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Respiratory Care Pharmacology provides an in-depth exploration of medications commonly used in the treatment and management of respiratory diseases and disorders. The course covers the pharmacological principles related to respiratory care, including drug classifications, modes of action, dosage calculations, indications, contraindications, side effects, and delivery methods specific to aerosolized medications and other respiratory therapeutics. Students will learn to evaluate patient responses to drug therapy, understand the role of the respiratory therapist in medication administration, and develop critical thinking skills necessary for safe and effective pharmacologic interventions in clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Raus Respiratory Care Pharmacology 9th Edition by Douglas S. Gardenhire
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23 Chapters
730 Verified Questions
730 Flashcards
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32 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38820
Sample Questions
Q1) The brand name given to a drug by a particular manufacturer is known as the drug's A)chemical name.
B)generic name.
C)official name.
D)trade name.
Answer: D
Q2) The study of the interrelationship of genetic differences and drug effects is known as A)toxicity.
B)pharmacy.
C)pharmacognosy.
D)pharmacogenetics.
Answer: D
Q3) An orphan drug is a drug that is A)used for rare disease.
B)used for common disease.
C)inexpensive to produce.
D)not claimed by a drug manufacturer.
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inhaled aerosols may have which types of intended effects on the body?
1)Enteral
2)Local
3)Systemic
4)Oral
A)1 and 3 only
B)2 and 4 only
C)2 and 3 only
D)1,2,3,and 4
Answer: C
Q2) During which phase of drug action is a drug made available to the body?
A)Administration
B)Pharmacokinetic
C)Pharmacodynamic
D)Pharmacogenetic
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Advantages of using portable ultrasonic drug nebulizers include that they
A)require an electrical source.
B)are inexpensive.
C)are very durable.
D)are small in size.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following statements is true concerning the recommended volume of solution when delivering an aerosol treatment via a small volume nebulizer?
1)A volume between 3 mL and 5 mL of solution is recommended.
2)Increasing the volume results in a decrease in the concentration of drug remaining in the dead volume when nebulization ceases.
3)Patient compliance of therapy is directly proportional to its convenience.
4)Increasing the volume of solution results in a net increase in the amount of active drug in the nebulizer.
A)1 and 2 only
B)2 and 3 only
C)1,2,and 3 only
D)1,2,3,and 4
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many cubic centimeters do you need for a 2.5-mg dose of Drug A,using a 0.1% solution?
A)2.5
B)25
C)0.25
D)0.025
Q2) Which of the following Latin prefixes means 1/10?
A)Micro
B)Milli
C)Centi
D)Deci
Q3) A physician orders 3 mL of an 8% drug solution.You have only a 10% solution available.How many milliliters of 10% solution do you need to make the new 8% solution?
A)0.24 mL
B)2.6 mL
C)24 mL
D)12.4 mL
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) M2 receptors are present on which of the following?
A)Heart,postganglionic parasympathetic nerves
B)Parasympathetic ganglia,nasal submucosal glands
C)Airway smooth muscle,submucosal glands
D)Postganglionic cholinergic nerves,possible effect on CNS
Q2) Your patient has bradycardia.Which type of drug do you recommend?
A)Sympatholytic
B)Sympathomimetic
C)Parasympathomimetic
D)Both A and C
Q3) Agents blocking or inhibiting the effect of the sympathetic nervous system are A)anticholinergic.
B)adrenergic.
C)parasympatholytic.
D)sympatholytic.
Q4) An indirect-acting cholinergic agent used in the Tensilon test is A)edrophonium.
B)methacholine.
C)neostigmine.
D)phospholine.
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You enter the room of a 2-year-old patient who presents with a "barking cough" typically associated with croup.Once the diagnosis is confirmed,which of the following medications could you recommend to help provide relief from subglottic swelling?
A)Albuterol
B)Levalbuterol
C)Racemic epinephrine
D)Salmeterol
Q2) Your patient is receiving her third continuous nebulizer of albuterol (15 mg/hr).Which potential complications should you be on the lookout for?
1)Hypokalemia
2)Cardiac arrhythmias
3)Hyperglycemia
4)Premature ventricular contractions
5)Tremor
A)2 and 4 only
B)1,2,and 5 only
C)1,2,4,and 5 only
D)1,2,3,4,and 5
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cholinergic stimulation produces which of the following effects?
1)Bronchoconstriction
2)Increased mucus secretion
3)Miosis
4)Decreased heart rate
5)Salivation
A)4 only
B)1,3,and 5 only
C)2,3,and 4 only
D)1,2,3,4,and 5
Q2) Cardiac effects of aerosolized ipratropium bromide include which of the following?
A)Increased heart rate
B)Increased blood pressure
C)Increased heart muscle contractility
D)Little or no effect
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following physiologic effects is not produced by xanthines?
A)Cerebral vasodilation
B)Cardiac muscle stimulation
C)Bronchial smooth muscle relaxation
D)Central nervous system (CNS)stimulation
Q2) Theophylline should be used to treat A)acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
B)pneumonia.
C)apnea of prematurity.
D)cystic fibrosis (CF).
Q3) An increase in blood theophylline levels can be caused by A)renal failure.
B)intravenous isoproterenol.
C) agonists.
D)cigarette smoking.
Q4) Dosage of theophylline is best monitored by A)clinical reaction of the patient.
B)measuring urine drug levels.
C)monitoring for adverse drug effects.
D)measurement of serum drug levels.

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Sample Questions
Q1) The standard dose of dornase alfa for aerosolization is
A)1.0 mg in 2.5 mL of diluent.
B)2.5 mg in 2.5 mL of diluent.
C)5.0 mg in 2.5 mL of diluent.
D)10.0 mg in 2.5 mL of diluent.
Q2) When should mucoactive therapy be considered?
A)Before inhaled corticosteroids are administered
B)When an active upper respiratory infection is causing bronchospasm
C)After therapy to decrease infection and inflammation
D)Only during mechanical ventilation of a patient with COPD
Q3) Medications that increase mucociliary or cough efficiency are
A)mucokinetics.
B)mucolytics.
C)mucoregulatory agents.
D)expectorants.
Q4) _____________ has not been tested and approved for use with dornase alfa.
A)PARI LC PLUS
B)Misty-Neb
C)Hudson RCI UP-DRAFT II OPTI-NEB
D)Acorn II
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are assessing a 36-week gestational age newborn immediately after birth.The newborn weighs 2200g.On assessment,you find the newborn has good color,no retractions,no nasal flaring,respiratory rate of 25 breaths/min,heart rate of 110 beats/min,and pulse oximetry of 96% on room air.Which of the following would you choose?
A)Calfactant
B)Albuterol
C)Beractant
D)No indication for drug therapy at this time
Q2) Which of the following are currently used methods for delivering surfactant into infants?
1)Instillation through side-port adapter
2)Instillation through catheter
3)Nebulization
4)Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)
A)1 and 2 only
B)1 and 3 only
C)1,2,and 3 only
D)1,2,3,and 4
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major cells responsible for an inflammatory response in asthma are
A)macrophages and mast cells.
B)mast cells and eosinophils.
C)T lymphocytes and macrophages.
D)basophils and SRS-A.
Q2) Your patient tells you that she is having chest tightness and wheezing four to six times per week,plus she wakes up with chest tightness and wheezing about once per week.She uses albuterol each time,with relief.She is taking no other medication except her albuterol MDI.What other medication would you suggest be prescribed to her?
A)Levalbuterol MDI
B)Salmeterol MDI
C)Beclomethasone MDI
D)Oral tobramycin
Q3) Corticosteroids normally produced by the body are known as A)endogenous.
B)exogenous.
C)extrinsic.
D)intrinsic.
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Q1) Cromolyn sodium is available in what form?
A)Nebulizer solution
B)Tablet
C)MDI
D)Nasal spray
Q2) Which of the following are antileukotriene agents?
1)Zafirlukast
2)Zileuton
3)Cromolyn sodium
4)Montelukast
A)1,2,and 4 only
B)3 and 4 only
C)1,2,and 3 only
D)2,3,and 4 only
Q3) Which type of asthma is associated with allergic reactions?
A)Chronic
B)Intrinsic
C)Acute
D)Extrinsic
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Sample Questions
Q1) On what principle does the small particle aerosol generator (SPAG)unit operate?
A)Venturi
B)Hydrodynamic
C)Jet shearing
D)Ultrasonic
Q2) An 8-year-old patient is brought to the pediatrician's office with the complaint of uncomplicated flulike symptoms for 1 day.The pediatrician asks you to suggest an inhaled antiinfective.Which medication is the most appropriate at this time?
A)Aztreonam
B)Zanamivir
C)Ribavirin
D)Tobramycin
Q3) Relenza is
A)a bronchodilator.
B)an antiviral agent.
C)a corticosteroid.
D)a prophylactic agent.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A drug that inhibits the growth of bacteria is called A)bacteriostatic.
B)bactericidal.
C)virucidal.
D)fungicidal.
Q2) The treatment of choice for pulmonary infections such as aspergillosis,histoplasmosis,and coccidioidomycosis is A)rifampin.
B)ciprofloxacin.
C)ampicillin.
D)amphotericin B.
Q3) Isoniazid is indicated to treat A)pneumonia.
B)cystic fibrosis.
C)tuberculosis (TB).
D)asthma.
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____________ is a defense mechanism to protect the upper airway from irritants.
A)Sneezing
B)Coughing
C)Vomiting
D)Bronchospasm
Q2) Using over-the-counter (OTC)compounds to treat the common cold presents the risk of
A)overuse and abuse.
B)inability to sleep.
C)anxiety attacks.
D)hair loss.
Q3) An important mediator of local inflammatory responses is A)histamine.
B)epinephrine.
C)acetylcholine.
D)Tylenol.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Physical symptoms of nicotine withdrawal include which of the following?
1)Irritability
2)Weight gain
3)Craving for nicotine
4)Anxiety
5)Sleep disturbances
A)3 only
B)1,2,and 4 only
C)2,3,and 5 only
D)1,2,3,4,and 5
Q2) The recommended dose of nitric oxide (NO)is
A)20 ppm.
B)30 ppm.
C)40 ppm.
D)60 ppm.
Q3) Nicotine replacement agents are indicated to
A)simulate the act of smoking.
B)relieve nicotine withdrawal symptoms.
C)punish negative behaviors.
D)produce strong adverse effects of smoking.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is considered a premature neonate if he or she is
A)less than 37 weeks of gestational age.
B)in the first month of postnatal life.
C)12 to 18 years.
D)1 to 12 months.
E) 1 to 12 years.
Q2) A patient is considered a child if he or she is
A)less than 37 weeks of gestational age.
B)in the first month of postnatal life.
C)12 to 18 years.
D)1 to 12 months.
E) 1 to 12 years.
Q3) A patient is considered an infant if he or she is
A)less than 37 weeks of gestational age.
B)in the first month of postnatal life.
C)12 to 18 years.
D)1 to 12 months.
E) 1 to 12 years.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A technique used for monitoring blockade that evaluates the conduction of an impulse across the neuromuscular junction using supramaximal stimulus at a frequency of 2 Hz over 2 seconds is referred to as A)TOF.
B)2 by 2 measuring.
C)negative inspiratory force.
D)hand-grip strength.
Q2) Agents that paralyze skeletal muscle by simple competitive inhibition of acetylcholine at muscle receptor sites are called A)nondepolarizing.
B)depolarizing.
C)antagonizing.
D)repolarizing.
Q3) Succinylcholine is metabolized to A)cholinesterase inhibitors. B)succinylmonocholine.
C)laudanosine.
D)pseudocholinesterase.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diuretic combinations may be used in an attempt to obtain a(n)_______________effect in patients not responding to one agent.
A)synergistic
B)complementary
C)potency
D)ototoxic
Q2) Your patient has cerebral edema.Which group of diuretic agents would you expect to be administered?
A)Loop
B)Osmotic
C)Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
D)Thiazide
Q3) Which diuretics have been associated with hyperglycemia?
A)Loop and osmotic
B)Osmotic and thiazide
C)Thiazide and loop
D)Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors and loop
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the brain,the control area for autonomic functions such as breathing is located in the A)cortex.
B)midbrain.
C)medulla.
D)reticular activating system.
Q2) Xanax,Valium,Versed,and Ativan are examples of A)barbiturates.
B)opioids.
C)benzodiazepines.
D)antidepressants.
Q3) Patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)means
A)patients can have as much opioid as they want.
B)patients inform the nurse when they need pain control.
C)patients self-administer a predetermined dose of opioid at set intervals.
D)patients are taught to meditate to reduce pain.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lidocaine is used to treat
A)ventricular arrhythmias.
B)atrial arrhythmias.
C)atrioventricular node delays.
D)supraventricular tachycardia.
Q2) How does digoxin exert an inotropic effect on the myocardium?
A)By reversibly inhibiting the Na<sup>+</sup>/K<sup>+</sup>-ATPase pump
B)By stimulating the vagus nerve
C)By increasing extracellular sodium concentrations
D)By pumping calcium out of the cell
Q3) Your patient is a 67-year-old homeless man with malnutrition.Laboratory test results show that he has hypomagnesemia.What arrhythmia should you monitor for until a dose of magnesium sulfate can be administered?
A)Ventricular fibrillation
B)Atrial fibrillation
C)Torsades de pointes
D)Asystole
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The classes of diuretics include which of the following?
1)Loops
2)Potassium-sparing
3)Osmotics
4)Thiazides
5)Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
A)1 and 4 only
B)2,3,and 5 only
C)1,2,4,and 5 only
D)1,2,3,4,and 5
Q2) Side effects of centrally acting adrenergic agents include 1)dry mouth.
2)constipation.
3)urinary retention.
4)blurred vision.
5)central nervous system side effects.
A)5 only
B)1,3,and 5 only
C)1,2,4,and 5 only
D)1,2,3,4,and 5

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Sample Questions
Q1) Melatonin is secreted
A)exclusively during the subjective night.
B)exclusively during the subjective day.
C)during day and night.
D)continuously.
Q2) Lunesta is the trade name for
A)estazolam.
B)temazepam.
C)triazolam.
D)eszopiclone.
Q3) Your patient is experiencing worsening of symptoms associated with restless legs syndrome (RLS).Which medications could be causing this?
A)Albuterol
B)Valium
C)Ranitidine
D)Zolpidem
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