrier.
C) respiratory care notes.
D) resuscitation status of the patient.
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Chapter 12: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD),
Chronic Bronchitis, and Emphysema
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are used to confirm the diagnosis of COPD?
1) Presence of a chronic cough
2) Chronic exposure to environmental smoke
3) FEV<sub>1</sub>/FVC ratio greater than 0.70
4) FEV<sub>1</sub> <80%
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
Q2) In the United States, the primary factor leading to the development of COPD is:
A) a1-antitrypsin deficiency.
B) recurrent respiratory infections.
C) socioeconomic status.
D) tobacco smoking.
Q3) The genetic reference to a person with a normal level of a?-antitrypsin is _____ phenotype.
A) Z
B) MZ
C) MM
D) ZZ
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Asthma
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following symptoms are commonly associated with asthma EXCEPT recurrent:
A) cough.
B) chest tightness.
C) fever.
D) wheeze.
Q2) What is the name for the microscopic structures formed from the breakdown of eosinophils in allergic asthma?
A) Charlene-Lichty crystals
B) Charcot-Leyden crystals
C) Colleen-Lyndahl clusters
D) Charles-Lahr casts
Q3) What is the term for an inspiratory fall in systolic blood pressure exceeding 10 mm Hg?
A) Pulsus paradoxus
B) Stage I hypotension
C) Swanson's phenomenon
D) Hoover's sign
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15
Chapter 14: Bronchiectasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with severe bronchiectasis may show all of the following signs EXCEPT:
A) distended neck veins.
B) pitting edema.
C) enlarged and tender liver.
D) S<sub>3</sub> heart sound.
Q2) A patient with long-standing bronchiectasis also has pneumonia. Which of the following hematology test results would be expected?
1) Decreased red blood cell (RBC) count
2) Decreased white blood cell (WBC) count
3) Elevated WBC count
4) Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 3, 4
Q3) Severe bronchiectasis is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
A) vesicular breath sounds.
B) cor pulmonale.
C) distended neck veins.
D) polycythemia.
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Chapter 15: Cystic Fibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major pathologic or structural changes associated with cystic fibrosis include:
1) partial airway obstruction leading to hyperinflation.
2) bronchospasm.
3) thick, tenacious mucus.
4) total airway obstruction leading to atelectasis.
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Cystic fibrosis patients can have all of the following EXCEPT:
A) malnutrition.
B) meconium ileus (bowel obstruction).
C) excessive, viscous pulmonary secretions.
D) tendency for status asthmaticus.
Q3) All of the following can be used in the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis EXCEPT:
A) an elevated potassium level in the sweat.
B) an elevated chloride level in the sweat.
C) genetic testing of the patient and/or parents.
D) chronic lung infections from an early age.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Pneumonia
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a pleural effusion related to her pneumonia. Which of the following should the respiratory therapist recommend to treat the pleural effusion?
A) Hyperinflation therapy
B) Supplemental oxygen
C) Thoracentesis
D) Percussion and postural drainage
Q2) Physical assessment findings on a patient with pneumonia would include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) bradycardia.
B) whispered pectoriloquy.
C) dull percussion note.
D) increased vocal fremitus.
Q3) Overall, most cases of pneumonia are caused by:
A) viruses.
B) gram-negative bacteria.
C) protozoa.
D) fungi.
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18
Chapter 17: Lung Abscess
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Sample Questions
Q1) An unconscious patient aspirated gastric contents. Which of the following anaerobic microorganisms would likely now be found in her lower respiratory tract?
1) Legionella pneumophila
2) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
3) Peptococci
4) Bacteroides fragilis
A) 1, 3
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) What is the standard treatment for a lung abscess caused by an anaerobic pathogen?
A) Clindamycin
B) Linezolid
C) Neomycin
D) Omalizumab
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Chapter 18: Tuberculosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has an uncontrolled tuberculosis infection will show all of the following signs EXCEPT:
A) weight loss.
B) high fever.
C) bloody sputum.
D) night sweats.
Q2) A patient has been found to have tuberculosis (TB) in several organs of the body. What term is used to describe this situation?
A) Primary TB
B) Postprimary TB
C) Disseminated TB
D) Multiorgan TB
Q3) Mycobacterium tuberculosis is most readily transmitted through:
A) drinking milk from or the milking of infected cows.
B) shaking hands and then rubbing your eye.
C) coughing.
D) accidental direct inoculation.
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Chapter 19: Fungal Diseases of the Lung
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with an advanced pulmonary fungal infection has cor pulmonale. How will this manifest itself?
A) Distended neck veins
B) Poor skin turgor
C) Wheezy breath sounds
D) Asymmetrical chest movement when breathing
Q2) Fungal lung infections are usually spread by:
A) inhaling spores.
B) blood.
C) contact with infected sputum.
D) inhaling infected droplets.
Q3) A patient lives in Chicago and has HIV and a weakened immune system. What fungal infection is the patient at risk of developing?
A) Mycoplasma infection
B) Blastomycosis
C) Streptococcal infection
D) Disseminated histoplasmosis
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21
Chapter 20: Pulmonary Edema
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Sample Questions
Q1) Management of cardiogenic pulmonary edema includes giving a patient which of the following types of medications?
1) Afterload reducer
2) Positive inotropic medication
3) Preload reducing medication
4) Positive chronotropic medication
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Q2) All of the following are positive risk factors for coronary heart disease (CHD) EXCEPT: A) elevated homocysteine level.
B) elevated vitamin E level.
C) hypertension.
D) diabetes mellitus.
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22
Chapter 21: Pulmonary Vascular Disease: Pulmonary
Embolism and Pulmonary Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) The duplex venous ultrasonography test is used to:
A) diagnose a blood clot below the knee.
B) identify a saddle embolism.
C) diagnose a blood clot behind the knee or thigh.
D) identify a pulmonary infarction.
Q2) Which of the following fibrinolytic agents are used to treat a pulmonary embolism?
1) Urokinase
2) Vitamin K
3) Heparin
4) Streptokinase
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) The best test for diagnosing a suspected pulmonary embolism is a(n):
A) spiral computerized tomography scan.
B) pulmonary function test.
C) electrocardiogram.
D) chest radiograph.
23
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Chapter 22: Flail Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a flail chest is experiencing pendelluft. Which of the following would be expected in a patient with a flail chest with pendelluft?
1) Hypoventilation
2) Hypertension
3) Cyclical deeper and then more shallow breathing
4) Rebreathing dead-space gas
A) 1, 4
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following initial blood gas results would a respiratory therapist expect to find in a patient with a mild flail chest?
A) Elevated pH and elevated SaO<sub>2</sub>
B) Decreased pH and decreased SaO<sub>2</sub>
C) Increased pH and decreased SaO<sub>2</sub>
D) Decreased pH and increased SaO<sub>2</sub>
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Chapter 23: Pneumothorax
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pneumothorax manifests itself clinically as a primary _____ disorder.
A) restrictive
B) obstructive
C) restrictive disorder with a secondary obstructive
D) obstructive disorder with secondary restrictive
Q2) A sucking chest wound would be classified as a(n) _____ pneumothorax.
A) open
B) closed
C) iatrogenic
D) valvular
Q3) Which type of untreated pneumothorax is considered to be the most serious?
A) Spontaneous
B) Tension
C) Malignant
D) Iatrogenic
Q4) An iatrogenic pneumothorax may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) positive-pressure mechanical ventilation.
B) pleural biopsy.
C) subclavian vein cannulation.
D) endotracheal intubation.
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Chapter 24: Pleural Effusion and Empyema
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Q1) A patient has a pleural effusion from an unknown cause. A fluid sample has been taken for analysis. To help identify the cause of the effusion, all of the following tests should be performed EXCEPT:
A) specific gravity.
B) biochemical makeup.
C) cytologic examination.
D) bacterial culture.
Q2) A respiratory therapist is assisting a physician who is performing a thoracentesis. It is suspected that the patient has a chylothorax. How would the pleural effusion be described?
A) Milky white
B) Straw colored
C) Red
D) Green
Q3) What is the most common cause of a chylothorax?
A) Thoracic duct trauma
B) Abdominal tumor
C) GERD
D) Pyloric stenosis
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Chapter 25: Kyphoscoliosis
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Q1) In a case of severe kyphoscoliosis, which of the following chest radiograph findings would be expected?
1) Enlarged heart
2) Areas of atelectasis
3) Increased lung opacity
4) Thoracic deformity
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) The Charleston bending brace is preferred over other braces because it:
1) is worn only 23 hours a day.
2) is worn for 8 to 10 hours at night.
3) is worn at night, when human growth hormone level is highest.
4) corrects any associated upper airway obstruction.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
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Chapter 26: Interstitial Lung Diseases
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Q1) All of the following are associated with lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM) EXCEPT:
A) recurrent chylothoraces and recurrent pneumothoraces.
B) increased airway obstruction.
C) postmenopausal women are primarily affected.
D) airway smooth muscle is affected.
Q2) All of the following are interstitial lung diseases EXCEPT:
A) asbestosis.
B) sarcoidosis.
C) Staphylococcus.
D) silicosis.
Q3) Which of the following is the largest group of agents associated with drug-induced interstitial lung disease?
A) Anticancer agents
B) Cardiovascular agents
C) Antibiotics agents
D) Antiinflammatory agents
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28
Chapter 27: Cancer of the Lung
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Q1) Which of the following is the most common form of lung cancer among those who have never smoked cigarettes or other tobacco products?
A) Squamous cell carcinoma
B) Adenocarcinoma
C) Large cell carcinoma
D) Small cell carcinoma
Q2) Which form of lung cancer has the poorest prognosis?
A) Large cell carcinoma
B) Adenocarcinoma
C) Small cell carcinoma
D) Squamous cell carcinoma
Q3) Benign tumors:
1) are metastatic.
2) grow slowly.
3) are usually encapsulated.
4) grow in a disordered manner.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
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Chapter 28: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chest radiograph finding indicative of severe ARDS is:
A) "ground-glass" appearance of the lungs.
B) pleural effusion.
C) bilateral hyperinflation of the lungs.
D) tracheal deviation.
Q2) A patient has a prolonged case of ARDS. What changes would be expected in the patient's alveolar cells?
A) Multiplication of the type I cells
B) Influx of macrophages
C) Hyperplasia and swelling of the type II cells
D) Development of emphysema
Q3) Which of the following are causes of ARDS?
1) Liver failure
2) Heroin abuse
3) Septicemia
4) Goodpasture's syndrome
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 29: Guillain-Barré Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) Typical chest assessment findings in a patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome include:
1) diminished breath sounds.
2) crackles.
3) tracheal deviation.
4) depressed diaphragms.
A) 4
B) 1, 2
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Under microscopic inspection, the skeletal muscle nerves of a Guillain-Barré patient show all of the following EXCEPT:
A) hypertrophy.
B) edema.
C) inflammation.
D) demyelination.
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Chapter 30: Myasthenia Gravis
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient with myasthenia gravis is given edrophonium, what response would be expected?
A) Diaphragmatic strength will increase for 12 to 24 hours.
B) Strength will temporarily improve for 10 minutes.
C) Muscle strength will increase for 48 to 72 hours.
D) Muscle strength will decrease for 10 minutes.
Q2) A patient has a severe case of generalized myasthenia gravis. It is most important that the patient be monitored for:
A) urine output.
B) atrial fibrillation.
C) hypotension.
D) apnea.
Q3) What percentage of patients with only ocular myasthenia gravis are seropositive?
A) <10%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 90%
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32
Chapter 31: Sleep Apnea
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a pulmonary function study, it was found that a patient has a sawtooth pattern on his flow-volume loop. What is this finding associated with?
A) Central sleep apnea
B) COPD
C) Obstructive sleep apnea
D) Laryngeal edema (epiglottitis)
Q2) Clinical disorders associated with central sleep apnea include:
1) Pickwickian syndrome.
2) depression.
3) encephalitis.
4) brain stem infarction.
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 2, 3, 4
Q3) All of the following are evaluated during a polysomnographic sleep study EXCEPT: A) breath sounds.
B) chest and/or abdominal movement.
C) electro-oculogram (EOG).
D) nasal and oral air flow.
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Chapter 32: Clinical Manifestations Common with Newborn and
Early Childhood Respiratory Dis
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Q1) Which of the following can trigger apnea in the premature infant?
1) Micrognathia
2) Intracranial hemorrhage
3) REM sleep
4) Hypothermia
A) 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) A neonatal patient is found to have grunting on expiration. What physiologic effect does this produce?
A) Increased vital capacity
B) Increased PAO<sub>2</sub>
C) Decreased PaCO<sub>2</sub>
D) Closes the ductus arteriosus
Q3) PPHN usually appears:
A) in utero during the last trimester.
B) within 1 hour of birth.
C) within the first 12 hours of birth.
D) between the 1st and 6th days of life.
34
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Chapter 33: Meconium Aspiration Syndrome
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Q1) Indications that a newborn has aspirated meconium include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) high Apgar score.
B) meconium in amniotic fluid.
C) newborn is not actively breathing.
D) meconium staining on skin.
Q2) A patient has meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS) and a chemical pneumonitis as a result. What effect(s) can this have?
1) Decreased surfactant production
2) Increased bacterial growth
3) Edema of bronchial mucosa
4) Excessive bronchial secretions
A) 3
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 34: Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn
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Q1) At what gestational age is TTN most common?
A) 26 to 28 weeks' gestational age
B) 28 to 30 weeks' gestational age
C) 34 to 36 weeks' gestational age
D) 38 to 40 weeks' gestational age
Q2) All of the following radiologic findings would be expected in a 12-hour-old neonate with TTN EXCEPT:
A) air bronchograms.
B) fluid in the interlobular fissures.
C) elevated diaphragms.
D) prominent perihilar streaking.
Q3) All of the following are usually performed in the general management of a patient with TTN EXCEPT:
A) oxygen therapy administration.
B) administration of diuretics.
C) proper stabilization.
D) ruling out other serious conditions.
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36
Chapter 35: Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) A patient has RDS. What clinical manifestations are associated with the more negative intrapleural pressures needed during inspiration?
1) Seesaw breathing movement
2) Vesicular breath sounds
3) Pulmonary edema
4) Dependent thoracic areas are cyanotic
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) The hyaline membrane seen in the alveoli of a neonate with RDS is similar to the anatomic alteration found in what other pulmonary disease?
A) Bacterial pneumonia
B) Pulmonary fibrosis
C) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
D) Meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS)
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Chapter 36: Pulmonary Air Leak Syndromes
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Q1) Prior to the introduction of exogenous surfactant, with which condition were preterm neonates most likely to develop pulmonary air leak syndrome?
A) Meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS)
B) Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
C) Transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN)
D) Apnea of prematurity
Q2) A physician is performing transillumination to determine whether a neonate has a pneumothorax. What finding would confirm the presence of a pneumothorax?
A) The trachea will be illuminated.
B) Light will shine through the hole in the lung.
C) There will be increased illumination on the unaffected side.
D) There will be increased illumination on the affected side.
Q3) Which of the following conditions is described as dissection of gas into the fascial planes of the skin and neck?
A) ASIHD
B) Intravascular air embolism
C) PIE
D) Subcutaneous emphysema
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Chapter 37: Respiratory Syncytial Virus (Bronchiolitis or Pneumonitis)
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Q1) Outbreaks of RSV are usually found in all of the following seasons of the year EXCEPT: A) spring.
B) summer.
C) fall.
D) winter.
Q2) Which of the following characteristics would put an adult at increased risk for a severe case of RSV?
1) Compromised immune system
2) History of asthma
3) Under 30 years of age
4) More than 65 years of age
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 4
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Chapter 38: Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia
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Q1) If a patient has an advanced stage of BPD, what cardiac problem may be identified on the chest radiograph?
A) Pneumomediastinum
B) Cardiac tamponade
C) Change in point of maximum impulse
D) Cor pulmonale
Q2) A patient with classic Stage 1 BPD will have which of the following chest radiograph findings?
A) Ground-glass granular pattern
B) Emphysematous bullae
C) Honeycomb appearance
D) Mediastinal shift
Q3) What is the most significant treatment of the neonate for the prevention of BPD?
A) Corticosteroids
B) Diuretic therapy
C) Vitamin E therapy
D) Exogenous surfactant
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Chapter 39: Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following anatomic alterations may be found in a patient with a congenital diaphragmatic hernia EXCEPT:
A) lungs are compressed.
B) atelectasis.
C) hyperinflation.
D) complete lung collapse.
Q2) A newborn infant shows respiratory distress upon delivery. He is observed to have a scaphoid abdomen. Auscultation reveals diminished breath sounds with heart sounds on the right side of the chest. What is the infant's most likely diagnosis?
A) Tension pneumothorax
B) CDH
C) Pneumoperitoneum
D) Abdominal aortic aneurysm
Q3) What pulmonary change is associated with a Bochdalek hernia?
A) Pulmonary hypoplasia
B) Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Meconium aspiration
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Chapter 40: Congenital Heart Diseases
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Q1) According to the NHLBI, what is the most common type of birth defect?
A) Cerebral palsy
B) Congenital heart defects
C) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
D) Cleft palate
Q2) All of the following are associated with tetralogy of Fallot EXCEPT:
A) pulmonary artery stenosis.
B) dextroposition of the aorta.
C) right ventricular hypertrophy.
D) atrial septal defect.
Q3) What is the most common form of TGA?
A) a-TGA
B) b-TGA
C) c-TGA
D) d-TGA
Q4) What is the most common cyanotic congenital cardiac defect in neonates?
A) ASD
B) VSD
C) TGA
D) TOF
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Chapter 41: Croup Syndrome: Laryngotracheobronchitis and
Acute Epiglottitis
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Q1) All of the following would be expected during the assessment of a young child with LTB EXCEPT:
A) decreased respiratory rate.
B) diminished breath sounds.
C) use of accessory muscles.
D) hypoxemia.
Q2) In evaluating a 16-month-old boy, the respiratory therapist finds him to be in mild respiratory distress, without a fever, but with a barking-type cough. A lateral neck x-ray taken in the emergency department shows a "steeple point" narrowing of the trachea. Based on this information, which of the following would the respiratory therapist conclude is the most probable diagnosis?
A) Acute bronchitis
B) Epiglottitis
C) Bronchiolitis
D) LTB
Q3) What is the main clinical risk facing a patient with epiglottitis?
A) Secretions will block the trachea.
B) The epiglottis will bleed.
C) The laryngeal inlet may become covered by the epiglottis.
Page 43
D) The vocal cords will spasm and close the laryngeal inlet.
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Chapter 42: Near Drowning/Wet Drowning
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Q1) A 10-year-old girl was rescued from a school swimming pool, where she was found unconscious, and transported to a nearby hospital, where her lungs were discovered to be dry. What could cause dry lungs in this near drowning?
A) Her glottis spasmed and prevented pool water from entering her lungs.
B) Chlorinated pool water is quickly absorbed across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
C) Her young age and the cool pool water prevented serious pulmonary injury.
D) She swallowed the water.
Q2) According to the World Health Organization, where does drowning rank worldwide as a cause of unintentional death?
A) It's the leading cause of unintentional death.
B) It's the second leading cause of unintentional death.
C) It's the third leading cause of unintentional death.
D) It ranks twenty-third among the causes of unintentional death.
Q3) In the United States, what percentage of pediatric drowning victims are male?
A) 20%
B) 40%
C) 60%
D) 80%
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Chapter 43: Smoke Inhalation, Thermal Injuries, and Carbon
Monoxide Intoxication
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Q1) Which of the following radiographic findings would be associated with the intermediate stage of recovery from a serious smoke inhalation injury?
A) Pulmonary edema/ARDS
B) Patchy or segmental infiltrates
C) Empyema
D) Normal/full recovery
Q2) Clinical signs of an upper airway thermal injury include:
1) facial burns.
2) atelectasis.
3) mucosal edema.
4) epithelial sloughing.
A) 3
B) 1, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Atelectasis
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Q1) Which of the following patients should be placed on short-term mechanical ventilation because of the high risk of postoperative atelectasis?
A) Appendectomy
B) Tracheostomy
C) Bronchoscopy for tumor biopsy
D) Cardiac surgery
Q2) After open heart surgery, a patient has developed bronchitis with increased secretions and atelectasis. What respiratory therapy procedure(s) should initially be recommended?
1) Chest physical therapy
2) Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
3) Incentive spirometry
4) Inhaled sympathomimetic medication
A) 3
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 3
D) 1, 2, 4
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