Respiratory Care Skills Lab
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Respiratory Care Skills Lab is a hands-on course designed to provide students with practical experience in the fundamental procedures and techniques used in respiratory therapy. Through guided laboratory sessions, students develop competencies in airway management, oxygen delivery systems, medical gas administration, ventilator setup, and basic patient assessment skills. Emphasis is placed on safety, infection control, equipment handling, and communication within the healthcare team. This course prepares students to apply theoretical knowledge in clinical settings and lays the groundwork for proficient patient care in respiratory therapy practice.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Clinical Lab Competencies for Respiratory Care An Integrated Approach 5th Edition by Gary
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29 Chapters
851 Verified Questions
851 Flashcards
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2
Chapter 1: Basics of Asepsis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most frequent cause of needle sticks?
A) Attempting to recap a needle
B) Removing discarded needles or syringes from sharps containers
C) Attempting to force a needle into an already full container
D) Using puncture-proof containers
Answer: A
Q2) Tuberculosis is transmitted by ______________.
A) Vehicle transmission
B) Vectorborne transmission
C) Direct contact transmission
D) Airborne transmission
Answer: D
Q3) What is defined as the complete destruction of all forms of microorganisms?
A) Isolation
B) Standard precautions
C) Asepsis
D) Sterility
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Basic Patient Assessment: Vital Signs and Breath
Sounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted to the emergency department after being involved in a construction accident.The physician suspects the patient has a right tension pneumothorax.How would you assess the patient for a pneumothorax and why?
Answer: Chest movement should be assessed.Asymmetrical chest movement with lag of movement on the right can mean a pneumothorax of the right thorax.Breath sounds should be assessed.Absent or diminished breath sounds on the right could indicate a right tension pneumothorax.Percussion of the chest would reveal a hyperresonant percussion note over a pneumothorax.A large tension pneumothorax will shift the trachea away from the affected side (toward the left).Finally a chest x-ray should be performed to assess for and confirm the presence of a pneumothorax.
Q2) What breath sound is described as a loud,higher pitched breath sound with the expiratory phase longer than the inspiratory phase,with a short pause between phases?
A) Vesicular
B) Tracheal
C) Bronchial
D) Bronchovesicular
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Advanced Patient Assessment: Inspection,
Palpation, and Percussion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning digital clubbing or how chronic lung disease causes digital clubbing?
A) Hypoxemia (insufficient oxygen in the blood) results in the formation of arterial-venous anastomoses in the terminal digits.
B) Looking at the digits from above, the terminal portion decreases in diameter.
C) In clubbing, the angle between the nailbed and finger becomes increased.
D) The circulatory changes result in dramatic changes in the terminal portions of the digits (both fingers and toes).
Answer: B
Q2) What is defined as vibration felt on the palpation of the chest during phonation,or speech?
A) Pectus carinatum
B) Subcutaneous emphysema
C) Tactile fremitus
D) Hyperresonance
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Radiologic Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the density of an object being x-rayed is great,_____________________.
A) penetration is high.
B) penetration is low.
C) then the x-rays are being absorbed by the object.
D) the energy is not admitted by the tube.
Q2) Which of the following chest x-ray views is the most common for a standard chest x-ray to evaluate a patient's lung tissue?
A) Posterior-anterior (PA) view
B) Anterior-posterior (AP) view
C) Lateral view
D) Apical lordotic view
Q3) What is the most radiodense material viewed on a chest x-ray?
A) Water
B) Plastic
C) Metal
D) Air
Q4) A patient with a bilateral hyperresonant percussion note has a chest x-ray taken.What would you expect to find on the chest x-ray?
Q5) What can be evaluated on a chest radiograph besides the heart and lungs?
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Chapter 5: Pulmonary Function Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Respirometers are designed to operate between flows of _______________.
A) 5% to 10%
B) 3 to 300 LPM
C) 60 to 100 LPM
D) 50 to 1000 LPM
Q2) To measure the________________,instruct the patient to inhale as deeply as possible and then exhale as forcefully as possible.
A) Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
B) Peak expiratory flow (PEF)
C) Vital capacity (VC)
D) Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
Q3) Which gas law or calculation is used in the body plethysmograph to measure lung volumes?
A) Nitrogen Washout Law
B) Boyles' Law
C) C1V1 = C2V2
D) Gas Dilution Technique
Q4) Patient cooperation must be elicited for the best pulmonary function test results.How would the technician elicit the best cooperation and test results from the patient?
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Chapter 6: Electrocardiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) What lead is placed 5th intercostal space,mid-axillary line?
A) V6
B) V5
C) V4
D) V3
Q2) The patient must always be placed _________ for an ECG.
A) in semi-fowler's position
B) in a chair
C) prone
D) supine
Q3) Which lead(s)is (are)placed at the fourth intercostal space adjacent to the sternum?
A) V1
B) V2
C) V3
D) V1 and V2
Q4) The patient wants an exercise EKG.To ensure the electrodes stay remain in the proper position,what precautions should be taken?
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Chapter 7: Phlebotomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the first obligation of the therapist related to the performance of phlebotomy?
A) To the lab
B) To themselves
C) To the patient
D) To the hospital
Q2) When drawing blood with a butterfly needle,how is the blood collected from the patient's vein?
A) Creating negative pressure with an attached syringe
B) By keeping the patient's extremity in the dependent position
C) "Milking' the site to start and allow the blood flow to continue
D) Adapting the vacuum collection container to fit the needle
Q3) How long should the area be scrubbed with antimicrobial soap after an accidental needle stick?
A) 30 seconds
B) 2 minutes
C) 30 minutes
D) The area should not be scrubbed
Q4) How does the phlebotomist gain the confidence of the patient for a blood draw?
Q5) How can the phlebotomist enhance sites to draw blood from a patient?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Arterial Blood Gas Sampling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Possible complications of arterial puncture at any site are vessel trauma and occlusion,embolization,infection,and vessel spasm.How could these be prevented?
Q2) What would be the main blood gas abnormality if too much sodium heparin was used in the blood gas syringe?
A) The sample would have a higher PO
B) The sample would have a higher PCO
C) The sample would have a lower pH
D) The sample would have a higher HCO
Q3) Hyperventilation may lower the patient's ___________
A) PaCO .
B) anxiety.
C) pH.
D) PaO .
Q4) If the brachial artery is damaged and circulation is stopped through the brachial artery,what could possibly happen to the patient?
A) Damage to the median nerve
B) Collateral circulation could continue through the ulnar artery.
C) Loss of the arm
D) The vein could support circulation through the arm.
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Chapter 9: Hemodynamic Monitoring
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Sample Questions
Q1) Normal mean pulmonary artery pressure is _________________.
A) 6-12 mmHg
B) 10-22 mmHg
C) 0-6 mmHg
D) 80-120 mmHg
Q2) Normal pulmonary artery wedge pressure is ______________.
A) 6-12 mmHg
B) 10-22 mmHg
C) 0-6 mmHg
D) 80-120 mmHg
Q3) The hemodynamic data are recorded from a pulmonary artery catheter on a patient who is being mechanically ventilated.
\( \begin{array}{lc}\text { Cardiac Output } & 2.5 \mathrm{~L} / \mathrm{min} \\ \text { PAP } & 22 / 10 \mathrm{mmHg} \\ \text { PCWP } & 2 \mathrm{mmHg} \\ \text { CVP } & 1 \mathrm{mmHg} \\ \text { HR } & 125 / \mathrm{min}\end{array} \)
How should the practitioner interpret this data and what treatment should be recommended?
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Chapter 10: Noninvasive Monitoring
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are limitations of end-tidal CO monitoring EXCEPT ______________.
A) pulmonary emboli.
B) tubing obstructions.
C) vasopressive drugs.
D) shunt producing pulmonary disease.
Q2) How do end-tidal CO monitors measure the PetCO ?
A) Heat
B) Oximetry
C) Infrared light absorption
D) Red light absorption
Q3) Pressure sores are a potential hazard of __________________.
A) pulse oximetry monitoring.
B) transcutaneous CO monitoring.
C) transcutaneous O monitoring.
D) end-tidal CO monitoring.
Q4) How does the pulse oximeter measure O saturation in the capillary bed?
Q5) A practitioner is monitoring an intubated patient on a mechanical ventilator with a capnograph.The reading on the capnograph suddenly drops to zero from 35 mmHg.How would the practitioner determine the cause of the reading?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Documentation and Goals Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are entries entered into the medical record?
A) In chronological order
B) In random order
C) In order of department
D) Alphabetical order
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true about the patient's medical record?
A) It serves as legal proof of the nature of care, quality of care, and timeliness of care.
B) It is the only source on a given patient referred to by all health care professionals
C) The hospital may use it for risk management, reimbursement purposes, or research purposes among others.
D) Assessment(s), treatment(s), procedure(s), and test(s) are all recorded in it.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true concerning documentation?
A) Document things in anticipation of doing it
B) The date and time of interaction
C) Accuracy, timeliness, and truthfulness all are important
D) Document only what has been performed
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Chapter 12: Oxygen Supply Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cylinder valve is found on gas cylinders containing less than 1500 psi of pressure?
A) Direct-acting cylinder valve
B) Stem valve
C) Diaphragm cylinder valve
D) Outlet valve
Q2) Certain substances,when exposed to oxygen,may ignite with great force without the addition of heat to initiate the process.This phenomenon is termed
A) the tank factor.
B) cracking a cylinder.
C) spontaneous combustion.
D) hydrostatic testing.
Q3) The connection for attaching equipment for patient use is termed a station outlet.These outlets have what kind of fittings?
A) Quick-connect fittings
B) Diameter-index safety system fittings
C) Reducing valve fittings
D) Either a or b
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Chapter 13: Oxygen Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an average adult,it is estimated that the anatomic reservoir has a volume of approximately __________.
A) 50 cc
B) 100 cc
C) 150 cc
D) 200 cc
Q2) If an air entrainment device is set to deliver an FIO of 60% with the flowmeter set at 15 LPM,what would be the total flow delivered by the device?
A) 40.5 LPM
B) 60 LPM
C) 15 LPM
D) 30 LPM
Q3) If an oxygen delivery device mixes 10 LPM of air to 1 LPM of oxygen,approximately what FIO is delivered by this device?
A) 24%
B) 28%
C) 30%
D) 35%
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15
Chapter 14: Introduction to Respiratory Care Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inhibition of the sympathetic nervous system would cause _________________
A) bronchoconstriction.
B) stridor.
C) bronchodilation.
D) relaxation of the bronchial smooth muscle.
Q2) A patient is ready to be discharged to her home.At home the patient has a compressor and a small volume nebulizer.Which of the following corticosteroids is in solution and is intended to be administered via a small volume nebulizer?
A) Prednisone
B) Dexamethasone
C) Budesonide
D) Triamcinolone
Q3) Corticosteroids:
A) cause brondilation directly.
B) reduce inflammation.
C) stabilize Mast cells.
D) should always be administered with a bronchodilator.
Q4) An aerosol drug is ordered on a patient in MDI form.The propellant causes a reflex bronchospasm in the patient.What can be done?
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Chapter 15: Humidity and Aerosol Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following hazards or complications can occur with bland aerosol administration?
A) Wheezing
B) Bronchodilation
C) Tachycardia
D) Tremors
Q2) A patient has an ultrasonic nebulizer ordered every 4 hours to help with secretion mobilization.After the treatment the patient complains of chest tightness and wheezing is heard upon auscultating the chest.What could be done to alleviate this problem?
Q3) Which of the following defines body humidity?
A) 37°C, 100 mmHg partial press [H2O], and 47% saturation
B) 37°C, 44 mmHg partial press [H2O], and 100% saturation
C) 37°C, 47 mmHg partial press [H2O], and 100% saturation
D) 47°C, 37 mmHg partial press [H2O], and 100% saturation
Q4) What controls the particle size generated by an ultrasonic nebulizer?
A) Amplitude
B) Frequency
C) Piezoelectric crystal
D) Couplant
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Chapter 16: Bronchial Hygiene Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What bronchial hygiene technique is indicated for a patient who has poor oxygenation associated with a unilateral lung disease?
A) Turning
B) Postural drainage
C) External manipulation of the thorax
D) Suctioning
Q2) A patient who is receiving postural drainage and percussion desaturates during therapy,complains of dizziness,and states he cannot tolerate the treatment any longer.What should the practitioner do?
Q3) What is the only absolute contraindication to a directed cough?
A) Increased intracranial pressure
B) Increased potential for aspiration
C) Untreated pneumothorax
D) There are no absolute contraindications.
Q4) A patient positioned on their back is placed in which position?
A) Trendelenburg.
B) Lateral.
C) Supine.
D) Prone.
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Chapter 17: Hyperinflation Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which control on a pressure ventilator should be used if the patient is having trouble triggering the ventilator into inspiration?
A) Flow rate
B) Sensitivity
C) Expiratory timer
D) Air mix
Q2) During IPV,what happens to the peak pressures during percussion when the source pressure is increased?
A) The peak pressures decrease
B) The peak pressures increase
C) Nothing, but the frequency of the percussion increases
D) The peak pressures remain the same as preset at the factory
Q3) Which of the following volumes would indicate that a 55-kg,post-operative male patient needs IPPB?
A) Vital capacity of 0.75 L
B) Inspiratory capacity of 1/2 of predicted
C) Vital capacity of 450 ml
D) Inspiratory capacity 1.2 L, predicted inspiratory capacity of 2.9 L
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Chapter 18: Bronchoscopy Assisting
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________________ is performed to remove excessive pulmonary secretions or foreign material suspected of causing lobar or segmental atelectasis.
A) Therapeutic bronchcoscopy
B) Diagnostic bronchoscopy
C) Bronchoalveolar lavage
D) Rigid bronchoscopy
Q2) A patient is being prepared to undergo a diagnostic bronchoscopic procedure.During the preparation of the patient,a small volume nebulizer is used to aerosolize 2% lidocaine to the airway.Which of the following is NOT a hazard of the medication?
A) Vertigo
B) Dizziness
C) Respiratory depression
D) Difficulty focusing the eyes
Q3) Bronchoscopy is commonly performed for two reasons:
A) identification and assessment.
B) bronchoscopic and radiographic.
C) therapeutic and diagnostic.
D) cytological and infection control.
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Chapter 19: Equipment Processing and Surveillance
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Sample Questions
Q1) What types of vaccines should a health care worker undergo routinely?
Q2) How does a technician ensure that equipment that was placed in a steam autoclave was exposed to the proper sterilization conditions?
A) Thermometer
B) Tape indicator
C) Barometer
D) a and c
Q3) The practitioner has just performed a bedside pulmonary function test on a patient who tests positive for tuberculosis.This is detected only 1 hour before the next test is to be performed.What should be done?
Q4) A disinfection process that involves heating liquid to destroy vegetative organisms is called ___________
A) chemical disinfection.
B) antisepsis.
C) pasteurization.
D) steam autoclaving.
Q5) A serious H1N1 influenza outbreak takes place in a skilled care facility.Outline the isolation methods and treatments that should be implemented to help prevent the spread of the virus.
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Chapter 20: Emergency Airway Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient requires an airway to prevent the tongue from occluding the airway.The patient lapses in and out of conscious periodically.Which airway would be best to use for the patient?
A) Oropharyngeal airway
B) Combitube airway
C) Nasopharyngeal airway
D) Laryngeal mask airway
Q2) What endotracheal tube cuff pressure should be maintained to minimize tracheal damage?
A) 25 cmH2O or greater
B) 20 cmH2O or less
C) 1.5 inHg
D) 25 mmHg or greater
Q3) As a person loses consciousness,what happens to the reflexes that protect the airway?
A) They remain intact
B) They are lost in ascending order
C) They are lost in descending order
D) The cough reflexes are lost but the others remain intact
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Chapter 21: Artificial Airway Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been placed on mechanical ventilation.The respiratory care practitioner needs to know the absolute contraindication to suctioning a patient through an endotracheal tube that is on mechanical ventilation is:
A) a bronchospasm.
B) coagulopathy.
C) an irritable airway.
D) none of these.
Q2) Why is the nasopharyngeal airway placed for frequent nasotracheal suctioning?
A) To minimize trauma to the patient's nose and nasopharynx
B) To allow the patient to be able to speak during the procedure
C) To prevent aspiration of abdominal contents
D) To prevent hypoxemia during the procedure
Q3) If a patient is expected to be on a ventilator for more than _________,a heated humidifier should be used if the patient has an artificial airway in place.
A) 24 hours
B) 48 hours
C) 72 hours
D) 96 hours
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Chapter 22: Chest Tubes
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Q1) A patient with a chest tube in place develops swelling of the tissue surrounding the chest tube with crackling sensations also noted in the same area.What could be causing this and how is it treated?
Q2) If the respiratory care practitioner observes continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber,what is the problem causing this phenomenon?
A) Air leak within the thorax
B) Air leak on the chest tube
C) Air leak at the tubing connections
D) Any of these
Q3) A chest radiograph reveals a massive pleural effusion in the patient's left thorax.How should the chest tube be positioned to drain the effusion?
A) Anteriorly near the apex of the lung
B) Posteriorly along the base of the lung
C) Medially toward the mediastinum
D) Laterally toward the periphery of the lung
Q4) A patient with a chest tube in place suddenly develops chest pain and severe respiratory distress.What could be causing this?
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Chapter 23: Insertion and Maintenance of Intravenous Lines
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Q1) When applying a tourniquet to help with the insertion of an IV on a patient,where should the tourniquet be placed?
A) Proximal to the intended insertion site
B) Distal to the intended insertion site
C) Over the insertion site
D) A tourniquet should never be used except when inserting an arterial line
Q2) What is the preferred IV site on an adult patient?
A) The smallest artery that can be accessed
B) In the radial artery of the non-dominant hand
C) The temporal vein
D) A vein on the non-dominant hand or arm of the patient
Q3) What is inflammation of the vein called?
A) Phlebitis
B) Cellulitis
C) Thrombosis
D) Arteriosclerosis
Q4) You are asked to start an IV on a 94 year-old,115 lb (52.3 kg)patient.What precautions,if any,should you take with this geriatric patient?
Q5) What is the purpose of transparent dressings on a IV?
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Chapter 24: Noninvasive Positive-Pressure Ventilation
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Q1) In acute respiratory failure,NPPV tends to cause which of the following beneficial effects for the patient?
I.Increase the PaO
II.Decrease the pH
III.Increase the PaCO
IV.Decrease HCO
A) I only
B) I, II, III
C) III and IV
D) I and II
Q2) A patient on NPPV has an increase in lung compliance.If the set pressure remains the same what will happen to the delivered Vt?
A) It will remain the same.
B) It will increase.
C) It will decrease.
D) It will remain the same if the RAW decreases at the same time.
Q3) A COPD patient is being ventilated on a noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation (NPPV)in the spontaneous/timed mode of ventilation.The ventilator is not triggering each time the patient attempts to initiate a breath.What can be done?
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Continuous Mechanical Ventilation
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Q1) Type I respiratory failure is which of the following?
A) PaCO greater than 50 mmHg and PaO within normal levels
B) PaCO greater than 50 mmHg and PaO less than 50 mmHg with pH below 7.35
C) High PaCO with a low PO but a normal pH
D) PaO of less than 59 mmHg with a normal PaCO
Q2) In the face of changing airway resistance or thoracic compliance,which of the following will occur in volume ventilation?
A) Pressure is selected as the controlled variable
B) Volume will change while pressure will stay the same
C) Pressure will vary but the tidal volume will remain unchanged
D) Pressure will stay the same but FIO will vary with back pressure
Q3) What equipment procedure should be done prior to using a mechanical ventilator on a patient?
A) Perform a ventilator operational verification procedure
B) Identify patient insurance coverage
C) Perform a static compliance measurement
D) Determine alveolar ventilation
Q4) How does a practitioner perform a system leak test?
Q5) What is the difference in calculating dynamic compliance vs static compliance?
Q6) How is tubing compliance determined?
27
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Chapter 26: Advanced Modes of Mechanical Ventilation
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Q1) Rapid shallow breathing index is used _______________________
A) to measure effectiveness of oxygenation.
B) to identify the settings used in high frequency ventilation.
C) in assessment of neonates and infants.
D) to quantify the relationship between tidal volume and respiratory rate.
Q2) Volume ventilation is causing high pressures for a patient with ARDS.The practitioner would like to use a pressure mode but is concerned about the changing compliance.Which of the following should be considered for this purpose?
A) SIMV
B) PRVC
C) Automode with volume support ventilation
D) Inverse ratio ventilation
Q3) Tidal volume delivery during APRV is __________________
A) affected by lung compliance.
B) affected by airway resistance.
C) affected by Phigh and Plow.
D) all of the above.
Q4) What are the purposes of ventilator alarms and backup modes?
Q5) How does a respiratory care practitioner assess the patient's work of breathing?
Page 28
Q6) What are three problems that mandatory minute ventilation cannot prevent?
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Chapter 27: Wave Form Analysis
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Q1) Which of the following is true of the flow-volume loop?
I.Flow is plotted on the vertical axis.
II.It is commonly used in PF spirometry evaluation.
III.It is done only after bronchodilator administration.
A) I, II and III
B) I and II
C) I and III
D) II and III
Q2) Which graphic displays can indicate adequacy of inspiratory flow during a ventilator inspiration and how are they used?
Q3) Combinations of ventilator wave forms can indicate __________________
A) Airway resistance
B) Air trapping
C) Increased work of breathing
D) All of the above
Q4) As the respiratory care practitioner assigned to a ventilator patient,how would you use ventilator graphics to identify patient effort?
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Chapter 28: Weaning and Discontinuance of Mechanical Ventilation
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40362
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following should the practitioner complete prior to a spontaneous breathing trial?
I.Note current ventilator settings
II.Note heart rate,rhythm,blood pressure,O sat
III.Place patient in semi or high Fowler 's position
IV.Increase sedation to allow patient to rest
A) I, II, III and IV
B) I, II and III
C) II, III and IV
D) I and II
Q2) Which of the following are factors that affect the respiratory system's ability to do work?
I.Airway resistance
II.Respiratory muscle function
III.Lung compliance
A) I, II and III
B) I and III
C) II only
D) II and III
Q3) What should the respiratory therapist do if the patient does not pass the SBT?
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Chapter 29: Neonatal Mechanical Ventilation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40363
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are goals for mechanical ventilation?
I.Adequate alveolar gas exchange
II.Prevent ventilator induced lung injury
III.Reduce patient's work of breathing
A) I, II and III
B) II and III
C) I and III
D) I only
Q2) A mode of ventilation which delivers an inspiration to a set pressure and typically ends when flow drops to 25% of its initial peak value is which of the following?
A) Volume Guarantee
B) Pressure Support
C) Pressure Assist Control
D) Volume Support
Q3) Which of the following is true of a "lifespan" ventilator?
A) This is the term used when a ventilator is used on a comatose patient.
B) It provides pressure and volume ventilation.
C) It can be used on infants, pediatric, or adult patients.
D) It is the brand name of mechanical ventilators.
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