Respiratory Care Procedures
Test Questions
Course Introduction
Respiratory Care Procedures provides students with a comprehensive understanding of the fundamental techniques and protocols used in the care of patients with cardiopulmonary disorders. This course covers essential skills such as oxygen therapy, airway management, aerosol and humidity therapy, chest physiotherapy, and the safe operation of respiratory care equipment. Emphasis is placed on patient assessment, infection control practices, and evidence-based interventions to optimize respiratory function. Through a combination of lectures, demonstrations, and hands-on lab sessions, students develop the knowledge and practical abilities necessary to perform core respiratory care procedures in clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Clinical Lab Competencies for Respiratory Care An Integrated Approach 5th Edition by Gary
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Chapter 1: Basics of Asepsis
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Q1) What is the most frequent cause of needle sticks?
A) Attempting to recap a needle
B) Removing discarded needles or syringes from sharps containers
C) Attempting to force a needle into an already full container
D) Using puncture-proof containers
Answer: A
Q2) What type of patient precautions should be employed for patients with mycobacterium tuberculosis,measles or varicella?
A) Contact precautions
B) Airborne precautions
C) Droplet precautions
D) Vectorborne precautions
Answer: B
Q3) What is defined as a microorganism capable of causing disease in humans?
A) Pathogenic microorganism
B) Hospital-acquired infection
C) Virulent microorganism
D) Cross-contamination
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Basic Patient Assessment: Vital Signs and Breath Sounds
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Q1) The practitioner records a carotid pulse of 45/minute.How should this be documented in the patient's chart?
A) Tachycardia
B) Bradycardia
C) Hypotension
D) Hypertension
Answer: B
Q2) Which type of breath sound would be described as low-pitched,soft sounds that have an inspiratory phase longer than the expiratory phase?
A) Tracheal
B) Broncho-vesicular
C) Bronchial
D) Vesicular
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Advanced Patient Assessment: Inspection,
Palpation, and Percussion
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Q1) The sternal notch is located where the clavicles join at the top of the sternum-the manubrium.The manubrium joins the body of the sternum at a horizontal ridge.What is this ridge called?
A) Sternal angle
B) Clavicle
C) Suprasternal notch
D) Fourth rib
Answer: A
Q2) Where is (are)the midaxillary line(s)located?
A) It is an imaginary line on the lateral chest extending downward from the posterior junction of the arm.
B) It is a line on the anterior chest descending vertically from the junction of the arm and torso (at the front of the armpit).
C) They are imaginary lines on the posterior chest bisecting the shoulder blades and descending vertically.
D) It is an imaginary line on the lateral chest extending downward from the center of the armpit.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Radiologic Assessment
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Q1) When the practitioner needs to focus attention on the upper lobes of the lungs,which x-ray view should be utilized?
A) Posterior-anterior (PA) view
B) Anterior-posterior (AP) view
C) Lateral view
D) Apical lordotic view
Q2) What is described by a consolidated lung region that demonstrates an increased radiodensity that appears lighter than the surrounding lung fields?
A) Atelectasis
B) Consolidation
C) Pneumothorax
D) Hyperinflation
Q3) When the bronchus is seen surrounded by fluid-filled structures it creates a distinct separation between the regions of differing densities (air versus fluid).What is this called?
A) Air bronchograms
B) Subcutaneous emphysema
C) Consolidation
D) Hyperinflation
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Pulmonary Function Testing
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Q1) What is a device called that measures ventilatory volumes and air flow?
A) A respirometer
B) A peak flowmeter
C) A spirometer
D) A flowmeter
Q2) What volume or flow of a PFT does the following two statements describe? The measurement can provide an indication of obstruction.However,the test validity depends on the effort and cooperation of the patient.
A) Peak expiratory flow (PEF)
B) Timed forced expiratory volume (FEVt)
C) Forced vital capacity (FVC)
D) Maximum inspiratory pressure (MIP)
Q3) A rate in excess of 35-breaths per minute may be _________________.
A) normal.
B) an indication of pending respiratory failure.
C) sufficient muscle strength.
D) less gas exchange at the alveolar level.
Q4) Why are three pulmonary function test trials performed for simple spirometry and flow volume loops and how should the results be reported?
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Chapter 6: Electrocardiography
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Q1) A patient has a normal 'P-R' interval,followed by a normal 'QRS' complex,and then a 'P' wave follows the 'QRS' complex.This normal ECG pattern occurs at a rate of 46/minute.What is this ECG pattern called?
A) First-degree heart block
B) Normal sinus rhythm
C) Sinus bradycardia
D) Third degree heart block
Q2) A female patient comes to the emergency department complaining of chest pain.She is from a very conservative culture and objects to a male performing her EKG.How should the male practitioner approach this problem since no female is available to do the EKG?
Q3) Which lead(s)is (are)placed at the fourth intercostal space adjacent to the sternum?
A) V1
B) V2
C) V3
D) V1 and V2
Q4) The patient wants an exercise EKG.To ensure the electrodes stay remain in the proper position,what precautions should be taken?
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Chapter 7: Phlebotomy
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Q1) Which of following is the best way to confirm the patient's identity?
A) Checking the order in the chart
B) Asking the nurse or other health care worker
C) Ask the patient
D) Check the patient's name band
Q2) A tourniquet can be used to enhance vein distension to ease the location of a good vein for a venous draw.What would happen if the tourniquet were left on too long?
Q3) If the patient is taking blood thinning medication,what should the phlebotomist do?
A) Hold pressure on the blood draw site longer
B) Inform the patient the stick may hurt worse than normal
C) Notify the supervisor for special vacuum collection tubes
D) Contact the physician for special instructions
Q4) How does the phlebotomist gain the confidence of the patient for a blood draw?
Q5) Following the post needle stick scrub,what should be done to the wound?
A) Apply an ointment such as polymixin-bacitracin to the area
B) It should be lanced by a physician
C) The area should be squeezed to increase perfusion to the area
D) Nothing
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Chapter 8: Arterial Blood Gas Sampling
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Q1) Which artery is located on the medial side of the antecubital fossa near the insertion of the biceps muscle at the radial tuberosity?
A) Radial artery
B) Brachial artery
C) Femoral artery
D) Dorsalis pedis
Q2) Which of the following is a disadvantage of drawing blood from the radial artery?
A) The small size of the artery
B) The presence of collateral circulation
C) There are no veins or nerves immediately adjacent to the artery.
D) It is close to the surface of the skin.
Q3) Pressure should be held after arterial blood gas sampling for a minimum of _____________.
A) 5 minutes.
B) 1 minute.
C) 20 to 30 minutes.
D) 15 minutes.
Q4) How should the practitioner ensure that the arterial line's measured blood pressure is accurate?
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Chapter 9: Hemodynamic Monitoring
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Q1) The proximal lumen of the pulmonary artery catheter measures the ______________.
A) central venous pressure.
B) pulmonary capillary wedge pressure.
C) cardiac output.
D) left ventricular end-diastolic pressure.
Q2) The hemodynamic data are recorded from a pulmonary artery catheter on a patient who is being mechanically ventilated.
\( \begin{array}{lc}\text { Cardiac Output } & 6.0 \mathrm{~L} / \mathrm{min} \\ \mathrm{PAP} & 44 / 22 \mathrm{mmHg} \\ \text { PCWP } & 18 \mathrm{mmHg} \\ \text { CVP } & 7 \mathrm{mmHg} \\ \mathrm{HR} & 105 / \mathrm{min}\end{array} \)
How would the practitioner interpret this data and what treatment should be recommended?
Q3) Where in the vascular system does the distal tip of a central venous catheter rest when placed properly?
A) Right ventricle or pulmonary artery
B) Vena cava or right atrium
C) Left ventricle or aorta
D) Right or left carotid artery
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Chapter 10: Noninvasive Monitoring
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Q1) Which of the following are indications for transcutaneous blood gas monitoring for neonatal and pediatric patients?
I.The need to monitor the adequacy of arterial oxygenation
II The need to monitor the adequacy of ventilation
III.The need to quantitate the response to diagnostic and therapeutic interventions as evidenced by PtcO
IV.The need to quantitate the response to diagnostic and therapeutic interventions as evidenced by PtcCO values
A) I and II only
B) III and IV only
C) I, III, and IV only
D) I, II, III, and IV
Q2) What has greatly reduced the number of arterial blood gas (ABG)samples drawn in the acute care setting?
A) Capnography
B) Pulmonary artery pressure monitoring
C) Noninvasive monitoring
D) Transcutaneous P02 monitoring
Q3) How does the pulse oximeter measure O saturation in the capillary bed?
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Documentation and Goals Assessment
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Q1) What is the purpose of the medical record?
A) It is temporary proof of the nature of care, quality of care, and timeliness of care.
B) It is the one place where all pertinent medical information on a patient is recorded and accessible to all health care professionals caring for that patient.
C) It is an approximate record of the patient's condition, illness, and treatment.
D) To provide a written source of information regarding that patient providing a common source of information for all caregivers.
Q2) Which of the following represents falsification of the medical record?
I.Concealment of an incident
II.Making up ventilator settings
III.Charting an arterial blood gas that wasn't done
A) II only
B) I and II
C) III only
D) I, II, and III
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Chapter 12: Oxygen Supply Systems
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Q1) A piping system is required to have a reserve or backup supply of oxygen.What is the minimum amount of time the reserve system must be able to meet a facility's oxygen needs?
A) 12 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 36 hours
D) 48 hours
Q2) What device takes air from the atmosphere and separates the oxygen from the other gases in the air,then delivers the oxygen to the patient at as high as 90% concentration?
A) Bourdon gauge
B) Multi-stage regulator
C) Liquid oxygen reservoir
D) Oxygen concentrator
Q3) What is a device called that provides a precise oxygen concentration between 21% and 100% by mixing air and oxygen?
A) Riser
B) Concentrator
C) Blender
D) Multi-stage regulator
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Chapter 13: Oxygen Administration
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Q1) Which of the following arterial blood gas or oximetry values would be an indication for oxygen in the hospital setting?
I.PaO - 50 mmHg
II.SaO - 91%
III.PaO - 89 mmHg
IV.SaO - 60%
A) I and IV
B) II and III
C) IV only
D) I, II, and III
Q2) Ventilatory depression may occur in spontaneously breathing patients with elevated PaCO .The PaO should be kept around what level to prevent this complication?
A) 60%
B) 90 mmHg
C) 40 mmHg
D) 60 mmHg
Q3) During oxygen rounds,a patient on a nasal cannula has an oxygen saturation of 89%.No flow is felt coming from the device.What could be the problem?
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Chapter 14: Introduction to Respiratory Care Pharmacology
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Q1) Which of the following is a frequently nebulized antibiotic for patients with cystic fibrosis?
A) Pentamidine
B) Ribvirin
C) Sodium bicarbonate
D) Tobramycin
Q2) What is the name of the receptor sites that are located in the peripheral vasculature,the heart,bronchial muscle,and bronchial blood vessels?
A) Beta 2 receptors
B) Gamma receptors
C) Alpha receptors
D) Beta 1 receptors
Q3) Inhibition of the sympathetic nervous system would cause _________________
A) bronchoconstriction.
B) stridor.
C) bronchodilation.
D) relaxation of the bronchial smooth muscle.
Q4) An aerosol drug is ordered on a patient in MDI form.The propellant causes a reflex bronchospasm in the patient.What can be done?
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Chapter 15: Humidity and Aerosol Therapy
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Q1) A patient has an ultrasonic nebulizer ordered every 4 hours to help with secretion mobilization.After the treatment the patient complains of chest tightness and wheezing is heard upon auscultating the chest.What could be done to alleviate this problem?
Q2) What is the purpose of a baffle in a large volume nebulizer?
A) Entrains air into the nebulizer to achieve various FIO .
B) Serves to stabilize particle size.
C) Regulates total gas flow to ensure a high-flow device.
D) It controls the output of the aerosol.
Q3) Which of the following should be monitored while the patient is receiving bland aerosol therapy?
I.Patient subjective response
II.Heart rate and rhythm,blood pressure
III.Respiratory rate,pattern,mechanics,accessory muscle use
IV.Sputum production quantity,color,consistency,odor
V.Breath sounds
A) I, III, and V
B) II and IV only
C) I, II, III, and IV
D) All of these
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Bronchial Hygiene Therapy
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Q1) You are called to assess a patient and recommend the appropriate therapy.Upon assessment the patient exhibits an abnormal chest radiograph consistent with infiltrates,sputum retention not responsive to directed coughing,and a deterioration in the patient's arterial blood gas values.What therapy should be recommended for this patient?
A) Postural drainage therapy
B) Forced expiratory technique
C) Positive expiratory pressure therapy
D) Positioning
Q2) During bronchial hygiene therapy in the Trendelenburg position,the patient's SpO decreases from 92% on a 35% Venturi mask to 80% during the first 5 minutes of the therapy.What intervention would be the most correct for the Respiratory Care Practitioner to take at this time?
A) Administer 100% oxygen, stop therapy immediately, return the patient to original resting position, and consult the physician.
B) Administer 100% oxygen and consult the physician.
C) Administer 100% oxygen and continue the therapy with the patient flat in bed.
D) Stop therapy immediately and return patient to original resting position.
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Chapter 17: Hyperinflation Therapy
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Q1) The patient position for IPPB therapy is with the patient ________________
I.sitting on the edge of the bed.
II.sitting upright in a chair.
III.in Fowler's position.
IV.in semi-Fowler's position.
A) IV only
B) I, II, III, and IV
C) I and II
D) II and III
Q2) While delivering IPPB,which I:E ratio would cause the least decrease of a patient's cardiac output or increase in a patient's intracranial pressure?
A) 1:1
B) 1:2
C) 1:3
D) 2:1
Q3) The respiratory care department puts you in charge of the hyperinflation monitoring committee.What should be monitored to determine the type and the effectiveness of the hyperinflation therapy?
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19
Chapter 18: Bronchoscopy Assisting
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Q1) Which type of brush/needle/mechanical device is/are used to sample an area of interest that lies on the opposite side of the bronchial wall from where the bronchoscope is located?
A) Sheathed cytology brush
B) Unsheathed cytology brush
C) Forceps
D) Wang needle
Q2) A rigid bronchoscope cannot remove large foreign body in the tracheobronchial tree in the airways lower than the _________________
A) trachea.
B) mainstem bronchi.
C) segmental bronchi.
D) terminal bronchioles.
Q3) Which type of brush/needle/mechanical device are is/are used to sample areas of interest by "biting" off small chunks of tissue?
A) Unsheathed cytology brush
B) Sheathed cytology brush
C) Forceps
D) Wang needle
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Chapter 19: Equipment Processing and Surveillance
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Q1) The practitioner has just performed a bedside pulmonary function test on a patient who tests positive for tuberculosis.This is detected only 1 hour before the next test is to be performed.What should be done?
Q2) Gram positive bacteria stain what color?
A) Purple
B) Red or pink
C) Colorless
D) Yellow
Q3) What is the application of chemical agents to a surface to inhibit microbial growth and reproduction?
A) Antisepsis
B) Sterilization
C) Disinfection
D) Pasteurization
Q4) When ethylene oxide combines with water it forms ______________
A) hydrogen peroxide.
B) ethylene glycol.
C) ethyl alcohol.
D) carbonic anhydrase.
Q5) What types of vaccines should a health care worker undergo routinely?
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Emergency Airway Management
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Q1) A respiratory care practitioner is attempting to place an oral endotracheal tube in a patient.The attempt is unsuccessful.What should be done before attempted reintubation?
A) Reventilation
B) Reoxygenation
C) Suctioning the airway
D) a and b
Q2) A patient is admitted to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident.The patient has obvious head trauma and needs to have his airway maintained.What should be done to open and maintain the patient's airway?
A) Emergency tracheostomy
B) Cricothyrotomy
C) Head tilt
D) Anterior mandibular displacement
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the nasal route of intubation?
A) Oral care is much easier, allowing sufficient access to the mouth.
B) It is easier to stabilize the endotracheal tube.
C) It is the fastest and most direct route of intubation.
D) Conscious patients tolerate nasal intubation better.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Artificial Airway Care
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Q1) What is the maximum amount of time that a suction procedure should last?
A) 5 seconds
B) 10 seconds
C) 15 seconds
D) 20 seconds
Q2) A patient's chest radiograph indicates pneumonia and atelectasis of the left upper lobe.Which type of suction catheter should be used to ensure the catheter enters the left lung?
A) Whistle tip catheter
B) Coudé catheter
C) Closed system suction catheter
D) Fenestrated suction catheter
Q3) You cannot pass the suction catheter down the endotracheal tube on an intubated patient.What should you do and how would you correct the problems?
Q4) Before suctioning a patient,you notice that no suction pressure is being generated at the end of the suction catheter when you attempt to suction sterile water through the catheter.What could be causing the problem?
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Chapter 22: Chest Tubes
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Q1) Which part/chamber of the chest tube regulates the vacuum to the patient's chest to drain an empyema?
A) Collection chamber
B) Water seal chamber
C) Chest tube tubing
D) Suction control chamber
Q2) After insertion of a chest tube,how should the position of the chest tube be assessed?
A) By auscultating the patient's chest
B) By percussing the patient's thoracic cavity
C) By having the patient cough and observing the drainage chamber bottle
D) By obtaining a chest radiograph
Q3) Once the chest tube has been sutured in place,the practitioner should help the physician by doing what to the dressing site?
A) Applying a sterile petrolatum dressing around the chest tube site
B) Applying a sterile airtight dressing at the chest tube site
C) Applying providone-iodine to the insertion site
D) a and b
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Chapter 23: Insertion and Maintenance of Intravenous Lines
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Q1) A patient has been brought to the emergency department suffering from heat exhaustion and dehydration.Which of the following fluids would enhance the function of cells that are hampered owing to the absence of necessary intracellular fluid?
A) Hypotonic solution
B) Hypertonic solution
C) Isotonic solution
D) Lactated Ringer's solution
Q2) A patient is admitted to the MICU with a closed head injury with cerebral edema.What type of IV solution will cause water to be drawn from inside the cell and into the vascular space and is desirable in cases of cerebral edema?
A) Hypotonic solution
B) Hypertonic solution
C) Isotonic solution
D) Lactated Ringer's solution
Q3) What is the preferred IV site on an adult patient?
A) The smallest artery that can be accessed
B) In the radial artery of the non-dominant hand
C) The temporal vein
D) A vein on the non-dominant hand or arm of the patient
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Noninvasive Positive-Pressure Ventilation
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Q1) A patient is admitted to the emergency department in respiratory distress.The respiratory care practitioner utilizes a full face mask to administer NPPV.After 20 minutes of NPPV the patient exhibits signs of gastric distention.The physician is concerned about the patient vomiting and aspirating.What should the practitioner recommend to decrease the gastric distention and decrease the possibility of aspiration?
A) The patient should be placed on his side to lessen the possibility of air swallowing. B) The practitioner should place a little force on the mask harness to maintain a good seal.
C) Reduce the pressure on the face mask and allow the positive-pressure to seal the mask.
D) A nasogastric tube should be placed to decompress the stomach and reduce the risk of aspiration.
Q2) A COPD patient is being ventilated on a noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation (NPPV)in the spontaneous/timed mode of ventilation.The ventilator is not triggering each time the patient attempts to initiate a breath.What can be done?
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Chapter 25: Continuous Mechanical Ventilation
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Q1) A practitioner should not use the assist ventilation mode in which of the following conditions?
A) Asthmatic patient prior to extubation
B) Congestive heart failure after delivery of diuretics
C) Resolving pneumonia
D) Post-operative abdominal surgery with sedation
Q2) Respiratory failure is which of the following?
I.PaO of 40-50 mmHg on room air and PaCO
II.A syndrome where the lungs are not able to adequately exchange O and CO
III.A condition always linked to chronic respiratory diseases
IV.This is a terminal condition with the patient will not recover from
A) I, II, III and IV
B) I, II and IV
C) I and II
D) II and III
Q3) Recommend tidal volume for initial ventilator setting is
A) 400 mL for women and 500 ml for men.
B) 4-9 mL/Kg of ideal body weight.
C) 10-15 mL/kg of ideal body weight.
D) 800 mL for both males and females.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Advanced Modes of Mechanical Ventilation
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Q1) Benefits of APRV are which of the following?
A) Increased secretion mobilization
B) Improved gas exchange, reduced dead space, less sedation
C) Reduction of ventilating pressures
D) Reversal of bronchospasm
Q2) A respiratory care practitioner may use which of the following to eliminate the airway resistance caused by an artificial airway?
A) APRV
B) Automatic tube compensation
C) Inverse ratio ventilation
D) Automode
Q3) How does a respiratory care practitioner assess the patient's work of breathing?
Q4) Volume ventilation is causing high pressures for a patient with ARDS.The practitioner would like to use a pressure mode but is concerned about the changing compliance.Which of the following should be considered for this purpose?
A) SIMV
B) PRVC
C) Automode with volume support ventilation
D) Inverse ratio ventilation
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Chapter 27: Wave Form Analysis
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Q1) Which of the following wave form would be most useful in assessing lung compliance?
A) Pressure versus volume
B) Pressure versus time
C) Flow versus volume
D) Flow versus time
Q2) Combinations of ventilator wave forms can indicate __________________
A) Airway resistance
B) Air trapping
C) Increased work of breathing
D) All of the above
Q3) Wave form graphically displays which of the following?
I.Arterial blood gas values
II.Gas flowrates
III.Inspiratory and expiratory volumes
IV.Airway pressures
A) I, II, III and IV
B) I, II and III
C) II, III and IV
D) II and III
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Chapter 28: Weaning and Discontinuance of Mechanical Ventilation
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Q1) While a patient is on an SBT trial the practitioner must watch for rapid decompensation.This is indicated by which of the following?
A) Significant decrease in SpO and increase in heart rate
B) Arterial blood gases less than PaCO of 50 mmHg and PO greater than 60 mmHg
C) MIP of negative 20 cmH2O or less
D) PaO /FIO ratio greater than 150-200
Q2) According to the AARC Clinical Practice Guidelines on Weaning and Discontinuation on Ventilatory Support other objective criteria for weaning is measured by
I.Patient is arousable and not on sedation
II.Hemoglobin level greater than 8-10 g/dL
III.No fever present
IV.No respiratory acidosis
A) I, II, III and IV
B) I, II and III
C) I, II and IV
D) II, III and IV
Q3) How do neurological problems result in ventilator dependence?
Q4) How do respiratory conditions result in ventilator dependence?
Q5) How do cardiovascular problems result in ventilator dependence?
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Chapter 29: Neonatal Mechanical Ventilation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40363
Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient of any age cannot adequately provide enough oxygen for the body and sufficiently eliminate carbon dioxide,the term used is ______________
A) ventilatory insufficiency.
B) apnea.
C) respiratory failure.
D) CO retainer.
Q2) Which of the following are true of time constants?
I.Indicate lungs' ability to receive or expel air
II.Are determined by airway resistance times compliance
III.Poor compliance with normal airway resistance results in long time constant.
A) I, II and III
B) II and III
C) I and II
D) II only
Q3) Describe the 5 characteristics of the Apgar scoring system.
Q4) Which of the following is true of a "lifespan" ventilator?
A) This is the term used when a ventilator is used on a comatose patient.
B) It provides pressure and volume ventilation.
C) It can be used on infants, pediatric, or adult patients.
D) It is the brand name of mechanical ventilators.
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