Respiratory Care Procedures
Test Bank
Course Introduction
Respiratory Care Procedures provides students with a comprehensive overview of the essential techniques and therapies used in the treatment and management of patients with respiratory disorders. The course covers the fundamentals of airway management, oxygen therapy, aerosol and humidity therapy, pulmonary function testing, and mechanical ventilation. Emphasis is placed on patient assessment, equipment operation, infection control, and the application of therapeutic protocols in both acute and chronic care settings. Through a combination of classroom instruction, laboratory practice, and clinical simulation, students develop the knowledge and skills necessary to deliver safe and effective respiratory care to diverse patient populations.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Clinical Lab Competencies for Respiratory Care An Integrated Approach 5th Edition by Gary
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29 Chapters
852 Verified Questions
852 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Basics of Asepsis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tuberculosis is transmitted by ______________.
A)Vehicle transmission
B)Vectorborne transmission
C)Direct contact transmission
D)Airborne transmission
Answer: D
Q2) Place in the correct order the proper sequence of hand washing.
I.Liberally apply soap
II.Adjust water flow and temperature
III.Turn off water aseptically
IV.Wash with friction
V.Wet forearms,wrists,and hands
A)I. ,II. ,III. ,IV. ,V.
B)II. ,III. ,I. ,IV. ,V.
C)II. ,V. ,I. ,IV. ,III.
D)II. ,I. ,IV. ,V. ,III.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Basic Patient Assessment: Vital Signs and Breath Sounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) The practitioner records a carotid pulse of 45/minute.How should this be documented in the patient's chart?
A)Tachycardia
B)Bradycardia
C)Hypotension
D)Hypertension
Answer: B
Q2) What is the correct term to describe a patient with a body temperature of 101 degrees F?
A)Hypertension
B)Hyperthermia
C)Hypotension
D)Hypothermia
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Advanced Patient Assessment: Inspection, Palpation, and Percussion
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Sample Questions
Q1) What breathing pattern is periodic in nature,with a gradual increase in depth and respiratory rate followed by a tapering of rate and depth with periods of apnea or as a waxing and waning of respirations?
A)Kussmaul's respirations
B)Cheyne-Stokes respirations
C)Biot's respirations
D)Paradoxical breathing
Answer: B
Q2) Upon reviewing a patient's admission notes,the history states the patient has a long-standing history of emphysema.What type of percussion note would you expect over the patient's chest?
A)Resonance
B)Dullness
C)Flatness
D)Hyperresonance
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Radiologic Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the density of an object being x-rayed is great,_____________________.
A)penetration is high.
B)penetration is low.
C)then the x-rays are being absorbed by the object.
D)the energy is not admitted by the tube.
Q2) When the practitioner needs to focus attention on the upper lobes of the lungs,which x-ray view should be utilized?
A)Posterior-anterior (PA)view
B)Anterior-posterior (AP)view
C)Lateral view
D)Apical lordotic view
Q3) Which of the following is the most radiodense?
A)Air
B)Water
C)Fat
D)Bone
Q4) What can be evaluated on a chest radiograph besides the heart and lungs?
Q5) Air appears dark on the chest radiograph.What type(s)of pathology would appear dark on the chest x-ray?
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Chapter 5: Pulmonary Function Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) All pulmonary function testing is performed at _________ and then must be converted to reflect conditions of __________.
A)rest,exercise
B)ATPS,BTPS
C)BTPS,ATPS
D)maximum effort,rest
Q2) Respirometers are designed to operate between flows of _______________.
A)5% to 10%
B)3 to 300 LPM
C)60 to 100 LPM
D)50 to 1000 LPM
Q3) Why are three pulmonary function test trials performed for simple spirometry and flow volume loops and how should the results be reported?
Q4) What is defined as the maximum volume of air that can be exhaled after a maximal inspiration?
A)Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
B)Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
C)Inspiratory capacity (IC)
D)Vital capacity (VC)
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Chapter 6: Electrocardiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT normally a cause of ECG artifact?
A)Patient motion artifact
B)Wandering baseline
C)60 Hz artifact
D)Cell phone interference
Q2) During depolarization and repolarization,two ions are exchanged for these processes to occur.What two ions are involved in this process?
I.Sodium
II.Potassium
III.Chloride
IV.Bicarbonate
A)II and III
B)I and IV
C)I and II
D)III and IV
Q3) The patient wants an exercise EKG.To ensure the electrodes stay remain in the proper position,what precautions should be taken?
Q4) An extremely obese patient is to ordered to have an EKG.What problems could be encountered and how should they be approached?
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Chapter 7: Phlebotomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A tourniquet can be used to enhance vein distension to ease the location of a good vein for a venous draw.What would happen if the tourniquet were left on too long?
Q2) Which of the following techniques will reduce the probability of infection with a blood draw?
A)Proper cover over the site
B)Good aseptic technique before venipuncture
C)Reviewing the chart for infections
D)Both a and b
Q3) If the patient refuses a blood draw after a needle stick what is the procedure?
A)The patient is informed the blood will be drawn anyway
B)The patient's previous blood sample is tested
C)Due to patient confidentiality,nothing can be done
D)The therapist's blood will be drawn and tested immediately
Q4) How should contaminated materials that are generated by cleaning up a blood spill be disposed of?
A)Disposed of in a sharps container
B)Disposed of using a red biohazard bag
C)Disposed of in the trash
D)Sterilized with ethylene oxide and then disposed of using a red biohazard bag
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Chapter 8: Arterial Blood Gas Sampling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the radial artery a commonly used site for arterial blood sampling?
A)Its location to the inside of the patient's arm
B)It is commonly used for taking a patient's pulse.
C)There is collateral circulation through the ulnar artery.
D)It is the largest artery used for arterial blood drawing.
Q2) A patient has an elevated leukocyte count.What precautions should be done for the sample?
A)The sample needs to be properly anticoagulated.
B)No special precautions need to be taken with the sample.
C)Air bubbles need to be introduced into the sample.
D)The sample needs to by immediately chilled and analyzed.
Q3) What would be the main blood gas abnormality if too much sodium heparin was used in the blood gas syringe?
A)The sample would have a higher PO
B)The sample would have a higher PCO
C)The sample would have a lower pH
D)The sample would have a higher HCO
Q4) Possible complications of arterial puncture at any site are vessel trauma and occlusion,embolization,infection,and vessel spasm.How could these be prevented?
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Chapter 9: Hemodynamic Monitoring
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where in the vascular system does the distal tip of a central venous catheter rest when placed properly?
A)Right ventricle or pulmonary artery
B)Vena cava or right atrium
C)Left ventricle or aorta
D)Right or left carotid artery
Q2) Common causes of increased pulmonary artery pressures include _________________.
A)left atrial failure.
B)left ventricular failure.
C)hypovolemia.
D)reduced venous return.
Q3) Where should the distal tip of the pulmonary artery catheter rest when properly placed in the vascular system?
A)Pulmonary artery
B)Vena cava or right atrium
C)Left ventricle
D)Coronary artery
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11
Chapter 10: Noninvasive Monitoring
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of end-tidal CO monitor draws the exhaled gas sample from the airway through a capillary tube to an analyzer that is located near the patient?
A)Sidestream end-tidal CO monitor
B)Mainstream end-tidal CO monitor
C)Oximeter
D)Transcutaneous monitor
Q2) What would be indicated for the monitoring the matching of ventilation to perfusion during independent lung ventilation for unilateral pulmonary contusion?
A)Pulse oximetry
B)Minute volume
C)Capnography
D)Transcutaneous oxygen monitoring
Q3) How does the pulse oximeter measure O saturation in the capillary bed?
Q4) How do the transcutaneous PO and PCO arterialize the sample site?
A)Oximetry
B)Red and infrared light
C)Photospectrometry
D)Heat
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Chapter 11: Documentation and Goals Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Information provided to the physician by the patient is _______________________.
A)contained in the progress notes.
B)always confidential.
C)objective data.
D)subjective data
Q2) A patient with COPD who has oxygen and a nebulizer at home is ready to be discharged.The practitioner enters the patient's room to reinforce previous directions.The patient states he knows how to use the home care devices and how they are to be used.How should the practitioner proceed with the instructions?
Q3) What is the purpose of the medical record?
A)It is temporary proof of the nature of care,quality of care,and timeliness of care.
B)It is the one place where all pertinent medical information on a patient is recorded and accessible to all health care professionals caring for that patient.
C)It is an approximate record of the patient's condition,illness,and treatment.
D)To provide a written source of information regarding that patient providing a common source of information for all caregivers.
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13
Chapter 12: Oxygen Supply Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because of the high pressure contained in a medical gas cylinder,a device is needed to contain the gas and to provide a point of attachment for equipment.What is this called?
A)Outlet
B)Stem
C)Pin valve
D)Cylinder valve
Q2) What is the color code for an air cylinder?
A)Yellow
B)White
C)Gray
D)Red
Q3) How many cubic feet of oxygen are in an 'E' sized cylinder?
A)244 cu.ft.
B)22 cu.ft.
C)28.3 cu.ft.
D)2200 cu.ft.
Q4) You attach a pressure reducing valve to a 'M' sized gas cylinder.When you open the cylinder valve you hear gas leaking from of near the valve-cylinder connection.What should you do?
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Chapter 13: Oxygen Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newborn is admitted into the nursery and is started on an FIO of 35% through an isolette.The patient's arterial blood gas is drawn and his PaO measured to be 88 mmHg.What would be the associated risk for this patient?
A)Oxygen toxicity
B)Absorption atelectasis
C)Oxygen induced hypoventilation
D)Retinopathy of prematurity
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of a using a transtracheal catheter to deliver oxygen to a home care patient?
A)It is an invasive catheter so infection risk is minimized.
B)Routine cleaning of the device ensures continuous oxygen delivery to the patient.
C)It is a high flow oxygen delivery system so all of the patient's inspiratory demands are met.
D)Lower oxygen liter flows may be used than are required resulting in less oxygen used.
Q3) During oxygen rounds,a patient on a nasal cannula has an oxygen saturation of 89%.No flow is felt coming from the device.What could be the problem?
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Chapter 14: Introduction to Respiratory Care Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT an example of a sympathomimetic drug?
A)Salmeterol Xinafoate
B)Formoterol fumarate
C)Pirbuterol Acetate
D)Atropine Sulfate
Q2) An aerosol drug is ordered on a patient in MDI form.The propellant causes a reflex bronchospasm in the patient.What can be done?
Q3) What immunoglobulin antibody sensitizes the mast cell?
A)Leukotrienes
B)IgE
C)Histamine
D)Prostaglandins
Q4) MDI spacer devices are used in conjunction with MDIs to:
A)serve as a baffle,removing smaller particles from suspension.
B)enhance the effectiveness of aerosol deposition and improve medication delivery.
C)act as a reservoir that helps to decrease the evaporation of the MDI propellant.
D)a,b,and c
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16
Chapter 15: Humidity and Aerosol Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Connection of a large-volume nebulizer to the correct type flowmeter is ensured because the connection incorporates a:
A)PISS fitting at the top of the unit.
B)ASSS fitting at the top of the unit.
C)DISS fitting at the top of the unit.
D)15 mmID fitting at the top of the unit
Q2) What is defined as is water in gaseous form,or vapor?
A)Humidity
B)Aerosol
C)Humidity deficit
D)Barometric pressure
Q3) A patient has an ultrasonic nebulizer ordered every 4 hours to help with secretion mobilization.After the treatment the patient complains of chest tightness and wheezing is heard upon auscultating the chest.What could be done to alleviate this problem?
Q4) When the temperature of a gas is increased,its capacity will ________________
A)remain the same.
B)exert a barometric pressure of 47 mmHg.
C)decrease.
D)increase.
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Chapter 16: Bronchial Hygiene Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient vomits and aspirates in the flat,supine position.A therapeutic bronchoscopy is performed and confirms that the patient has aspirated into the superior segments of both lower lobes.The physician orders postural drainage for these segments.How should this be performed?
A)Position the patient prone with the head of the bed flat.
B)Position the patient on the left side with the foot of the bed elevated 18 to 20 inches,and on the right side with the foot of the bed elevated 18 to 20 inches.
C)Position the patient supine with the foot of the bed elevated 18 to 20 inches.
D)Position the patient prone with the foot of the bed elevated 18 to 20 inches.
Q2) You are called to assess a patient and recommend the appropriate therapy.Upon assessment the patient exhibits an abnormal chest radiograph consistent with infiltrates,sputum retention not responsive to directed coughing,and a deterioration in the patient's arterial blood gas values.What therapy should be recommended for this patient?
A)Postural drainage therapy
B)Forced expiratory technique
C)Positive expiratory pressure therapy
D)Positioning
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Chapter 17: Hyperinflation Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are hazards of IS?
I.Exacerbation of bronchospasm
II.Hyperventilation
III.Barotrauma
IV.Oxygen induced hypoventilation
A)I and III
B)II and IV
C)I,II,III,and IV
D)I,II,and III
Q2) What is defined as a combination of high-frequency phased pulse gas delivery and the administration of a dense aerosol?
A)Incentive spirometry (IS)
B)Intermittent positive pressure breathing (IPPB)therapy
C)Intrapulmonary percussive ventilation (IPV)therapy
D)High frequency chest wall oscillation (HFCWO)therapy
Q3) After inhalation during IPPB therapy,exhalation should _________________
A)take place quickly to maintain an I:E ratio of 1:1.
B)be performed against resistance to prolong exhalation.
C)take place forcefully.
D)take place passively.
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Chapter 18: Bronchoscopy Assisting
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of sample obtained by bronchoscopic analysis should be fixated in a formalin solution?
A)Sample for cytological analysis
B)Sample for histological analysis
C)Sample for microbiological analysis
D)Sample for fungal analysis
Q2) ______________ is performed to obtain lower respiratory tract secretions or tissue samples for cytological,histological,or microbiological study.
A)Therapeutic bronchoscopy
B)Diagnostic bronchoscopy
C)Bronchoalveolar lavage
D)Rigid bronchoscopy
Q3) The practitioner being oriented on the pediatric unit finds that one of the duties she will be performing will be helping with bronchoscopy procedures.Why would bronchoscopies be performed on pediatric patients?
Q4) A patient has just had a bronchoscopy procedure performed.What precautions and instructions should you give the patient following the procedure?
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Chapter 19: Equipment Processing and Surveillance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following processes are disinfection methods?
I.Steam autoclaving
II.Pasteurization
III.Ethylene oxide
IV.Glutaraldehyde
V.Quaternary ammonium compounds
A)I,III,IV
B)II and V
C)III,IV,V
D)I only
Q2) What should be the first step in any sterilization method?
A)Making sure the equipment is wrapped in cloth or paper.
B)Making sure that the equipment to be sterilized is exposed to the sterilization solution.
C)Cold sterilize the equipment to ensure that the equipment is properly processed.
D)The first step is to disassemble the equipment,remove the foreign material on it,and washing it.
Q3) What types of vaccines should a health care worker undergo routinely?
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Chapter 20: Emergency Airway Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of all valves used in manual resuscitators?
A)To determine the compliance of a patient's lung and thorax
B)To deliver gas to the patient during inspiration
C)To allow the patient to exhale to the ambient atmosphere on exhalation
D)b and c
Q2) A patient needs to placed on mechanical ventilation.For intubation,the practitioner selects a Macintosh laryngoscope blade.Where in the airway should the tip of the blade be placed?
A)The tip directly lifts the epiglottis.
B)The distal tip is placed in the vallecula.
C)The tip is placed on the left side of the tongue and positioned until the trachea is visualized.
D)The tip is inserted posteriorly to the trachea to ensure tracheal intubation.
Q3) Where is the Miller laryngoscope blade placed during endotracheal intubation?
A)Under the epiglottis
B)In the vallecula
C)In the trachea
D)In the esophagus
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Chapter 21: Artificial Airway Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) When evaluating sputum suctioned from a patient that is being mechanically ventilated,which of the following characteristics should be evaluated?
I.Color
II.Consistency
III.Odor
IV.Amount
A)I and III
B)II and IV
C)I,II,III,IV
D)I,II,IV
Q2) Because suctioning is an invasive procedure,strict aseptic technique should be used at all times to prevent the inadvertent introduction of bacteria into the tracheobronchial tree.Sterile gloves should be used to maintain with all suction catheters EXCEPT
A)a whistle tip suction catheter.
B)a Coude tip suction catheter.
C)a closed system suction catheter.
D)sterile gloves should be worn with all suctioning catheters.
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23
Chapter 22: Chest Tubes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which part/chamber of the chest tube acts as a one-way valve,allowing air to escape from the pleural or mediastinal space but not allowing it to enter those spaces from the atmosphere?
A)Collection chamber
B)Water seal chamber
C)Chest tube tubing
D)Suction control chamber
Q2) Which of the following would you suggest to the physician to minimize the risk of infection during the insertion of a chest tube?
A)4% Lidocaine
B)Midazolam
C)Providone-iodine
D)Aspirin
Q3) When preparing a chest tube drainage system for use on a patient,what should the respiratory care practitioner do to the water seal chamber of the drainage system?
A)Fill the chamber with water to the 20 cm H O line
B)Fill the chamber with water to the 2 cm H O line
C)Attach the tubing that goes to the chest tube to the water seal chamber
D)Adjust the suction pressure at the wall outlet to full vacuum
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Insertion and Maintenance of Intravenous Lines
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Sample Questions
Q1) If 1 liter of lactated ringers needs to be administered to the patient in 4 hours by an infusion set that delivers 10 drops/ml,how many drops/min need to be delivered to the patient?
A)84 gtt/min
B)42 gtt/min
C)20 gtt/min
D)100 gtt/min
Q2) During insertion of an IV,the practitioner re-inserts the metal needle back into the catheter.What complication can be caused by this?
A)Air embolism
B)Phlebitis
C)Catheter shear
D)Cellulitis
Q3) What is the preferred IV site on an adult patient?
A)The smallest artery that can be accessed
B)In the radial artery of the non-dominant hand
C)The temporal vein
D)A vein on the non-dominant hand or arm of the patient
Q4) What is the purpose of transparent dressings on a IV?
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Chapter 24: Noninvasive Positive-Pressure Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) In acute respiratory failure,NPPV tends to cause which of the following beneficial effects for the patient?
I.Increase the PaO
II.Decrease the pH
III.Increase the PaCO
IV.Decrease HCO
A)I only
B)I,II,III
C)III and IV
D)I and II
Q2) The respiratory care practitioner sets up a patient on NPPV in the spontaneous/timed mode due to frequent apneic episodes.To ensure that the patient receives continuous ventilation,which of the following should be set on the ventilator?
A)EPAP pressure
B)Low pressure alarm
C)%IPAP time
D)Set rate
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26
Chapter 25: Continuous Mechanical Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The practitioner should consider noninvasive ventilation in which of the following conditions?
I.Pulmonary edema
II.Exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
III.Neuromuscular disease
IV.Hyperventilation syndrome
A)I,II,III and IV
B)I,II and III
C)II,III and IV
D)I and III
Q2) A family does not want to have their parent with congestive heart failure intubated,but the patient is in need of mechanical ventilation,the therapist should recommend _____________
A)IPPB therapy for 20 minutes every hour.
B)CPAP therapy via nasal mask with 50% oxygen.
C)noninvasive ventilation using IPAP and EPAP pressures.
D)disregarding the wishes of the family and intubate and mechanically ventilate the patient.
Q3) How is tubing compliance determined?
Q4) How does a practitioner measure airway resistance on a ventilator?
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Advanced Modes of Mechanical Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A practitioner wants to use volume support but is concerned that the patient might have periods of apnea.What should be used to ensure that the patient will have a backup ventilation mode?
A)Automode
B)Automatic tube compensation
C)Mandatory minute ventilation
D)Proportional assist ventilation
Q2) The oxygenation goal for most mechanically ventilated patients is
A)SPO 95-100%,PaO 100-105 mm Hg.
B)SPO 88-90%,PaO 60+ mm Hg.
C)SPO 93-98%,PaO 75 mm Hg.
D)PaO 80-100 mm Hg.
Q3) What are three problems that mandatory minute ventilation cannot prevent?
Q4) Rapid shallow breathing index is used _______________________
A)to measure effectiveness of oxygenation.
B)to identify the settings used in high frequency ventilation.
C)in assessment of neonates and infants.
D)to quantify the relationship between tidal volume and respiratory rate.
Q5) What is the auto-set-point control?
28
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Chapter 27: Wave Form Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory care practitioner wants to check the airway resistance with an asthmatic patient on a ventilator.She can check airway resistance by which of the following?
A)Checking the inspiratory pressure time display for peak pressure.
B)Evaluating the volume time tracing for evidence of unevenness of filling
C)Dividing frequency by tidal volume in liters
D)Observing the slope of the expiratory flow tracing
Q2) A steeper slope of the pressure versus volume loop indicates ________________ A)overdistention.
B)increased compliance.
C)increased resistance.
D)increased work of breathing.
Q3) An asthmatic patient has been placed on a mechanical ventilator.The ventilating pressures have increased and wheezes are heard on auscultation over both lung fields.How can the practitioner assess improvement from aerosolized bronchodilator therapy?
Q4) Which graphic displays can indicate adequacy of inspiratory flow during a ventilator inspiration and how are they used?
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Weaning and Discontinuance of Mechanical Ventilation
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44621
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of the method of ventilator weaning called spontaneous breathing trials (SBT)?
A)Mechanical ventilation can be discontinued if patient cannot tolerate as little as 30 minutes off
B)SBT is the same as SIMV mode of ventilation
C)Measurements of cardiac output and SvO are essential
D)Sedation can be given if a patient begins to have difficulty with breathing
Q2) Evidence of decompensation during an SBT include which of the following?
I.Cardiac dysrhythmias
II.Increased anxiety
III.Diaphoresis
IV.Digital clubbing
A)I,II,III and IV
B)I,II and III
C)II,III and IV
D)I and III
Q3) How do neurological problems result in ventilator dependence?
Q4) What should the respiratory therapist do if the patient does not pass the SBT?
Q5) How do respiratory conditions result in ventilator dependence?
Q6) How do cardiovascular problems result in ventilator dependence? Page 30
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Chapter 29: Neonatal Mechanical Ventilation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44622
Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory care practitioner wants to use a spontaneous mode of ventilation that will provide a continuous flow of oxygenated gas at a pressure slightly above ambient pressure on both inspiration and expiration.The practitioner wants to use
A)CPAP.
B)SIMV.
C)PRVC.
D)PS.
Q2) Ventilator proximal gas temperature should be set at _________________
A)36-37 degrees C.
B)97 degrees C.
C)24-30 degrees C.
D)40-45 degrees C.
Q3) Which of the following is true of I:E ratio?
A)Refers to inspiratory flow to expiratory flow
B)Inspiration is always longer than expiration
C)Long time constants need greater than 1:2 ratio
D)Higher I:E ratios are better tolerated with short time constants
Q4) Describe how the initial newborn ventilator setting are determined for tidal volume,oxygen percent and PEEP/CPAP
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