Respiratory Care Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Respiratory Care is an essential healthcare course that introduces students to the principles and practices involved in caring for patients with respiratory and cardiopulmonary disorders. The course covers topics such as the anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system, assessment and monitoring techniques, airway management, therapeutic interventions, mechanical ventilation, and emergency procedures. Students will also gain practical skills through laboratory and clinical experiences, preparing them to work collaboratively as respiratory therapists within multidisciplinary healthcare teams to support patient breathing and improve respiratory function.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Manifestations and Assessment of Respiratory Disease 7th Edition by Terry Des Jardins
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44 Chapters
673 Verified Questions
673 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Patient Interview
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are the most important components of a successful interview?
A) Communication and understanding
B) Authority and the use of medical terminology
C) Providing assurance and giving advice
D) Asking leading questions and anticipating patient responses to questions
Answer: A
Q2) The respiratory therapist is conducting a patient interview and recording responses in the patient's electronic health record. The respiratory therapist should take which of the following into account regarding the use of the computer to record responses?
A) The therapist's attention may be shifted from the patient to the computer.
B) The patient will feel more important than if the information is recorded on paper.
C) The therapist will be less likely to make spelling errors if using a spell-check program.
D) The environment will be more professional and the patient will be more likely to open up if the interview is conducted with paper.
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: The Physical Examination and Its Basis in Physiology
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist is examining a patient in the medical ward and notes that the trachea is deviated to the left. All of the following may be causing the tracheal deviation to the left EXCEPT:
A) a right-sided tension pneumothorax.
B) a right-sided pleural effusion.
C) a tumor mass on the right.
D) atelectasis of the right upper lobe.
Answer: D
Q2) Coarse crackles are associated with:
1) inspiration typically.
2) air passing through an airway intermittently occluded by mucus.
3) bronchial asthma.
4) expiration typically.
A) 2, 4
B) 3, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Pulmonary Function Study Assessments
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Total lung capacity is composed of all of the following EXCEPT:
A) IRV.
B) IC.
C) ERV.
D) RV.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following forced vital capacity test times should be interpreted as normal?
A) Less than 4 seconds
B) 4 to 6 seconds
C) 6 to 8 seconds
D) 8 to 10 seconds
Answer: B
Q3) All of the following are true of the peak expiratory flow rate test EXCEPT it:
A) is effort dependent.
B) is taken from the FVC test results.
C) is taken from the MVV test results.
D) assesses large upper airways.
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Arterial Blood Gas Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cause of acute alveolar hyperventilation is:
A) hypoxemia.
B) metabolic alkalosis.
C) tachycardia.
D) supplemental oxygen administration.
Q2) Mechanical ventilation is indicated for which of the following ABG results?
A) pH 7.56; PaCO<sub>2</sub> 27; HCO<sub>3</sub> 23; PaO<sub>2</sub> 63
B) pH 7.23; PaCO<sub>2</sub> 63; HCO<sub>3</sub> 26; PaO<sub>2</sub> 52
C) pH 7.36; PaCO<sub>2</sub> 79; HCO<sub>3</sub> 43; PaO<sub>2</sub> 61
D) pH 7.52; PaCO<sub>2</sub> 51; HCO<sub>3</sub> 40; PaO<sub>2</sub> 46
Q3) A patient has had chronic ventilatory failure for several years. What is the primary factor that determines her breathing pattern?
A) Muscle efficiency
B) Ventilatory efficiency
C) Heart function
D) Work efficiency
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Chapter 5: Oxygenation Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person's C(a-v)O<sub>2</sub> increases in all of the following situations EXCEPT:
A) seizures.
B) peripheral shunting.
C) hyperthermia.
D) exercise.
Q2) A patient has been exposed to carbon monoxide during a house fire. An ABG result shows a normal PaO<sub>2</sub>. How should the patient's PaO<sub>2</sub> value be interpreted?
A) The PaO<sub>2</sub> is being falsely elevated by the carbon monoxide.
B) The PaO<sub>2</sub> is being falsely decreased by the carbon monoxide.
C) The PaO<sub>2</sub> is accurate.
D) The PaO<sub>2</sub> is a false measurement because the presence of carbon monoxide makes the analyzer unable to determine the PaO<sub>2</sub>.
Q3) A condition that will cause anemic hypoxia is:
A) cyanide poisoning.
B) decreased cardiac output or heart failure.
C) polycythemia.
D) carbon monoxide poisoning.
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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist is called to a patient's room as part of the rapid response team (RRT). The patient is unconscious and pulseless. The EKG monitor displays asystole. Which of the following actions would NOT be indicated at this time?
A) Call a code.
B) Begin CPR.
C) Defibrillate the patient.
D) Administer ACLS medications.
Q2) The T wave represents:
A) depolarization of the ventricles.
B) repolarization of the ventricles.
C) depolarization of the atria.
D) repolarization of the atria.
Q3) A central venous pressure (CVP) catheter is used to:
A) measure left atrial pressure.
B) measure left ventricular work.
C) monitor right ventricular function.
D) monitor left ventricular function.
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Chapter 7: Radiologic Examination of the Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist is called to evaluate a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolus. The respiratory therapist would MOST likely recommend which of the following diagnostic procedures to help determine if the patient has a pulmonary embolus?
A) CTPA
B) Fluoroscopy
C) PET scan
D) MRI scan
E) CT scan
Q2) For most chest x-ray studies, what is usually done?
A) There is a full exhalation.
B) There is a full inspiration.
C) Separate inspiratory and expiratory films are taken.
D) The patient is told to pant to provide a middle lung volume.
Q3) The heart shadow on a chest radiograph will show up larger than normal on a(n):
A) AP film.
B) PA film.
C) left lateral film.
D) computed tomography (CT) scan.
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9
Chapter 8: Other Important Tests and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a normal differential white blood cell (WBC) count, which of the following would have the highest number?
A) Neutrophils
B) Basophils
C) Eosinophils
D) Lymphocytes
Q2) A 14-year-old patient has had a serious asthma attack. Her white blood cell count can be expected to show:
A) decreased neutrophils.
B) decreased erythrocytes.
C) increased eosinophils.
D) increased monocytes.
Q3) Culture and sensitivity tests:
A) stain a microorganism as gram positive or gram negative.
B) determine the shape of the organisms present.
C) identify the DNA of organisms present in the sputum.
D) determine the antibiotic(s) best suited for combating an infection.
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Chapter 9: The Therapist-Driven Protocol Program and the
Role of the Respiratory Therapist
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following protocols would be indicated when a patient with increased alveolar-capillary membrane thickening has increased opacity on the chest radiograph, bronchial breath sounds, and a dull percussion note?
A) Aerosolized medication protocol
B) Lung expansion protocol
C) Oxygen therapy protocol
D) Bronchopulmonary hygiene protocol
Q2) When a patient has acute MI, which of the following protocols should the respiratory therapist initiate?
A) Hyperinflation therapy protocol
B) Oxygen therapy protocol
C) Bronchopulmonary hygiene therapy protocol
D) Aerosolized medication therapy protocol
Q3) Postural drainage, percussion, and vibration are part of what TDP?
A) Lung expansion protocol
B) Bronchopulmonary hygiene therapy protocol
C) Aerosolized medication therapy protocol
D) Oxygen therapy protocol
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Chapter 10: Respiratory Failure and the Mechanical
Ventilation Protocol
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What effect would a pulmonary embolism have on the VD/VT and the /Ó ratio?
A) The VD/VT would increase and the /Ó would decrease.
B) The VD/VT would decrease and the /Ó would increase.
C) The VD/VT and the /Ó ratios would both increase.
D) The VD/VT and the /Ó ratios would both decrease.
Q2) All of the following are contraindications for noninvasive ventilation (NIV) EXCEPT:
A) facial and head trauma.
B) community-acquired pneumonia.
C) copious, viscous sputum.
D) severe upper GI bleeding.
Q3) What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism in alveolar hypoventilation?
A) Decreased minute ventilation
B) Increased ventilation/perfusion ratio
C) Decreased venous admixture
D) Decreased inspired oxygen pressure
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Chapter 11: Recording Skills: The Basis for
Organization, Assessment Skill
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the respiratory therapist is entering a SOAPIER progress note in a patient's chart, the A stands for:
A) application of the data.
B) acceptance of the treatment options by the patient.
C) affect of the patient.
D) assessment of the data by the respiratory therapist.
Q2) When reviewing a SOAPIER progress note, the R stands for:
A) revisions made in the original plan.
B) reimbursement by the insurance carrier.
C) respiratory care notes.
D) resuscitation status of the patient.
Q3) In which section of the SOAPIER format should the patient's response to a specific treatment modality be recorded?
A) Assessment
B) Implementation
C) Observation
D) Evaluation
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD),
Chronic Bronchitis, and Emphysema
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to GOLD, at what age can the initial diagnosis of COPD be made?
A) 35 years
B) 40 years
C) 45 years
D) 50 years
Q2) The management of COPD may include: 1) annual influenza immunization.
2) bronchopulmonary hygiene procedures.
3) bronchodilators.
4) smoking cessation.
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) A genetically linked cause of panlobular emphysema is:
A) bronchiectasis.
B) a1-antitrypsin deficiency.
C) cystic fibrosis.
D) bronchial asthma.
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Chapter 13: Asthma
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are associated with extrinsic asthma?
1) Animal dander
2) Mold
3) Emotional stress
4) Male gender
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following would be expected when a chest assessment is performed on a patient during an asthmatic episode?
1) Inverse I:E ratio
2) Decreased vocal fremitus
3) Increased vesicular breath sounds
4) Hyperresonant percussion note
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 14: Bronchiectasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The preferred radiographic method to evaluate a patient's bronchiectasis is:
A) posterior-anterior radiograph (x-ray).
B) anterior-posterior radiograph (x-ray).
C) computed tomography (CT).
D) bronchogram.
Q2) A patient with long-standing bronchiectasis also has pneumonia. Which of the following hematology test results would be expected?
1) Decreased red blood cell (RBC) count
2) Decreased white blood cell (WBC) count
3) Elevated WBC count
4) Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 3, 4
Q3) In developed countries, the most common cause of acquired bronchiectasis is:
A) emphysema.
B) lung abscess.
C) cystic fibrosis.
D) pulmonary fibrosis.
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Chapter 15: Cystic Fibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are commonly used in the management of cystic fibrosis?
1) Pancreatic enzymes and vitamins
2) Antibiotics
3) Postural drainage
4) Expectorants
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) All of the following chest assessment findings may be seen in a patient with cystic fibrosis EXCEPT:
A) decreased tactile and vocal fremitus.
B) dull percussion note.
C) diminished breath sounds.
D) decreased heart sounds.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT recommended in children with cystic fibrosis?
A) Systemic corticosteroids
B) High-dose ibuprofen
C) Inhaled antibiotics
D) Inhaled DNase (Dornase alpha) (Pulmozyme)
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Chapter 16: Pneumonia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can cause pneumonia?
1) Bacteria
2) Viruses
3) Prions
4) Fungi
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Ventilator-acquired pneumonia (VAP) is defined as pneumonia that develops:
A) between 24 and 48 hours after endotracheal intubation.
B) more than 48 to 72 hours after endotracheal intubation.
C) less than 24 hours after mechanical ventilation is started.
D) more than 48 to 72 hours after mechanical ventilation is started.
Q3) Physical assessment findings on a patient with pneumonia would include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) bradycardia.
B) whispered pectoriloquy.
C) dull percussion note.
D) increased vocal fremitus.
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Chapter 17: Lung Abscess
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can occur when tissue necrosis occurs in a lung abscess?
1) Fluid can rupture into a bronchus.
2) Broncholithiasis can occur.
3) Bronchospasm can close off the affected bronchi.
4) Fluid can rupture into the intrapleural space.
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 4
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Q2) Following a cerebrovascular accident, a patient lying in the supine position aspirated gastric contents. In what area(s) of the lungs would a lung abscess be most likely to develop?
1) Posterior segments of the upper lobes
2) Apical segments of the upper lobes
3) Superior segments of the lower lobes
4) Anterior segments of both lower lobes
A) 1
B) 1, 3
C) 1, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Tuberculosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with an advanced case of TB may have which of the following radiologic findings?
1) Bronchial tumors
2) Hyperlucent lung fields
3) Retraction of lung segments
4) Right-sided heart enlargement
A) 2
B) 2, 3
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 3, 4
Q2) When a person has TB spread throughout the body, it is found in all of the following EXCEPT:
A) upper lobes.
B) kidneys.
C) brain.
D) lower lobes.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Fungal Diseases of the Lung
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fungal diseases cause which type of pulmonary disorder?
A) An acute restrictive disorder
B) A chronic restrictive disorder
C) An acute obstructive disorder
D) A chronic obstructive disorder
Q2) Which type of fungal lung infection frequently results in productive cough with purulent sputum?
A) Staphylococcal infection
B) Blastomycosis
C) Klebsiella infection
D) Histoplasmosis
Q3) Fungal infection of the lungs is closest in similarity to:
A) pleural disease.
B) interstitial lung disease.
C) tuberculosis.
D) bronchiectasis.
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Chapter 20: Pulmonary Edema
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist is asked to recommend a medication to reduce afterload for a patient with cardiogenic pulmonary edema. The therapist could recommend all of the following EXCEPT:
A) captopril.
B) norepinephrine (Levophed).
C) enalapril (Vasotec).
D) nitroprusside (Nitropress).
Q2) Pulmonary edema manifests itself clinically as a(n) _____ disorder.
A) restrictive pulmonary
B) obstructive pulmonary
C) equally restrictive and obstructive
D) obstructive cardiac
Q3) A patient with cardiogenic pulmonary edema would be expected to have all of the following chest radiograph findings EXCEPT:
A) depressed diaphragms.
B) pleural effusion.
C) cardiomegaly.
D) bilateral "butterfly" pattern fluffy infiltrates.
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22
Chapter 21: Pulmonary Vascular Disease: Pulmonary
Embolism and Pulmonary Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following fibrinolytic agents are used to treat a pulmonary embolism?
1) Urokinase
2) Vitamin K
3) Heparin
4) Streptokinase
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) A patient's D-dimer blood test results show a value of 250 ng/mL. How should these results be interpreted?
A) The patient does not have a pulmonary embolism.
B) The patient's anticoagulant level is acceptable.
C) The patient has a pulmonary embolism.
D) The patient has a deep vein thrombosis.
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Chapter 22: Flail Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding paradoxical chest movement?
A) With inspiration, the flail section moves outward.
B) The trachea deviates away from the flail side of the chest.
C) During inspiration, the flail section moves inward.
D) During exhalation, the flail area moves inward.
Q2) What is the primary cause of hypoxemia in a patient with a severe flail chest?
A) Myocardial contusion
B) Hemorrhage
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Alveolar atelectasis
Q3) Which breath sounds would be expected to be heard when auscultating the chest of a patient with a flail chest?
A) Diminished over the flail chest section only
B) Diminished over both lungs
C) Crackles over the flail chest section
D) Bilateral wheezing
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Chapter 23: Pneumothorax
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Sample Questions
Q1) After a patient experienced four pneumothoraces of her right lung over a 24-month period, the physician recommended a procedure to reduce the occurrence of future pneumothoraces. Which procedure would the physician have recommended?
A) Pleurodesis
B) Right pneumonectomy
C) Permanent right-sided thoracostomy tube
D) Right upper lobectomy
Q2) According to the way gas enters the pleural space, a pneumothorax will be classified as:
1) intrinsic.
2) extrinsic.
3) open.
4) closed.
A) 2, 3
B) 1, 4
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 2
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Chapter 24: Pleural Effusion and Empyema
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percentage of patients with bacterial pneumonia are likely to develop pleural effusion?
A) Up to 10%
B) Up to 20%
C) Up to 30%
D) Up to 40%
Q2) The anatomic alteration caused by a pleural effusion is:
A) pulmonary fibrosis.
B) separation of the visceral and parietal pleura.
C) adhesion of the visceral and parietal pleura.
D) pulmonary edema.
Q3) What is the most common cause of a chylothorax?
A) Thoracic duct trauma
B) Abdominal tumor
C) GERD
D) Pyloric stenosis
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Chapter 25: Kyphoscoliosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which age group is most likely to develop idiopathic scoliosis?
A) Infants
B) Juveniles
C) Adolescents
D) Adults
Q2) The Charleston bending brace is preferred over other braces because it:
1) is worn only 23 hours a day.
2) is worn for 8 to 10 hours at night.
3) is worn at night, when human growth hormone level is highest.
4) corrects any associated upper airway obstruction.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
Q3) In which of the following is bracing the primary form of treatment?
A) Adolescents with idiopathic scoliosis (AIS)
B) Patients with congenital scoliosis
C) Patients with neuromuscular scoliosis
D) Infants with idiopathic scoliosis
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Chapter 26: Interstitial Lung Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cryptogenic organizing pneumonia (COP) is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
A) COPD.
B) connective tissue disease.
C) infection.
D) toxic gas inhalation.
Q2) All of the following are interstitial lung diseases EXCEPT:
A) asbestosis.
B) sarcoidosis.
C) Staphylococcus.
D) silicosis.
Q3) Chest assessment findings in a patient with ILD would include:
1) pleural friction rub.
2) increased vocal fremitus.
3) vesicular breath sounds.
4) hyperresonant percussion note.
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 27: Cancer of the Lung
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is (are) small cell lung cancer(s)?
1) Undifferentiated carcinoma
2) Squamous carcinoma
3) Adenocarcinoma
4) Oat cell carcinoma
A) 4
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Q2) Which of the following is the most common form of lung cancer among those who have never smoked cigarettes or other tobacco products?
A) Squamous cell carcinoma
B) Adenocarcinoma
C) Large cell carcinoma
D) Small cell carcinoma
Q3) Which form of lung cancer has the poorest prognosis?
A) Large cell carcinoma
B) Adenocarcinoma
C) Small cell carcinoma
D) Squamous cell carcinoma
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Chapter 28: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following would be low-tidal volume ventilation goals in a patient with ARDS, EXCEPT:
A) decrease barotrauma.
B) maintain plateau pressure >30 cm H<sub>2</sub>O.
C) decrease high transpulmonary pressures.
D) reduce overdistention of the lungs.
Q2) ARDS can result from the inhalation of all of the following EXCEPT:
A) FIO<sub>2</sub> >0.60 for prolonged exposure.
B) nitrogen dioxide.
C) very dry air.
D) chlorine gas.
Q3) What initial tidal volume setting on the ventilator would be recommended for a 70-kg adult male with ARDS?
A) 350 mL
B) 420 mL
C) 560 mL
D) 700 mL
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Chapter 29: Guillain-Barré Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major pathologic or structural changes of the lungs associated with ventilator failure accompanying Guillain-Barré syndrome include:
1) alveolar consolidation.
2) airway distortion and dilation.
3) mucosal edema.
4) atelectasis.
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) In which of the following persons would Guillain-Barré syndrome most likely occur?
A) African-American female-22 years of age
B) Hispanic male-31 years of age
C) Asian female-17 years of age
D) Caucasian male-53 years of age
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Chapter 30: Myasthenia Gravis
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Q1) What clinical change would be expected following a rest period for a patient with myasthenia gravis?
A) There is no clinical change.
B) Strength decreases.
C) Muscle strength improves.
D) Ascending paralysis descends.
Q2) A 50-kg (110-lb) 30-year-old female patient has myasthenia gravis. Bedside spirometry has found her VC to be 700 mL and NIF -14 cm H<sub>2</sub>O. Vital signs show a respiratory rate of 38 breaths/min, a heart rate of 140/minute, and blood pressure of 130/90 mm Hg. What should the respiratory therapist recommend?
A) Check the vital signs every hour.
B) Encourage DB&C per protocol.
C) Administer supplemental oxygen per protocol.
D) Initiate mechanical ventilation per protocol.
Q3) What test is usually performed to confirm the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis?
A) RNS
B) PFT
C) CBC
D) EEG
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Sleep Apnea
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Q1) The respiratory therapist is evaluating a patient for risk of obstructive sleep apnea. All of the following are risk factors for obstructive sleep apnea EXCEPT:
A) excess weight.
B) neck size.
C) hypertension.
D) hypoglycemia.
E) chronic nasal congestion.
Q2) Clinical disorders associated with central sleep apnea include: 1) Pickwickian syndrome.
2) depression.
3) encephalitis.
4) brain stem infarction.
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 2, 3, 4
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33
Chapter 32: Clinical Manifestations Common with Newborn and
Early Childhood Respiratory Dis
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Q1) Late clinical manifestations of an infant with respiratory distress include:
1) elevated diaphragm.
2) decreased respiratory rate.
3) CO<sub>2</sub> retention.
4) lethargy.
A) 2, 3
B) 1, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) A premature infant is found to be "bobbing" her head. This is important because it can be a sign of which of the following?
A) Hypoxemia
B) Renal failure
C) Intracranial hemorrhage
D) Respiratory distress
E) Septic shock
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Chapter 33: Meconium Aspiration Syndrome
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Q1) About how many neonatal patients with MAS will require mechanical ventilation?
A) 50%
B) 30%
C) 10% to 15%
D) 4%
Q2) The major pathologic or structural changes associated with the physical presence of meconium in MAS include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) partially obstructed airways, air trapping, and alveolar hyperinflation.
B) pulmonary air leak syndromes (pneumomediastinum or pneumothorax).
C) totally obstructed airways and absorption atelectasis.
D) pulmonary edema and alveolar flooding.
Q3) What is the consequence of meconium aspiration if there is a "ball-valve" effect in the small airways?
A) Air trapping on exhalation
B) Apnea of prematurity
C) Air trapping on inhalation
D) Bronchiectasis
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Chapter 34: Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn
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Q1) On a chest radiograph, starbursts are indicative of:
A) bacterial pneumonia.
B) carinal carcinoma.
C) pulmonary vascular congestion.
D) foreign body aspiration.
Q2) An infant with a mild case of TTN will show which of the following arterial blood gas value(s)?
1) Increased pH
2) Decreased pH
3) Low PaO<sub>2</sub>
4) Low PaCO<sub>2</sub>
A) 4
B) 3, 4
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
Q3) How soon will TTN begin to resolve after birth?
A) 4 to 6 hours after birth
B) 12 to 24 hours after birth
C) 48 to 72 hours after birth
D) 72 to 96 hours after birth
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) What special environmental concerns are there with a neonate with RDS in order to avoid compromising his or her oxygenation?
A) Keeping a normal body temperature
B) Placing a bilirubin light on the neonate
C) Keeping the infant cool
D) Humidifying the inhaled oxygen
Q2) The standard of care to evaluate the oxygenation status of a premature infant with RDS is by:
A) capillary blood gas (CBG).
B) arterial blood gas (ABG).
C) capnography.
D) pulse oximetry.
E) transcutaneous monitoring.
Q3) It is likely that a neonate with RDS will have which of the following chest radiograph findings?
A) Airway dilation and distortion
B) Fluffy infiltrates in the bases of the lungs
C) Ground-glass appearance
D) Cardiomegaly
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Chapter 36: Pulmonary Air Leak Syndromes
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Q1) Which of the following conditions is described as dissection of gas into the fascial planes of the skin and neck?
A) ASIHD
B) Intravascular air embolism
C) PIE
D) Subcutaneous emphysema
Q2) What clinical manifestations are associated with the more negative intrapleural pressures generated during inspiration by a patient with pulmonary air leak syndrome?
1) Cyanosis of dependent thorax and abdomen
2) Intercostal and substernal retractions
3) Flaring nostrils
4) Inspiratory stridor
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 37: Respiratory Syncytial Virus (Bronchiolitis or Pneumonitis)
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Q1) A chest radiograph was taken of a patient with RSV. What finding can be expected?
A) Elevated diaphragms
B) "Steeple point" sign
C) Lobar atelectasis
D) Pneumothorax
Q2) Several small children who attend the same day care facility have become sick with RSV. The owner of the day care can expect them to recover within:
A) 4 to 6 days.
B) 3 to 8 days.
C) 1 to 2 weeks.
D) greater than 3 weeks.
Q3) Anatomic alterations related to an RSV infection can lead to all of the following EXCEPT:
A) pneumomediastinum.
B) partial airway obstruction.
C) decreased airway lumen.
D) complete airway obstruction.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient has an advanced stage of BPD, what cardiac problem may be identified on the chest radiograph?
A) Pneumomediastinum
B) Cardiac tamponade
C) Change in point of maximum impulse
D) Cor pulmonale
Q2) What changes result when stress fractures of the capillary endothelium and basement membranes develop during mechanical ventilation?
A) Fluid leakage into alveolar spaces
B) Bronchospasm
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) TTN
Q3) All of the following ventilator parameters have been linked to the development of BPD EXCEPT:
A) high peak inspiratory pressure.
B) ventilatory rate of 40 breaths/min.
C) tidal volumes <5 mL/kg.
D) high mean airway pressure.
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Chapter 39: Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
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Q1) Which of the following auscultation findings would be associated with a CDH?
1) Bilateral bruits
2) Apical heartbeat heard over the unaffected side
3) Absent breath sounds over the affected area
4) Bowel sounds over the affected area
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) All of the following anatomic alterations may be found in a patient with a congenital diaphragmatic hernia EXCEPT:
A) lungs are compressed.
B) atelectasis.
C) hyperinflation.
D) complete lung collapse.
Q3) What pulmonary change is associated with a Bochdalek hernia?
A) Pulmonary hypoplasia
B) Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Meconium aspiration
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Chapter 40: Congenital Heart Diseases
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Q1) Which cardiac anomaly is associated with coeur-en-sabot on a chest radiograph?
A) TOF
B) ASD
C) VSD
D) PDA
Q2) Which of the following is used to confirm the diagnosis of ASD?
A) Electromyogram
B) Electrocardiogram
C) Echocardiogram
D) Electrophoresis
Q3) What is the most common type of VSD?
A) Inlet ventricular septal defect
B) Perimembranous ventricular septal defect
C) Muscular ventricular septal defect
D) Conoventricular ventricular septal defect
Q4) What is the most common cyanotic congenital cardiac defect in neonates?
A) ASD
B) VSD
C) TGA
D) TOF
Page 42
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Chapter 41: Croup Syndrome: Laryngotracheobronchitis and
Acute Epiglottitis
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Q1) Most cases of LTB occur during which season(s) of the year?
1) Spring
2) Summer
3) Fall
4) Winter
A) 1
B) 4
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Q2) When a patient has laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB), which of the following is the primary anatomic alteration that is found?
A) Edema of the mucous membranes
B) Airway smooth muscle contraction
C) Excessive alveolar fluid
D) Epiglottitis
Q3) Management of LTB usually includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A) close observation for breathing difficulties.
B) having the child drink fluids.
C) placement into a cool aerosol tent.
D) endotracheal intubation.
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Chapter 42: Near Drowning/Wet Drowning
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Q1) After an extended time underwater, a near-drowning victim will most likely have:
A) tachypnea.
B) a normal respiratory rate.
C) bradypnea.
D) apnea.
Q2) The initial chest radiograph appearance of a near-drowning victim may include:
1) normal lung fields.
2) atelectasis.
3) pulmonary edema.
4) pencil point sign.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) What water temperature has been shown to be a favorable prognostic factor in near drowning?
A) Higher than 104° F
B) Between 98.6° F and 104° F
C) Between 70° F and 98° F
D) Between 27° F and 70° F
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Chapter 43: Smoke Inhalation, Thermal Injuries, and Carbon
Monoxide Intoxication
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Q1) Which of the following radiographic findings would be associated with the intermediate stage of recovery from a serious smoke inhalation injury?
A) Pulmonary edema/ARDS
B) Patchy or segmental infiltrates
C) Empyema
D) Normal/full recovery
Q2) According to the Parkland Formula, what is the recommended volume of fluid that should be infused over a 24-hour period for each percent of body surface burned?
A) 1 mL/kg of body weight
B) 4 mL/kg of body weight
C) 6 mL/kg of body weight
D) 10 mL/kg of body weight
Q3) The long-term effects of a smoke inhalation injury are:
A) obstructive lung disorders.
B) restrictive lung disorders.
C) obstructive and restrictive lung disorders.
D) neither obstructive nor restrictive lung disorders, since there is normally complete recovery.
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Chapter 44: Atelectasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) After open heart surgery, a patient has developed bronchitis with increased secretions and atelectasis. What respiratory therapy procedure(s) should initially be recommended?
1) Chest physical therapy
2) Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
3) Incentive spirometry
4) Inhaled sympathomimetic medication
A) 3
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 3
D) 1, 2, 4
Q2) Common chest assessment findings in a patient with atelectasis include:
1) increased tactile fremitus.
2) dull percussion note.
3) crackles.
4) bronchial breath sounds.
A) 4
B) 1, 2
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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