Respiratory Care
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Respiratory Care is a comprehensive course that covers the principles and practices of caring for patients with respiratory disorders. The course explores respiratory anatomy and physiology, common respiratory diseases, assessment techniques, diagnostic procedures, and therapeutic interventions such as oxygen therapy, airway management, and mechanical ventilation. Students learn to operate respiratory care equipment, interpret clinical data, and implement evidence-based treatment plans under the supervision of licensed respiratory therapists and physicians. Emphasis is placed on patient safety, ethical considerations, and interdisciplinary teamwork to improve patient outcomes in a variety of healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Manifestations and Assessment of Respiratory Disease 7th Edition by Terry Des Jardins
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673 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Patient Interview
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the interview the patient states, "Every time I climb the stairs I have to stop to catch my breath." Hearing this, the respiratory therapist replies, "So, it sounds like you get short of breath climbing stairs." This interviewing technique is called:
A) clarification.
B) modeling.
C) empathy.
D) reflection.
Answer: D
Q2) The respiratory therapist should be aware of a patient's culture and religious beliefs for which of the following reasons?
A) To be able to engage in a meaningful conversation
B) To change any misguided notions the patient has that may impact his or her health
C) To explain to the patient how these beliefs will lead to discrimination and stereotyping
D) To better understand how the patient's beliefs may impact how the patient thinks and behaves
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: The Physical Examination and Its Basis in Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist is performing palpation on a patient recently admitted to the medical ward. The therapist notes decreased tactile fremitus over the right lung. Which of the following could MOST likely be the cause for this physical exam finding?
A) Right-sided atelectasis
B) Right-sided pneumothorax
C) Right-sided pleural effusion
D) Right-sided pleural tumor
Answer: A
Q2) The respiratory therapist is examining a patient in the medical ward and notes that the trachea is deviated to the left. All of the following may be causing the tracheal deviation to the left EXCEPT:
A) a right-sided tension pneumothorax.
B) a right-sided pleural effusion.
C) a tumor mass on the right.
D) atelectasis of the right upper lobe.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Pulmonary Function Study Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pulmonary diffusion capacity of the carbon monoxide test is used to:
A) assess the patient's blood carbon monoxide level.
B) remove carbon monoxide from the patient's blood.
C) measure the residual volume.
D) assess the alveolar-capillary membrane.
Answer: D
Q2) All of the following are true of the peak expiratory flow rate test EXCEPT it:
A) is effort dependent.
B) is taken from the FVC test results.
C) is taken from the MVV test results.
D) assesses large upper airways.
Answer: C
Q3) A special indirect measurement procedure must be done to find which of the following?
A) Inspiratory reserve volume
B) Residual volume
C) Expiratory reserve volume
D) Inspiratory capacity
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Arterial Blood Gas Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common causes of metabolic acidosis include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) diabetic ketoacidosis.
B) shallow breathing from a sedative overdose.
C) lactic acidosis.
D) renal (kidney) failure.
Q2) Which of the following would be a normal person's venous oxygen pressure (PaO<sub>2</sub>)?
A) 35 to 45 mm Hg
B) 45 to 80 mm Hg
C) 80 to 100 mm Hg
D) 100 to 120 mm Hg
Q3) Which of the following would be a normal person's arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO<sub>2</sub>)?
A) 25 to 35 mm Hg
B) 35 to 45 mm Hg
C) 45 to 60 mm Hg
D) 60 to 80 mm Hg
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6
Chapter 5: Oxygenation Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Polycythemia is:
1) a condition of too many red blood cells.
2) a condition of too few red blood cells.
3) caused by lack of iron in the diet.
4) the body's response to chronic hypoxemia.
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 4
D) 2, 4
Q2) A condition that will cause hypoxic hypoxia is:
A) cyanosis.
B) decreased cardiac output or heart failure.
C) hypoventilation from an overdose of a sedative medication.
D) carbon monoxide poisoning.
Q3) A person's C(a-v)O<sub>2</sub> increases in all of the following situations EXCEPT: A) seizures.
B) peripheral shunting.
C) hyperthermia.
D) exercise.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) can be caused by:
1) hypokalemia.
2) intrinsic myocardial disease.
3) hypoxemia.
4) acidemia.
A) 1
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) The respiratory therapist is monitoring a patient in the medical ICU and notes multiple premature ventricular complexes (PVCs) on the cardiac monitor. The respiratory therapist elects to review the patient's medication administration record (MAR) for medications the patient is receiving to rule out medication toxicity as a cause of the PVCs. Which of the following medications should the therapist evaluate as a possibility of inducing PVCs?
A) Theophylline
B) Beta blockers
C) Vitamin D
D) Acetaminophen
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8
Chapter 7: Radiologic Examination of the Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be normal findings of the heart and its surrounding area?
1) The left hilum is about 2 cm higher than the right hilum.
2) Most of the heart shadow is to the right of the sternum.
3) Calcified lymph nodes indicate an adult patient.
4) The cardiothoracic ratio is less than 1:2.
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) A PET/CT scan can provide which of the following?
1) Early detection of cancer metastasis
2) Accurate staging of cancer
3) Radiation treatment of the cancer
4) Activation of chemotherapy drugs within the tumor
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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9
Chapter 8: Other Important Tests and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) In response to a viral infection, which of the following can be expected to be seen in the white blood cell count?
A) Increased lymphocytes
B) Decreased monocytes
C) Increased basophils
D) Decreased platelets
Q2) Therapeutic bronchoscopy is used for all of the following EXCEPT:
A) to remove a foreign body.
B) in selective lavage.
C) in bronchiectasis evaluation.
D) to manage life-threatening hemoptysis.
Q3) In a normal differential white blood cell (WBC) count, which of the following would have the highest number?
A) Neutrophils
B) Basophils
C) Eosinophils
D) Lymphocytes
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10
Chapter 9: The Therapist-Driven Protocol Program and the
Role of the Respiratory Therapist
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be associated with the distal airway and alveolar weakening clinical scenario?
1) Depressed diaphragm on chest radiograph
2) Use of accessory muscles of inspiration
3) Rhonchi and wheezing
4) Increased PEFR
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
Q2) A TDP can be started after:
A) the nurse finishes his or her assessment.
B) the treatment option is selected.
C) a physician's order for the TDP is received.
D) authorization is received from the patient's insurance carrier.
Q3) Postural drainage, percussion, and vibration are part of what TDP?
A) Lung expansion protocol
B) Bronchopulmonary hygiene therapy protocol
C) Aerosolized medication therapy protocol
D) Oxygen therapy protocol
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Respiratory Failure and the Mechanical
Ventilation Protocol
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a critical value for the key clinical indicators in hypercapnic respiratory failure in an adult?
1) pH 7.25
2) Ventilatory rate 35 breaths/min
3) MIP -25 cm HVentilatory rate O
4) VD/VT 40%
A) 1
B) 2
C) 1, 2
D) 3, 4
Q2) What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism in alveolar hypoventilation?
A) Decreased minute ventilation
B) Increased ventilation/perfusion ratio
C) Decreased venous admixture
D) Decreased inspired oxygen pressure
Q3) All of the following are causes of hypercapnic respiratory failure EXCEPT:
A) impending ventilatory failure.
B) apnea.
C) severe refractory hypoxemia.
D) acute ventilatory failure.
12
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Chapter 11: Recording Skills: The Basis for Data Collection,
Organization, Assessment Skill
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements are true regarding a patient's chart EXCEPT:
A) the patient's chart is a legal record and can be used in court.
B) accreditation agencies may access a patient's chart to assess appropriateness of care.
C) the patient's insurance company may review the patient's chart before providing reimbursement.
D) the patient's spouse may access the patient's chart without authorization by the patient.
Q2) When reviewing a SOAPIER progress note, all of the following would be found in the O area EXCEPT:
A) hemodynamic data.
B) patient's admission complaint.
C) blood pressure.
D) sputum production.
Q3) When reviewing a SOAPIER progress note, the R stands for:
A) revisions made in the original plan.
B) reimbursement by the insurance carrier.
C) respiratory care notes.
D) resuscitation status of the patient.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD),
Chronic Bronchitis, and Emphysema
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms is (are) commonly applied to a patient with emphysema?
1) Pink puffer
2) Blue bloater
3) Type A COPD
4) Type B COPD
A) 1
B) 2
C) 1, 3
D) 2, 4
Q2) According to the GOLD report, which of the following is the greatest worldwide risk factor for COPD?
A) Exposure to fungal spores in the soil
B) Genetic predisposition
C) Exposure to influenza viruses
D) Exposure to environmental tobacco smoke
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Chapter 13: Asthma
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many components of care are included in the NAEPP-EPR-3 asthma management guidelines?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Q2) At what age does asthma severity peak in males?
A) 1 and 3 years
B) 5 and 7 years
C) 18 and 20 years
D) 30 and 32 years
Q3) What term is used to describe the situation when an initial asthmatic response occurs within 1 hour of exposure to an allergen followed by a delayed asthmatic response hours later?
A)Deferred dyspneic response
B)Asynchronous activation response
C)Biphasic response
D)Bipolar response
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15
Chapter 14: Bronchiectasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Congenital causes of bronchiectasis include:
A) influenza.
B) cystic fibrosis.
C) COPD.
D) rheumatic disease.
Q2) A patient with severe bronchiectasis may show all of the following signs EXCEPT:
A) distended neck veins.
B) pitting edema.
C) enlarged and tender liver.
D) S<sub>3</sub> heart sound.
Q3) Which of the following pulmonary function testing values would be found in a patient with severe, obstructive bronchiectasis?
A) Decreased RV/TLC ratio
B) Increased PEFR
C) Increased FEF<sub>25%-75%</sub>
D) Decreased FEF<sub>25%-75%</sub>
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Chapter 15: Cystic Fibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) If both the mother and the father are carriers for the cystic fibrosis gene, what are the chances that their child will be a cystic fibrosis carrier?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
Q2) What complicating pulmonary problem is likely to happen to a patient with cystic fibrosis?
A) Pulmonary edema
B) Pleural effusion
C) Spontaneous pneumothorax
D) Cardiac tamponade
Q3) A patient has a lung infection with Pseudomonas aeruginosa. What antibiotic should be used against it?
A) Tobramycin (TOBI)
B) Dornase alpha (Pulmozyme)
C) Levalbuterol (Xopenex)
D) Pentamidine (NebuPent)
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Chapter 16: Pneumonia
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has bilateral pneumonia. What findings can be expected on the CT scan?
1) Depressed diaphragms
2) Elongated heart
3) Air bronchograms
4) Consolidation
A) 3, 4
B) 1, 2
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following can cause pneumonia?
1) Bacteria
2) Viruses
3) Prions
4) Fungi
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 17: Lung Abscess
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the early stages of a lung abscess, a patient would most likely have a:
A) nonproductive, hacking cough.
B) productive cough with foul-smelling, grey sputum.
C) productive cough with hemoptysis.
D) productive cough with copious white sputum.
Q2) All of the following are parasites associated with lung abscesses EXCEPT:
A) Paragonimus westermani.
B) Echinococcus.
C) Streptococcus pyogenes.
D) Entamoeba histolytica.
Q3) Which of the following are predisposing factors to aspiration of oropharyngeal secretions and/or gastric contents into the lower respiratory tract?
1) General anesthesia
2) Head trauma
3) Seizure disorder
4) Alcohol abuse
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 18: Tuberculosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Risk factors predisposing a person to TB include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) having HIV/AIDS.
B) being immunosuppressed.
C) African American or Hispanic heritage.
D) malnutrition.
Q2) A patient has been found to have tuberculosis (TB) in several organs of the body. What term is used to describe this situation?
A) Primary TB
B) Postprimary TB
C) Disseminated TB
D) Multiorgan TB
Q3) A negative tuberculin test would be demonstrated by an induration (wheal) of what size?
A) 4 mm or less
B) 6 mm or less
C) 8 mm or greater
D) 10 mm or greater
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Chapter 19: Fungal Diseases of the Lung
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fungal infection of the lungs is closest in similarity to:
A) pleural disease.
B) interstitial lung disease.
C) tuberculosis.
D) bronchiectasis.
Q2) What parts of the lungs are most commonly affected by a fungal infection?
A) Mainstem bronchi
B) Lingula
C) Lower lobes
D) Upper lobes
Q3) The drug of choice for the treatment of fungal lung diseases is:
A) penicillin (penicillin G).
B) tetracycline.
C) amphotericin B (Fungizone).
D) ketoconazole (Nizoral).
Q4) A patient has an Aspergillus niger infection. What should be used to treat it?
A) Fluconazole (Diflucan)
B) Ribavirin (Virazole)
C) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
D) Ketoconazole (Nizoral)
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Pulmonary Edema
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are causes of cardiogenic pulmonary edema EXCEPT:
A) myocardial infarction.
B) mitral valve disease.
C) allergic reaction to drugs.
D) congenital heart defects.
Q2) As pulmonary edema progressively worsens, the fluid moves in which of the following sequences?
A) Peribronchial interstitial spaces, bronchi, trachea
B) Alveoli , bronchioles, bronchi
C) Bronchioles, bronchi, trachea
D) Pulmonary capillaries, alveoli, bronchioles
Q3) Mask CPAP is used with pulmonary edema patients because it does all of the following EXCEPT:
A) decrease vascular congestion.
B) reduce work of breathing.
C) it is less expensive than mechanical ventilation.
D) improve lung compliance.
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22
Chapter 21: Pulmonary Vascular Disease: Pulmonary
Embolism and Pulmonary Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following fibrinolytic agents are used to treat a pulmonary embolism?
1) Urokinase
2) Vitamin K
3) Heparin
4) Streptokinase
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) The respiratory therapist is listening to the heart sounds of a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolus. The therapist could expect to hear all of the following EXCEPT:
A) increased second heart Sound (S2).
B) increased splitting of the second heart sound (S2).
C) third heart sound (S3).
D) fourth heart sound (S4).
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Flail Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are causes of a flail chest EXCEPT:
A) blast injury.
B) motor vehicle accident.
C) split sternum for open heart surgery.
D) fall from heights.
Q2) When a patient has a flail chest, what happens during the ventilatory cycle?
A) The I:E ratio becomes inverse.
B) Air leaks out through the flail area.
C) Air leaks in through the flail area.
D) Air is shunted from one lung to the other.
Q3) What is the term for abnormal gas movement from one lung to the other?
A) Paradoxical movement
B) Pendelluft
C) Palindromic breathing
D) Pneumatic shift
Q4) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding paradoxical chest movement?
A) With inspiration, the flail section moves outward.
B) The trachea deviates away from the flail side of the chest.
C) During inspiration, the flail section moves inward.
D) During exhalation, the flail area moves inward.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Pneumothorax
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 6-foot-tall, 140-pound, 28-year-old female patient has come to the emergency department with a complaint of a sudden sharp pain in the right upper chest followed by shortness of breath. The pain originated while she participated in deep breathing exercises in a yoga class. The physician has determined that she has a 15% pneumothorax. How should the pneumothorax be classified?
A) Open
B) Exercise related
C) Spontaneous
D) Traumatic
Q2) A patient has a pneumothorax with a sucking chest wound resulting in the movement of gas from one lung to another. This is called:
A) panting.
B) paradoxical movement.
C) bidirectional flow.
D) pendelluft.
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Chapter 24: Pleural Effusion and Empyema
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Q1) Which of the following are associated with a transudative pleural effusion?
1) Thin and watery fluid
2) Fluid has a lot of cellular debris
3) Fluid has high protein count
4) Few blood cells
A) 2, 3
B) 1, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
Q2) The anatomic alteration caused by a pleural effusion is:
A) pulmonary fibrosis.
B) separation of the visceral and parietal pleura.
C) adhesion of the visceral and parietal pleura.
D) pulmonary edema.
Q3) The major pathologic and structural changes associated with a significant pleural effusion include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) diaphragm elevation.
B) atelectasis.
C) compression of the great vessels.
D) lung compression.
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Chapter 25: Kyphoscoliosis
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Q1) Which of the following chest assessment findings are associated with kyphoscoliosis?
1) Crackles or wheezing
2) Hyperresonant percussion note
3) Whispered pectoriloquy
4) Tracheal shift
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) The major pathologic and structural changes of the lungs found with kyphoscoliosis include:
1) mediastinal shift.
2) elevated diaphragms.
3) lung compression.
4) mucus accumulation.
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Interstitial Lung Diseases
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Q1) The diffusing capacity of a patient with coal worker's pneumoconiosis or silicosis would be expected to be:
A) normal.
B) increased.
C) decreased.
D) variable based on the age of the patient.
Q2) What is the most common pulmonary complication associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
A) Bronchospasm
B) Pleurisy
C) Atelectasis
D) Diaphragmatic dysfunction
Q3) What is another name for rheumatoid pneumoconiosis?
A) Goodpasture's syndrome
B) Caplan's syndrome
C) Churg-Strauss syndrome
D) Sjögren's syndrome
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Chapter 27: Cancer of the Lung
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Q1) Which of the following is (are) small cell lung cancer(s)?
1) Undifferentiated carcinoma
2) Squamous carcinoma
3) Adenocarcinoma
4) Oat cell carcinoma
A) 4
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Q2) Which of the following is the most common form of lung cancer among those who have never smoked cigarettes or other tobacco products?
A) Squamous cell carcinoma
B) Adenocarcinoma
C) Large cell carcinoma
D) Small cell carcinoma
Q3) The most common cause of lung cancer is:
A) cigarette smoking.
B) air pollution.
C) exposure to asbestos.
D) exposure to radon gas.
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Chapter 28: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) Breath sounds associated with ARDS include:
1) vesicular.
2) bronchovesicular.
3) crackles.
4) bronchial.
A) 4
B) 1, 2
C) 3, 4
D) 2, 3, 4
Q2) All of the following materials will be found in the alveoli of a patient with ARDS EXCEPT:
A) leukocytes.
B) cellular debris.
C) fibrin.
D) hyaline membrane.
Q3) The chest radiograph finding indicative of severe ARDS is:
A) "ground-glass" appearance of the lungs.
B) pleural effusion.
C) bilateral hyperinflation of the lungs.
D) tracheal deviation.
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Chapter 29: Guillain-Barré Syndrome
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Q1) A patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome developed atelectasis. His chest radiograph findings would be expected to show:
A) "ground-glass" appearance.
B) "honeycombing."
C) increased opacity.
D) blunted costophrenic angles.
Q2) Which of following has been shown to shorten the course of a severe case of Guillain-Barré syndrome?
A) Renal dialysis
B) Plasmapheresis
C) Blood transfusion
D) NSAIDs
Q3) Which of the following are identified as the causative organisms of the respiratory or gastrointestinal infections that precede the onset of most cases of GBS?
A) Chlamydia psittaci and Campylobacter jejuni
B) Cytomegalovirus and mononucleosis
C) Campylobacter jejuni and cytomegalovirus
D) Mononucleosis and parainfluenza 2
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Chapter 30: Myasthenia Gravis
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Q1) Which of the following disrupt(s) the nerve impulse transmission in myasthenia gravis?
A) MuSK
B) Edrophonium
C) IgG antibodies
D) RNS
Q2) What clinical change would be expected following a rest period for a patient with myasthenia gravis?
A) There is no clinical change.
B) Strength decreases.
C) Muscle strength improves.
D) Ascending paralysis descends.
Q3) What test is usually performed to confirm the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis?
A) RNS
B) PFT
C) CBC
D) EEG
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Chapter 31: Sleep Apnea
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Q1) All of the following are evaluated during a polysomnographic sleep study EXCEPT:
A) breath sounds.
B) chest and/or abdominal movement.
C) electro-oculogram (EOG).
D) nasal and oral air flow.
Q2) Mixed sleep apnea has which of these traits?
1) Obstructive apnea traits
2) Central apnea traits
3) Usually begins as central apnea
4) Usually ends as central apnea
A) 2, 4
B) 1, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 4
Q3) The rationale behind the use of supplemental oxygen in the treatment of sleep apnea is to:
A) preoxygenate the airway prior to the apneic episodes.
B) stimulate the central chemoreceptors and prevent apneic episodes.
C) increase the respiratory drive in the medulla.
D) blow off carbon dioxide in the alveolus.
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Chapter 32: Clinical Manifestations Common with Newborn and
Early Childhood Respiratory Dis
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Q1) Apneic episodes in a premature neonate can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) epiglottitis.
B) immature central nervous system.
C) immature airway receptors.
D) immature chemoreceptors.
Q2) Late clinical manifestations of an infant with respiratory distress include:
1) elevated diaphragm.
2) decreased respiratory rate.
3) CO<sub>2</sub> retention.
4) lethargy.
A) 2, 3
B) 1, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) PPHN usually appears:
A) in utero during the last trimester.
B) within 1 hour of birth.
C) within the first 12 hours of birth.
D) between the 1st and 6th days of life.
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Chapter 33: Meconium Aspiration Syndrome
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Q1) About how many neonatal patients with MAS will require mechanical ventilation?
A) 50%
B) 30%
C) 10% to 15%
D) 4%
Q2) How may a fetus respond when he or she becomes hypoxemic?
A) The fetus stops making breathing efforts.
B) The fetus makes rapid, shallow chest movements.
C) The fetus makes very deep, gasping inspiratory movements.
D) The fetus shows Kussmaul respirations.
Q3) If mechanical ventilation is needed to support a neonate with MAS, which of the following settings is especially important?
A) High positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) level
B) Long exhalation time
C) High humidity level
D) Give no more than 50% oxygen
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Chapter 34: Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn
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Q1) Which of the following clinical manifestations are associated with the more negative intrapleural pressures needed during inspiration?
1) Thick, tenacious secretions
2) Intercostal retractions
3) Nasal flaring
4) Mediastinal shift
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) In reviewing the chart of a neonate who has developed TTN, what is a likely finding related to the Apgar score?
A) The 1- and 5-minute scores are good.
B) The 1-minute score is good and 5-minute score is bad.
C) The 1-minute score is bad and 5-minute score is good.
D) Both scores are bad.
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) primarily affects infants who are:
A) preterm with insufficient surfactant.
B) full-term.
C) postterm with too much surfactant.
D) preterm with too much surfactant.
Q2) Management of a neonate with RDS may include: 1) CPAP.
2) instilling surfactant into the lungs.
3) mechanical ventilation.
4) supplemental oxygen.
A) 2
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) It is likely that a neonate with RDS will have which of the following chest radiograph findings?
A) Airway dilation and distortion
B) Fluffy infiltrates in the bases of the lungs
C) Ground-glass appearance
D) Cardiomegaly
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Chapter 36: Pulmonary Air Leak Syndromes
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Q1) How does pulmonary interstitial emphysema (PIE) affect lung function?
1) Increased airway resistance
2) Decreased lung compliance
3) Increased lung compliance
4) Decreased airway resistance
A) 1
B) 1, 2
C) 3, 4
D) 2, 4
Q2) An intubated, mechanically ventilated neonate developed a pneumothorax of the right lung. What could the respiratory therapist recommend to help the injured lung to heal?
A) Selectively place the endotracheal tube into the left mainstem bronchus.
B) Selectively place the endotracheal tube into the right mainstem bronchus.
C) Replace the endotracheal tube with a tracheostomy tube.
D) Change to continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).
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Chapter 37: Respiratory Syncytial Virus (Bronchiolitis or Pneumonitis)
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Q1) Which of the following are major pathologic or structural changes associated with RSV?
1) Dilation and distortion of the airways
2) Inflammation of the peripheral airways
3) Alveolar hyperinflation
4) Pulmonary edema
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) A respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infection will cause which of the following anatomic alterations of the lungs?
1) Chemical pneumonitis of the small airways
2) Peribronchiolar mononuclear infiltration
3) Small airway epithelial necrosis
4) Edema of the epiglottis and upper airway
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 2, 3, 4
39
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Chapter 38: Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia
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Q1) A patient with classic Stage 1 BPD will have which of the following chest radiograph findings?
A) Ground-glass granular pattern
B) Emphysematous bullae
C) Honeycomb appearance
D) Mediastinal shift
Q2) Which of the following can increase an infant's likelihood of developing BPD?
A) Birth weight >3000 g
B) Overfeeding
C) Use of beta2-agonists
D) Bacterial sepsis
Q3) What changes result when stress fractures of the capillary endothelium and basement membranes develop during mechanical ventilation?
A) Fluid leakage into alveolar spaces
B) Bronchospasm
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) TTN
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Chapter 39: Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
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Q1) What is the medical term for the condition associated with some cases of CDH in which the heart is pushed to the right side of the chest?
A) Morgagni's movement
B) Dextrocardia
C) Ambidextrocardia
D) Bochdalek's shift
Q2) Which of the following is described as abnormal elevation of an intact diaphragm into the chest cavity?
A) Diaphragmatic eventration
B) Morgagni's hernia
C) Bochdalek's hernia
D) Diaphragmatic altimetry
Q3) What additional procedures or treatments might be required for a patient with a CDH and significant pulmonary hypoplasia?
A) Plasmapheresis
B) ECMO
C) Cardiac pacemaker
D) Bronchoscopy
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Chapter 40: Congenital Heart Diseases
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Q1) According to the NHLBI, what is the most common type of birth defect?
A) Cerebral palsy
B) Congenital heart defects
C) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
D) Cleft palate
Q2) Which congenital cardiac abnormality results from "the arrested development of the secundum septum"?
A) Ostium secundum VSD
B) Ostium secundum ASD
C) Ostium secundum TGA
D) Ostium secundum TOF
Q3) Which of the following are considered to be noncyanotic defects?
1) PDA
2) ASD
3) TOF
4) VSD
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 41: Croup Syndrome: Laryngotracheobronchitis and
Acute Epiglottitis
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Q1) All of the following anatomic alterations may be found in a patient with LTB EXCEPT:
A) increased secretions.
B) ineffective cilia.
C) narrowed airway lumen.
D) excessive surfactant production.
Q2) The respiratory therapist is assigned to the pediatric unit of the hospital. The physician who is caring for a 3-year-old boy with LTB asks what respiratory therapy treatments should be given. The respiratory therapist should suggest which of the following?
1) Racemic epinephrine
2) Cool mist tent
3) Antibiotics
4) Endotracheal or tracheostomy tube
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 42: Near Drowning/Wet Drowning
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Q1) Which of the following breath sounds would be expected during auscultation of a wet-drowning victim?
1) Bronchovesicular
2) Vesicular
3) Crackles
4) Friction rub
A) 1
B) 3
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Q2) According to the World Health Organization, where does drowning rank worldwide as a cause of unintentional death?
A) It's the leading cause of unintentional death.
B) It's the second leading cause of unintentional death.
C) It's the third leading cause of unintentional death.
D) It ranks twenty-third among the causes of unintentional death.
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Chapter 43: Smoke Inhalation, Thermal Injuries, and Carbon
Monoxide Intoxication
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Q1) A 65-year-old patient has third-degree skin burns over 30% of his body and a smoke inhalation injury. How does the combination of skin burns and smoke inhalation affect his prognosis?
A) It quadruples the mortality rate.
B) It more than triples the mortality rate.
C) It almost doubles the mortality rate.
D) There is no mortality change between having one or two concurrent problems.
Q2) Clinical signs of an upper airway thermal injury include:
1) facial burns.
2) atelectasis.
3) mucosal edema.
4) epithelial sloughing.
A) 3
B) 1, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 44: Atelectasis
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Q1) A patient has a tumor blocking the left mainstem bronchus. What additional factor would favor the development of atelectasis?
A) Breathing a nitric oxide mix (iNO)
B) Breathing a helium/oxygen mix (heliox)
C) Breathing a high percentage of oxygen
D) Breathing a low percentage of oxygen
Q2) All of the following would be found in a patient with atelectasis EXCEPT:
A) normal shunt fraction.
B) whispered pectoriloquy.
C) chest radiograph shows increased density in areas of atelectasis.
D) diminished breath sounds.
Q3) Common chest assessment findings in a patient with atelectasis include:
1) increased tactile fremitus.
2) dull percussion note.
3) crackles.
4) bronchial breath sounds.
A) 4
B) 1, 2
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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