Respiratory Care Procedures
Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Respiratory Care Procedures is an in-depth course focusing on the fundamental and advanced techniques used in the assessment and management of patients with respiratory disorders. Students will learn about airway management, oxygen delivery systems, aerosol and humidity therapy, suctioning, bronchodilator therapy, and mechanical ventilation. Emphasis is placed on proper equipment usage, infection control, patient assessment, and the ethical and legal responsibilities of respiratory therapists. Practical laboratory experiences and case studies help students develop critical thinking and hands-on skills required for safe and effective respiratory care in clinical environments.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Manifestations Assessment of Respiratory Disease 6th Edition by Terry Des Jardins
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Chapter 1: The Patient Interview
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Sample Questions
Q1) For there to be a successful interview, the respiratory therapist must:
1) provide leading questions to guide the patient.
2) be an active listener.
3) reassure the patient.
4) have genuine concern.
A)2, 4
B)1, 3
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: A
Q2) To have the most productive interviewing session, the respiratory therapist must avoid all of the following types of verbal messages EXCEPT:
A) confrontation.
B)giving advice.
C)using avoidance language.
D)distancing.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: The Physical Examination and Its Basis in Physiology
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Q1) Your 50-year-old patient would be said to have hypotension when her:
A) blood pressure is 130/90 mm Hg.
B)blood pressure is 85/55 mm Hg.
C)heart rate is 55 bpm.
D)pulse pressure is 40 mm Hg.
Answer: B
Q2) While assessing an unconscious patient, you observe that her breathing becomes progressively faster and deeper and then progressively becomes slower and more shallow. After that, there is a period of apnea before the cycle begins again. This breathing pattern would be identified as:
A) Cheyne-Stokes.
B)tachypnea.
C)Kussmaul.
D)hyperventilation.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Pulmonary Function Study Assessments
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Q1) In response to a restrictive lung disorder, the following are typically found:
1) Decreased lung compliance
2) Increased ventilatory rate
3) Decreased tidal volume
4) Decreased lung rigidity
A)1
B)2, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3
Answer: D
Q2) The FEF 25%-75% is used to evaluate:
A) flow in large airways.
B)restrictive lung disease.
C)maximum breathing effort.
D)flow in medium-size to small airways.
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: Arterial Blood Gas Assessments
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Q1) Which of the following would be a normal person's arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO<sub>2</sub>)?
A) 25 to 35 mm Hg
B)35 to 45 mm Hg
C)45 to 60 mm Hg
D)60 to 80 mm Hg
Q2) Which of the following would be a normal person's venous oxygen pressure (PaO<sub>2</sub>)?
A) 35 to 45 mm Hg
B)45 to 80 mm Hg
C)80 to 100 mm Hg
D)100 to 120 mm Hg
Q3) An anion gap of 15 would indicate:
A) metabolic acidosis.
B)respiratory alkalosis.
C)respiratory acidosis.
D)metabolic alkalosis.
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Chapter 5: Oxygenation Assessments
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Q1) Your patient has a chronic respiratory disorder and vasoconstriction of her pulmonary vascular system. What is the chief control over this vasoconstriction?
A) Low PAO<sub>2</sub>
B)Low PaO<sub>2</sub>
C)High PaCO<sub>2</sub>
D)High pH
Q2) An increased cardiac output causes the:
1) C(a-v)O<sub>2</sub> to decrease.
2) SvO<sub>2</sub> to increase.
3) Total O<sub>2</sub> delivery to decrease.
4) O<sub>2</sub>ER to increase.
A)1
B)2, 3
C)3, 4
D)1, 2
Q3) A condition that will cause hypoxic hypoxia is:
A) cyanosis.
B)decreased cardiac output or heart failure.
C)hypoventilation from an overdose of a sedative medication.
D)carbon monoxide poisoning.
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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System Assessments
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Q1) A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) can be identified by which of the following?
1) There is no P wave.
2) The QRS is wide.
3) The QRS looks normal.
4) The heart rate is altered.
A)1
B)3, 4
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 3, 4
Q2) The "T" wave represents:
A) depolarization of the ventricles.
B)repolarization of the ventricles.
C)depolarization of the atria.
D)repolarization of the atria.
Q3) A central venous pressure (CVP) catheter is used to:
A) measure left atrial pressure.
B)measure right ventricular work.
C)monitor right ventricular function.
D)monitor left ventricular function.
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Chapter 7: Radiologic Examination of the Chest
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Q1) The heart shadow on a chest radiograph will show up larger than normal on:
A) an AP film.
B)a PA film.
C)a left lateral film.
D)a computed tomography (CT) scan.
Q2) Your patient has a long smoking history and has recently coughed up blood. The physician suspects that there may be lung cancer but no lesions can be seen on a standard chest radiograph. A CT scan offers all of the following advantages EXCEPT:
A) bronchial tumors can be seen.
B)lung tumors as small as 0.4 cm can be seen.
C)a tumor's metabolism can be identified.
D)a mediastinal mass can be seen.
Q3) Which of the following is true of a chest radiograph?
A) Lateral films are shot through one side of an upright patient.
B)AP films are typically taken in the x-ray department.
C)PA films artificially increase the size of the heart shadow.
D)Lateral decubitus films are shot with the patient lying supine.
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Chapter 8: Other Important Tests and Procedures
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Q1) Therapeutic bronchoscopy is used for all of the following EXCEPT:
A) to remove a foreign body.
B)in selective lavage.
C)in bronchiectasis evaluation.
D)to manage life-threatening hemoptysis.
Q2) Culture and sensitivity tests:
A) stain a microorganism as Gram-positive or Gram-negative.
B)determine the shape of the organisms present.
C)identify the DNA of organisms present in the sputum.
D)determine the antibiotic(s) best suited for combating an infection.
Q3) After a thoracentesis procedure, it is important to monitor the patient for:
A) bronchospasm.
B)hemoptysis.
C)increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN).
D)pneumothorax.
Q4) Diagnostic thoracentesis can be used to:
A) withdraw a secretion sample from the lung for a sputum smear.
B)withdraw a secretion sample from the lung for a Gram stain.
C)determine the etiology of a pleural effusion.
D)remove air from the pleural space.
10
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Chapter 9: The Therapist-Driven Protocol Program and the
Role of the Respiratory Care Practitioner
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is/are associated with the bronchospasm clinical scenario?
1) Increased airway resistance
2) Decreased FRC
3) Bronchial breath sounds
4) Hyperresonant percussion note
A)3
B)1, 4
C)2, 3
D)1, 3, 4
Q2) When performing a therapist-driven protocol (TDP), the severity assessment refers to:
A) the frequency of performing a treatment modality.
B)how sick the patient is.
C)the Department of Homeland Security's threat level.
D)how urgently the physician wants the patient treated.
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11
Chapter 10: Recording Skills:
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the chapter text, which of the following are basic methods to record assessment data?
1) Computer documentation
2) Charting by exception
3) Source-oriented record
4) Problem-oriented medical record
A)1, 2
B)2, 3
C)1, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following is a Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) rule?
A) A bank can check for a preexisting condition.
B)The patient controls access to his/her medical records.
C)Psychotherapy and medical records are treated equally.
D)An employer can check for a preexisting condition.
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Chapter 11: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
Chronic Bronchitis, and Emphysema
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Q1) A patient with emphysema will often have the following clinical manifestations:
1) Polycythemia
2) Barrel chest
3) Pursed-lip breathing
4) Normal percussion note
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following terms is/are commonly applied to a patient with emphysema?
1) Pink puffer
2) Blue bloater
3) Type A COPD
4) Type B COPD
A)1
B)2
C)1, 3
D)2, 4
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Chapter 12: Asthma
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Sample Questions
Q1) A sputum sample from a suspected asthmatic patient has been sent to the laboratory for analysis. Which of the following findings would confirm the diagnosis?
A) Increased IgE level
B)Increased erythrocytes
C)Increased leukocytes
D)Decreased IgE level
Q2) Pulsus paradoxus would be manifested as:
A) a greater than 40 mm Hg difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressures.
B)inspiratory systolic blood pressure >10 mm Hg less than during expiration.
C)inspiratory diastolic blood pressure >10 mm Hg less than during expiration.
D)systolic and diastolic blood pressure reading being reversed.
Q3) If an asthmatic patient is not properly treated and has long-term airway inflammation, what can occur?
A) Chronic bronchitis
B)Pulmonary fibrosis
C)Irreversible loss of airway caliber
D)Emphysema
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14
Chapter 13: Bronchiectasis
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Q1) Rigid and dilated bronchi are the key anatomic alterations found in which type of bronchiectasis?
A) Varicose
B)Cystic
C)Emphysematous
D)Cylindrical
Q2) Your patient has rhinosinusitis, right-sided heart placement, and bronchiectasis. She is likely to have which of the following conditions?
A) Pierre Robin syndrome
B)Kartagener's syndrome
C)Down syndrome
D)cystic fibrosis
Q3) Which of the following pulmonary function testing values would be found in a patient with severe, obstructive bronchiectasis?
A) Decreased RV/TLC ratio
B)Increased PEFR
C)Increased FEF<sub>25%-75%</sub>
D)Decreased FEF<sub>25%-75%</sub>
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15
Chapter 14: Cystic Fibrosis
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Q1) If a cystic fibrosis patient is in generally good condition, what might be done to permanently fix the lung problem?
A) Cryosurgery
B)Total DNA replacement
C)Diaphragmatic pacemaker
D)Lung transplant
Q2) All of the following pulmonary function findings would be expected in a patient with moderate to severe cystic fibrosis EXCEPT:
A) increased FVC.
B)increased RV.
C)decreased PEFR.
D)decreased FEF 50%.
Q3) During the advanced stages of cystic fibrosis, the anatomic alterations cause the patient to have:
A) a primarily restrictive lung disease.
B)a primarily obstructive lung disease.
C)equal parts restrictive and obstructive lung disease.
D)normal airways with emphysema.
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16
Chapter 15: Pneumonia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following pulmonary infection is most commonly seen in patients with AIDS: A) anaerobic.
B)Pneumocystis carinii.
C)Streptococcus pneumoniae (Diplococcus pneumoniae).
D)Legionella pneumophila.
Q2) When a patient has pneumonia, what would be found in the alveolar effusion fluids?
1) Mucus
2) Serum fluid
3) Saliva
4) Red blood cells
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) Overall, most cases of pneumonia are caused by:
A) viruses.
B)Gram-negative bacteria.
C)protozoa.
D)fungi.
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Chapter 16: Lung Abscess
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Sample Questions
Q1) While performing an assessment of your female patient, a pleural friction rub is heard. What does this indicate?
A) Her secretions are becoming thinner.
B)She has atelectasis.
C)An abscess is near the pleural surface.
D)She has a pneumothorax.
Q2) A patient who had a stroke is lying supine in bed when he vomits and aspirates. He is most likely to develop a lung abscess in the: 1) posterior segments of the upper lobes.
2) lingular segments.
3) superior segments of the lower lobes.
4) all segments of both lower lobes.
A)4
B)1, 3
C)2, 3
D)1, 2, 4
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18
Chapter 17: Tuberculosis
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Q1) Risk factors predisposing a person to TB include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) having HIV/AIDS.
B)being immunosuppressed.
C)African American or Hispanic heritage.
D)malnutrition.
Q2) Mycobacterium tuberculosis is particularly damaging to the lungs because of:
A) the healing of a tubercle.
B)micropulmonary emboli.
C)the increased mucus production.
D)the irreversible bronchospasm that it causes.
Q3) Mycobacterium tuberculosis is most readily transmitted through:
A) drinking milk from or the milking of infected cows.
B)shaking hands and then rubbing your eye.
C)coughing.
D)accidental direct inoculation.
Q4) The most effective medication used to treat a TB infection is:
A) rifampin.
B)penicillin.
C)streptomycin.
D)isoniazid.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Fungal Diseases of the Lung
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Q1) A skin test is available to confirm which of the following fungal infections?
A) Coccidioidomycosis
B)Blastomycosis
C)Tuberculosis
D)Pseudomonal infection
Q2) In the midwestern part of the United States, what is the most common fungal infection of the lungs?
A) Cryptococcosis
B)Histoplasmosis
C)Blastomycosis
D)Coccidioidomycosis
Q3) After cleaning out his chicken coop, a farmer has developed a fungal lung infection. What type of infection is it most likely to be?
A) Coccidioidomycosis
B)Blastomycosis
C)Histoplasmosis
D)Cryptococcal infection
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Chapter 19: Pulmonary Edema
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Q1) Your patient with cardiogenic pulmonary edema would be expected to have all of the following chest radiograph findings EXCEPT:
A) depressed diaphragms.
B)pleural effusion.
C)cardiomegaly.
D)bilateral "butterfly" pattern fluffy infiltrates.
Q2) Your patient with cardiogenic pulmonary edema has had intravascular catheters placed for monitoring purposes. Which of the following values would be expected?
1) Decreased SV
2) Increased PCWP
3) Increased CVP
4) Decreased RAP
A)2, 3
B)1, 4
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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21
Chapter 20: Pulmonary Embolism
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Q1) Bronchospasm may happen after a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following can lead to this bronchospasm?
1) Localized hypoxemia
2) Localized hypercapnia
3) Localized hypocapnia
4) Release of cellular mediators from platelets
A)1, 2
B)2, 4
C)1, 3
D)1, 3, 4
Q2) Your patient's D-dimer blood test results show a value of 250 ng/mL. How should these results be interpreted?
A) The patient does not have a pulmonary embolism.
B)The patient's anticoagulant level is acceptable.
C)The patient has a pulmonary embolism.
D)The patient has a deep vein thrombosis.
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Chapter 21: Flail Chest
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Q1) While assessing a patient who was involved in a serious car crash and hit his steering wheel, you notice that his left anterior chest wall caves in during inspiration. What could cause this?
A) Singultus
B)Flail chest segment
C)Pneumothorax
D)Cardiac tamponade
Q2) Your flail chest patient requires supplemental oxygen. What is the usual cause of hypoxemia in a flail chest patient?
A) Myocardial contusion
B)Hemorrhage
C)Pulmonary edema
D)Alveolar atelectasis
Q3) Your patient with a flail chest has developed consolidation. What should be implemented to help manage it?
A) Hyperinflation therapy protocol
B)Antibiotics
C)Mechanical ventilation protocol
D)Oxygen therapy protocol
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Pneumothorax
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Q1) According to the way gas enters the pleural space, a pneumothorax will be classified as:
1) one-sided.
2) bilateral.
3) open.
4) closed.
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following hemodynamic indices will be found in a patient with a large hemothorax?
A) Decreased Qs/Qt
B)Decreased CO
C)Increased CI
D)Increased SV
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24
Chapter 23: Effusion and Empyema
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Q1) Treatment of an empyema usually includes:
1) antibiotics for bacterial infection.
2) thoracentesis.
3) lung removal (pneumonectomy).
4) lung transplant.
A)1
B)2
C)2, 3
D)1, 2
Q2) The anatomic alteration caused by a pleural effusion is:
A) pulmonary fibrosis.
B)separation of the visceral and parietal pleura.
C)adhesion of the visceral and parietal pleura.
D)pulmonary edema.
Q3) Your patient has a large pleural effusion. It will act as a/an:
A) restrictive lung disorder.
B)obstructive lung disorder.
C)obstructive > restrictive lung disorder.
D)restrictive > obstructive lung disorder.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Kyphoscoliosis
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Q1) Mild to moderate kyphoscoliosis will manifest itself clinically as a/an:
A) restrictive cardiac disorder.
B)obstructive pulmonary disorder.
C)equally restrictive and obstructive pulmonary disorder.
D)restrictive pulmonary disorder.
Q2) Positive risk factor(s) for the development of kyphoscoliosis include:
1) male gender.
2) female gender.
3) taller person.
4) shorter person.
A)1
B)2
C)2, 3
D)1, 4
Q3) Braces are most effective with which group of kyphoscoliosis patients?
A) Adolescents with idiopathic scoliosis
B)Patients with congenital scoliosis
C)Patients with neuromuscular scoliosis
D)Infants with idiopathic scoliosis
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Interstitial Lung Diseases
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Q1) Your patient with mild to moderate ILD has hypoxemia and will be given oxygen therapy. All of the following are possible causes of hypoxemia EXCEPT:
A) hypoventilation.
B)capillary shunting.
C)alveolar thickening.
D)fibrosis.
Q2) Chest radiograph findings in a patient with ILD can include: 1) pleural effusion. 2) honeycombing.
3) cavity formation.
4) granulomas.
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) Generally, a patient with ILD will have a lung compliance that is:
A) higher than normal.
B)normal.
C)less than normal.
D)variable based on the etiology.
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Chapter 26: Cancer of the Lung
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Q1) The most common cause of lung cancer is:
A) smoking tobacco.
B)smoking marijuana.
C)inhaling asbestos.
D)inhaling radon gas.
Q2) During bronchoscopy, a tumor was found in the right mainstem bronchus. What is the best way to manage the problem?
A) Prophylactic cranial irradiation
B)Brachytherapy
C)Cryotherapy
D)Laser bronchoscopy
Q3) Signs and symptoms that a patient has metastatic lung cancer include:
1) weakness.
2) bone pain.
3) seizures.
4) weight loss.
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)1, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 27: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) All of the following would be low tidal volume ventilation goals in a patient with ARDS, EXCEPT:
A) decrease barotraumas.
B)plateau pressure > 30 cm H<sub>2</sub>O.
C)decrease high transpulmonary pressures.
D)reduce overdistension of the lungs.
Q2) Your patient has a prolonged case of ARDS. What will happen to his alveolar cells?
A) Multiplication of the type I cells
B)Influx of macrophages
C)Hyperplasia and swelling of the type II cells
D)Development of emphysema
Q3) Your adult male patient weighs 68 kg (150 pounds). Because he has developed ARDS, the physician wants to adjust the mechanical ventilator to minimize further lung injury. What tidal volume should be set for the patient?
A) 150 ml
B)400 ml
C)680 ml
D)800 ml
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29
Chapter 28: Guillain-Barré Syndrome
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Q1) Which of following has been shown to shorten the course of a severe case of Guillain-Barré syndrome?
A) Renal dialysis
B)Plasmapheresis
C)Blood transfusion
D)Mechanical ventilation
Q2) Clinical indications that your patient has acute ventilatory failure include:
1) pH < 7.35.
2) vital capacity (VC) < 20 ml/kg.
3) PaCO<sub>2</sub> > 45 mm Hg.
4) negative inspiratory force (NIF) < -25 cm H<sub>2</sub>O.
A)3
B)1, 3
C)2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) Guillain-Barré syndrome is most likely to be found in which demographic group?
A) African-American female 20-30 years of age
B)Hispanic male <45 years of age
C)Asian female 20-40 years of age
D)White male = 45 years of age
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Chapter 29: Myasthenia Gravis
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Q1) The physician is recommending a thymectomy in a patient. The benefit of this procedure is to:
A) remove the source of anti-ACh receptor antibodies.
B)block the antigen-antibody reactions.
C)remove the source of cholinesterase.
D)prevent the development of myasthenia gravis.
Q2) A 50-kg (110-lb) 30-year-old female patient has myasthenia gravis. Bedside spirometry has found her VC to be 700 ml and NIF -14 cm H<sub>2</sub>O. Vital signs show a respiratory rate of 38, heart rate of 140/minute, and blood pressure of 130/90 mm
Hg. What would you recommend be done?
A) Check the vital signs every hour.
B)Begin intermittent positive pressure breathing (IPPB) treatments.
C)Administer supplemental oxygen.
D)Begin mechanical ventilation.
Q3) If a patient with myasthenia gravis is given the drug edrophonium (Tensilon), what will happen?
A) Heart rate will increase.
B)Strength will improve for a short time.
C)There will be a long-term improvement in strength.
D)The patient will weaken for a short time.
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Chapter 30: Sleep Apnea
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Q1) A CPAP titration polysomnogram is performed to:
A) find the maximum CPAP level for the functional residual capacity.
B)determine the lowest possible CPAP level.
C)find the CPAP level to maintain an open airway.
D)determine the pressure needed for negative-pressure ventilation.
Q2) Long-term management of central sleep apnea includes:
A) CPAP.
B)adaptive servo-ventilation (VPAP).
C)mechanical ventilation.
D)palatopharyngoplasty.
Q3) Signs and symptoms associated with obstructive sleep apnea include: 1) insomnia.
2) excessive daytime sleepiness.
3) hypothyroidism.
4) metabolic alkalosis.
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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32
Chapter 31: Newborn and Early Childhood Respiratory Disorders
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Q1) A premature neonate must generate a higher negative intrapleural pressure during inspiration than a term neonate. This will result in all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) cyanosis of dependent thoracic areas.
B)"seesaw" breathing pattern.
C)alveolar hyperinflation.
D)intercostal retractions.
Q2) Early clinical manifestations of an infant with respiratory distress include:
1) cyanosis.
2) substernal retractions.
3) expiratory grunting.
4) apnea.
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3
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Chapter 32: Meconium Aspiration Syndrome
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Q1) An infant with MAS will show what clinical manifestations associated with the more negative intrapleural pressures needed during inspiration?
1) Seesaw breathing movement
2) Breath sounds reveal rhonchi and crackles
3) Expiratory grunting
4) Cyanosis of the dependent thoracic areas
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) How may a fetus respond when he/she becomes hypoxemic?
A) It stops making breathing efforts.
B)It makes rapid, shallow chest movements.
C)It makes very deep, gasping inspiratory movements.
D)It shows Kussmaul respirations.
Q3) About how many neonatal patients with MAS will require mechanical ventilation?
A) 50%
B)30%
C)10% to 15%
D)4%
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Chapter 33: Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn
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Q1) Which of the following is the most likely to be utilized in the management of a patient with TTN?
A) Lung expansion therapy
B)Oxygen therapy
C)Mechanical ventilation
D)Bronchopulmonary hygiene therapy
Q2) Risk factors for the development of TTN include:
1) maternal diabetes.
2) male gender.
3) maternal bleeding.
4) breech delivery.
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)1, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3
Q3) Initially, TTN will have a clinical presentation similar to:
A) the early stage of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS).
B)the late stage of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS).
C)bronchial pneumonia.
D)meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS).
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Chapter 34: Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) The respiratory pattern of a neonate with RDS will have these characteristics:
1) Respiratory rate of about 50/min
2) Respiratory rate of >60/min
3) Cyclical breathing pattern
4) Hard and deep breaths
A)1
B)2, 3
C)1, 4
D)2, 4
Q2) Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) primarily affects infants who are:
A) pre-term with insufficient surfactant.
B)full-term.
C)post-term with too much surfactant.
D)pre-term with too much surfactant.
Q3) All of the following amniotic fluid lab findings would indicate mature fetal lungs, EXCEPT:
A) S:A ratio is >55
B)PG is present
C)L:S ratio is 2:1
D)L:S ratio is 1:2
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Chapter 35: Pulmonary Air Leak Syndromes
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Q1) Your patient is suspected of having a pneumothorax and the physician is performing transillumination to assess the situation. What finding would confirm that there is a pneumothorax?
A) The trachea will be illuminated.
B)Light will shine through the hole in the lung.
C)Increased illumination on the unaffected side
D)Increased illumination on the affected side
Q2) Your intubated and mechanically ventilated neonatal patient has a pneumothorax of the right lung. What can be done to help the injured lung to heal?
A) Selectively place the endotracheal tube into the left mainstem bronchus.
B)Selectively place the endotracheal tube into the right mainstem bronchus.
C)Replace the endotracheal tube with a tracheostomy tube.
D)Change to continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).
Q3) During the physical exam of a patient with PIE and a pneumoperitoneum, what respiratory rate is usually found?
A) 80 to 120/min
B)>60/min
C)30 to 60/min
D)Less than 30/min
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Chapter 36: Respiratory Syncytial Virus Infection
Bronchiolitis or Pneumonitis
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Q1) Outbreaks of RSV are usually found in all of the following seasons of the year, EXCEPT: A) spring.
B)summer.
C)fall.
D)winter.
Q2) Several small children who attend the same day care facility have become sick with RSV. The owner of the day care can expect them to recover within:
A) 4 to 6 days.
B)3 to 8 days.
C)1 to 2 weeks.
D)greater than 3 weeks.
Q3) During the early stages of RSV in a young child, what respiratory rate is commonly found?
A) Under 30/min
B)Between 30 and 60/min
C)well over 60/min
D)rapid, then up to a 10-second period of apnea
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia
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Q1) A patient with Stage 1 BPD would have which of the following chest radiograph findings?
A) Ground-glass granular pattern
B)Emphysematous bullae
C)Honeycomb appearance
D)Mediastinal shift
Q2) What essential nutrient maintains the epithelial cells of the tracheobronchial tree?
A) Vitamin A
B)Vitamin C
C)Carbohydrates
D)Proteins
Q3) A very preterm infant has just been born. What would contribute to its development of the "new" bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)?
A) Interruption of the canalicular stage of lung development
B)Transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN)
C)Low Apgar scores
D)Laryngotracheobronchitis
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Chapter 38: Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
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Q1) If a newborn is born with a CDH, when does respiratory distress develop?
A) During labor
B)Soon after birth
C)Within the first 4 to 6 hours of birth
D)Within the first 48 hours of birth
Q2) Your patient has a left-sided CDH. How would this manifest itself clinically?
A) A restrictive pulmonary disorder
B)An obstructive pulmonary disorder
C)Equally restrictive and obstructive disorder
D)A restrictive cardiac disorder
Q3) What will happen to the developing lungs of a fetus with a CDH?
A) Pulmonary hypoplasia
B)Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
C)They will fill with amniotic fluid.
D)Meconium will be aspirated.
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Chapter 39: Croup Syndrome: Laryngotracheobronchitis and
Acute Epiglottitis
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Q1) Your patient has epiglottitis. This condition will affect which of the following:
1) Pharynx
2) Aryepiglottic folds
3) False vocal cords
4) Trachea
A)1, 2
B)2, 3
C)1, 2, 3
D)2, 3, 4
Q2) Most cases of LTB occur during which season(s) of the year?
1) Spring
2) Summer
3) Fall
4) Winter
A)1
B)4
C)3, 4
D)1, 2, 3
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Chapter 40: Near Drowning
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Q1) If a person should near drown in unclean, swampy water what are the possible pulmonary complications?
1) Pneumonia
2) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
3) Pulmonary fibrosis
4) Pulmonary hypertension
A)1
B)3, 4
C)1, 2
D)1, 2, 3
Q2) Warming techniques for a cold-water near drowning victim include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) cooling the extremities and warming the body.
B)warming the inspired oxygen.
C)heated intravenous solutions.
D)heated lavage of the pericardial space.
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Chapter 41: Smoke Inhalation and Thermal Injuries
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Q1) The long term effects of a smoke inhalation injury are:
A) obstructive lung disease.
B)restrictive lung disease.
C)obstructive and restrictive lung disease.
D)neither, there is normally complete healing.
Q2) Your patient has ARDS and is in acute ventilatory failure. As the respiratory therapist, what would you recommend be done?
A) Apply continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
B)Provide 100% oxygen
C)Begin mechanical ventilation with positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
D)Begin extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)
Q3) Clinical signs that a patient has a thermal injury to the upper airway include:
1) wheezing.
2) inspiratory stridor.
3) pulmonary edema.
4) painful swallowing.
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 42: Postoperative Atelectasis
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Q1) After open heart surgery, your patient has developed bronchitis with increased secretions and atelectasis. What respiratory therapy procedure(s) should initially be recommended?
1) Chest physical therapy
2) Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
3) Incentive spirometry
4) Inhaled sympathomimetic medication
A)3
B)2, 4
C)1, 3
D)1, 2, 4
Q2) Which of the following patients should be placed on short-term mechanical ventilation because of the high risk of postoperative atelectasis?
A) Appendectomy
B)Tracheostomy
C)Bronchoscopy for tumor biopsy
D)Cardiac surgery
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